SA Med III

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Author:
HLW
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170591
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SA Med III
Updated:
2012-09-12 22:50:11
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SA Med III
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SA Med III
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  1. Will the FIV vaccination cause a positive FIV-Ab test?
    Yes
  2. Is the FIV vaccine recommended?
    No
  3. What cells does Infectious Canine Hepatitis (CAV-1) target?
    • Hepatocytes
    • Endothelial cells
  4. How is infectious canine hepatitis diagnosed?
    • Serological testing
    • Virus isolation
    • Immunofluorescence
    • Histopathology
  5. What type of vaccines are only recommended for infectious canine hepatitis (CAV-1)?
    Only CAV-2 vaccines
  6. What are some unique clinical signs associated with Canine distemper virus?
    • "Chewing gum" seizures
    • Myoclonus
    • Dental enamel hypoplasia
    • Naso-digital hyperkeratosis
  7. How is a presumptive diagnosis of of canine distemper virus infection obtained?
    • Based on clinical signs in young dogs (2-6 months)
    • History of no vaccination
    • Probability of exposure
  8. What clinical signs often come before CNS signs in canine distemper virus?
    • GI
    • Respiratory
  9. What serology is suggestive of recent infection of canine distemper virus?
    • Rising serum neutralizing antbody titer
    • or CDV-specific IgM titer
  10. What viruses make up the kennel cough complex?
    • Bordetella bronchiseptica
    • Canine parainfluenza virus (CPI)
    • Canine adenovirus-2 (CAV-2)
  11. What are the most common sites of extraintestinal toxoplasmosis in cats?
    • Pulmonary
    • CNS
    • Hepatic
    • Pancreatic
    • Cardiac
    • Ocular
  12. What one blood chem value is most important when diagnosing toxoplasmosis?
    Elevated CK
  13. How is a definitive diagnosis of toxoplasmosis obtained?
    Seeing organism (Histopathology)
  14. What antibody correlates best with clinical toxoplasmosis?
    IgM
  15. What drug is used to treat feline toxoplasmosis and neosporosis?
    Clindamycin
  16. Is there an increased risk of toxoplasmosis associated with cat ownership?
    No
  17. Can dogs produce T. gondii oocysts?
    No
  18. What is the most common clinical feature of neosporosis in dogs?
    Ascending paralysis w/ hyperextension of hindlimbs
  19. What breed of dogs are overly represented in babesiosis infections?
    • Greyhounds
    • Pit bulls
  20. What is the primary differential for Babesiosis?
    IMHA
  21. How do you obtain a definitive diagnosis of Babesiosis?
    Demonstration of organism
  22. 90% of feline upper respiratory infections are caused by what two viruses?
    • Feline herpes virus
    • Feline Calicivirus
  23. What other lesion is usually present in cats infected with feline herpes virus?
    Corneal ulcers
  24. What other lesion is usually present in cats infected with feline calicivirus?
    Oral ulcers
  25. Are lab tests routinely needed to diagnose feline upper respiratory infections?
    No, usually just presumptive
  26. What is the most common treatment of feline herpes virus infections?
    Lysine PO
  27. Does the FHV and FCV vaccines protects cats from infection?
    No, just protects against disease severity
  28. How are nasopharyngeal polyps definitively diagnosed?
    Histopathology
  29. The majority of nasal tumors in dogs are of what kind?
    Adenocarcinoma
  30. The majority of nasal tumors in cats are of what kind?
    • Lymphoma (50%)
    • Adenocarcinoma, SCC (50%)
  31. How are nasal tumors diagnosed definitively?
    Histopathology
  32. What is the treatment of choice for nasal tumors?
    Radiation therapy
  33. What animals usually get Cryptococcus neoformans infections (nasal mycoses)?
    Cats
  34. In what animals is Aspergillosis (nasal mycoses) most common?
    Young, male dogs
  35. What are the key features of an Aspergillosis infection in dogs?
    • Nasal discharge
    • Sneezing
    • Depigmentation and ulceration of external nares
  36. What is the treatment of choice for Aspergillosis and what must you be sure of before treatment?
    Topical clotrimazole infusion (must be sure that cribiform plate is intact)

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