Volume 1 (UREs)

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sisney
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17107
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Volume 1 (UREs)
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2010-05-13 00:14:10
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ure questions
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  1. what is the true course (TC) an expression of in arial navigation?
    a. time
    b. distance
    c. direction
    d. distance and time
    direction
  2. the basic operating principle of the very high frequency omnidirectional range system is the phase comparison between the
    a. 30 Hz reference and 30 Hz variable signals
    b. 30 Hz reference and 9960 Hz FM signals
    c. 30 Hz variable and 9960 Hz FM signals
    d. 90 Hz and 150 Hz modulated signals
    30 Hz reference and 30 Hz variable signals
  3. in instrument landing system operation, a deflection of two dots on the attitude direction indicator glide slope deviation scale indicates the aircraft is
    a. 0.25 degrees off glide path
    b. 2.5 degrees off glide path
    c. 0.6 degrees off glide path
    d. 6.0 degrees off glide path
    0.6 degrees off glide path
  4. what is used to guide the aircraft during an instrument approach to the active runway?
    a. microwave landing system (MLS) back azimuth transmitter
    b. MLS approach azimuth transmitter
    c. glide slope
    d. localizer
    MLS approach azimuth transmitter
  5. the typical tactical air navigation (TACAN) system consits of an
    a. airborne interrogator-receiver and a surface beacon (UHF range)
    b. airborne interrogator-receiver and a surface beacon (VHF range)
    c. airborne beacon and surface interrogator-receiver (HF range)
    d. airborne beacon and surface interrogator-receiver (LF range)
    airborne interrogator-receiver and a surface beacon (UHF range)
  6. the tactical air navigation (TACAN) bearing, selected course, and range are displayed on the
    a. attitude direction indicator
    b. digital electronics display
    c. horizontal situation indicator
    d. standby attitude indicator
    horizontal situation indicator
  7. the aircraft compass is designed to align itself with
    a. the Earth's horizontal magnetic field
    b. the Earth's vertical magnetic field
    c. the north and south poles
    d. true north
    the Earth's horizontal magnetic field
  8. what type of error is caused by misalignment of the magnetic azimuth detector during installation?
    a. index
    b. coriolis
    c. hard iron
    d. transmission
    index
  9. what are the two types of inertial navigation system integrators?
    a. analog and digital
    b. motion and velocity
    c. electrical and mechanical
    d. acceleration and directional
    analog and digital
  10. what component is the heart of the F-16 inertial navigation unit (INU)?
    a. computer
    b. integrator
    c. stabilized platform
    d. performance monitor
    stabilized platform
  11. the global positioning system (GPS) provides all except:
    a. time of day
    b.aircraft identification
    c. Have-quick synchronization
    d. correction for in-flight internal navigation system (INS) alignment
    aircraft identification
  12. in an embedded global positioning system, a Kalman filter is used to model errors in
    a. latitude and longitude
    b. velocity and position
    c. altitude and attitude
    d. pitch and roll
    velocity and position
  13. the operational range of the combined altitude radar altimeter is
    a. 0-1,000 feet
    b. 0-2,000 feet
    c. 0-5,000 feet
    d. 0-50,000 feet
    0-50,000 ft
  14. on the combined altitude radar altimeter, an intermediate frequency of 495 kHz can represent
    a. one altitude
    b. two altitudes
    c. six altitudes
    d. seven altitudes
    seven altitudes
  15. what is the term for random or unintentional electron movement?
    a. noise
    b. distortion
    c. modulation
    d. heterodyning
    noise
  16. what process lowers a frequency while retaining the intelligence carried on that frequency?
    a. frequency conversion
    b. heterodyning
    c. demodulation
    d. modulation
    heterodyning
  17. which component's function is to radiate and collect radio frequency (RF)?
    a. antenna
    b. speaker
    c. amplifier
    d. microphone
    antenna
  18. what is the frequency range of the ultrahigh frequency (UHF) radio system?
    a. 2.2500 to 3.9997 MHz
    b. 22.500 to 39.9997 MHz
    c. 225.000 to 399.975 MHz
    d. 2250.00 to 3999.75 MHz
    225.000-399.975 MHz
  19. what frequency is displayed when the radio set control switch is set to GUARD?
    a. 225 MHz
    b. 234 MHz
    c. 243 MHz
    d. 325 MHz
    243 MHz
  20. the very high frequency (VHF) communication system provides clear-voice, two-way communication with what type of modulation?
    a. AM only
    b. AM and FM
    c. pulse and AM
    d. pulse and FM
    AM and FM
  21. the amount of high-frequency wave refraction is directly proportional to the
    a. signal frequency and indirectly proportional to the wavelength
    b. signal wavelength and indirectly proportional to the frequency
    c. transmitter power and indirectly proportional to antenna height
    d. antenna height and indirectly proportional to the transmitter power
    signal wavelength and indirectly proportional to the frequency
  22. with single-sideband modulation, what signal(s) gets discarded?
    a. carrier only
    b. upper sideband only
    c. lower sideband only
    d. carrier and one sideband
    carrier and one sideband
  23. an antenna coupler is required for high-frequency transmissions to
    a. allow the transmission of the center frequency and carrier signal from one antenna
    b. match the impedance of the antenna to the selected frequency
    c. compensate for the degree of atmospheric ionization
    d. allow the use of multiple antennas
    match the impedance of the antenna to the selected frequency
  24. which is not a major component of the AN/ARC-190 radio system?
    a. High-frequency receiver
    b. Receiver-transmitter
    c. Radio set control
    d. Antenna coupler
    High-frequency receiver
  25. how many high-frequency channels can be selected from the AN/ARC-190 radio set control?
    a. 29 (00-29)
    b. 29 (01-29)
    c. 30 (00-29)
    d. 30 (01-30)
    30 (00-29)
  26. in the inttercommunications system, which type of communication does not require the use of a push-to-talk switch to activate the microphone (MIC)?
    a. CALL
    b. HOT-MIC
    c. EXTERNAL
    d. INTERPHONE
    HOT-MIC
  27. which best describes the intercommunications system audio common ground?
    a. used for noise reduction
    b. primarily used to prevent shock
    c. connected close to each line replaceable unit
    d. completes the path for current back to the power source
    used for noise reduction
  28. the intercommunication system has power whenever there is aircraft power and the intercommunication
    a. circuit breakers are closed
    b. station rotary select is set to operate
    c. monitor panel pushbutton is engaged
    d. set control master switch is depressed
    circuit breakers are closed
  29. what type of satellites has circular equatorial orbits and appears stationary with respect to a point on Earth?
    a. active
    b. passive
    c. geosynchronous
    d. nongeosynchronous
    geosynchronous
  30. what does a satellite do with the signal it receives before it retransmits it back to Earth?
    a. removes the sidebands
    b. removes the center frequency
    c. filters, amplifies, and up converts
    d. down converts, amplifies, and up converts
    down converts, amplifies, and up converts
  31. what is the digital teletype data-rate capability of the Single Integrated Operational Plan terminal?
    a. 75-bits per second (bps)
    b. 300 bps
    c. 33.6-kilobits per second (Kbps)
    d. 56 Kbps
    75-bits per second (bps)
  32. which AN/ASC-19 component has the selector switch that transfers control to the satellite terminal?
    a. printer
    b. mini input/output keyboard
    c. satellite communications control panel
    d. ultra high frequency line-of-sight radio AN/ARC-171(V)
    Ultra high frequency line-of-sight radio AN/ARC171(V)
  33. a true statement concerning satellite channel allocation is that the channels are
    a. preassigned
    b. assigned randomly
    c. assigned on the basis of current need and priorities
    d. are assigned on the basis of current location of the aircraft
    assigned on the basis of current need and prioritites
  34. the selective identification feature (SIF) is used
    a. whenever search radar requests additional information
    b. when broadcasting warning signals to a particular aircraft
    c. if the target aircraft does not respond to IFF interrogation
    d. to determin azimuth and identification of the target aircraft
    to determine azimuth and identification of the target aircraft
  35. what identifies the equipment that transmits the altitude of the airborne identification friend or foe/selective identification feature (IFF/SIF)?
    a. encoding scalers
    b. decoding scalers
    c. altitude digitizer
    d. altitude coder
    altitude digitizer
  36. which mode of operation is used for security identity?
    a. mode 1
    b. mode 2
    c. mode 3/A
    d. mode 4
    mode 1
  37. the angle of attack of an aircraft wing is the angle
    a. between the chord line and true heading
    b. between the chord line and the direction of relative wind
    c. of elevation between the aircraft pitch line and the target
    d. between the aircraft pitch line and the surface of the Earth
    between the chord line and the direction of the relative wind
  38. which axis extends lengthwise through the fuselage from the nose to the tail of an aircraft?
    a. lateral
    b. vertical
    c. horizontal
    d. longitudinal
    longitudinal
  39. which of these describe yaw?
    a. left wing down
    b. right wing down
    c. nose up, nose down
    d. nose left, nose right
    nose left, nose right
  40. what do stabilators on an aircraft control?
    a. roll and yaw
    b. pitch and yaw
    c. pitch and roll
    d. yaw and direction
    pitch and roll
  41. what aircraft control surfaces control the movement of an aircraft about the vertical axis and produce the motion known as yaw?
    a. wings
    b. rudders
    c. flaperons
    d. elevators
    rudders
  42. what control surface is not a part of the F-15 primary flight control system?
    a. ailerons
    b. twin rudders
    c. stabilators
    d. flaperons
    flaperons
  43. what F-16 flight control system (FLCS) component contains a force-sensing unit that contains transducers in both the pitch and roll axes?
    a. stick
    b. throttle
    c. rudder pedals
    d. integrated servo actuator
    stick
  44. what is the main purpose of the air data computer (ADC)?
    a. reduce weight and space on the aircraft
    b. produce reference data for use by almost all other aircraft systems
    c. mathematically convert all indicator values into usable information
    d. generate sychro outputs that can be sent to all the using subsystems
    produce reference data for use by almost all other aircraft systems
  45. what does the angle of attack (AOA) transmitter use to produce its output?
    a. two pure platinum sensing elements
    b. a stabilized gyroscope that detects aircraft angle
    c. two synchros that align the probe tip with the airstream
    d. a movable sensing element that routes air into two synchro cavities
    a movable sensing element that routes air into two synchro cavities
  46. what provides the aircrew with a visual pitch and roll heading and command information?
    a. air data computer
    b. flight instruments
    c. inertial navigation system
    d. flight director instruments
    flight director instruments
  47. what line replaceable unit (LRU) may develop errors during acrobatic maneuvering?
    a. attitude director finder (ADI)
    b. standby attitude indicator (SAI)
    c. vertical velocity indicator (VVI)
    d. horizontal situation indicator (HSI)
    standby attitude indicator (SAI)
  48. what unit generates and overlays symbology for the F-15 head up display system?
    a. programmable display generator
    b. programmable display processor
    c. multipurpose display generator
    d. multipurpose display processor
    multipurpose display processor
  49. what unit establishes communication on the 1553 MUX bus in backup mode for the F-15 up-front controls?
    a. central computer
    b. avionics interface unit
    c. central computer interface
    d. multipurpose display processor
    multipurpose display processor
  50. multiplexing is best described as
    a. a way to interface multiple aircraft systems
    b. a method of communication between analog aircraft systems
    c. the concept of time-sharing communication lines on the aircraft
    d. the procedure of transmitting many digital signals over a single pair of wires
    the procedure of transmitting many digital signals over a single pair of wires
  51. the multiplexing (MUX) system time-sharing concept is best described as
    a. digital and analog information alternating on the MUX system
    b. avionics systems processing digital information at differenty times
    c. all information that has to be processed takes turns on the same communication line
    d. a method of controlling the amount of time each avionics system can communicate on a MUX line
    all information that has to be processed takes turns on the same communication line
  52. when completion of an operation on a data bus starts the next operation, the bus is said to function
    a. concurrently
    b. consecutively
    c. asynchronously
    d. monosynchronously
    asynchronously
  53. the ability of a radar set to indicate very small differences in range where targets are in the same direction is known as range
    a. size
    b. value
    c. resolution
    d. consistency
    resolution
  54. to eliminate echoes from stationary objects, the frequency-shift principle is sometimes used with what type of radar set?
    a. pulsed
    b. modulated
    c. unmodulated
    d. stationary
    pulsed
  55. if the returned frequency from a Dopplar radar set has decreased in frequency, the
    a. target is approaching the set
    b. target is moving parallel to the set
    c. distance between target and set is decreasing
    d. distance between target and set is increasing
    distance between target and set is increasing
  56. when is the purpose of the synchronizer in a radar system?
    a. display range information
    b. time the operation of all units
    c. monitor the operation of all other units
    d. measure the time between the transmission and the echo
    time the operation of all units
  57. a radar receiver produces an intermediate frequency (IF) that is the
    a. echo frequency
    b. local oscillator "beat" frequency
    c. sum of the echo frequency and local oscillator "beat" frequency
    d. difference between the echo frequency and the local oscillator "beat" frequency
    difference between the echo frequency and the local oscillator "beat" frequency
  58. the main purpose of chaff when used as an electronic countermeasure is to
    a. cause a Doppler shift
    b. enhance radar returns
    c. confuse radar operators
    d. jam a specific frequency
    confuse radar operators
  59. the functions of a digital stores management system are initiated by the
    a. operator
    b. main computer
    c. backup computer
    d. interface unit
    operator
  60. radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems normally facillitate the computerized release of onboard
    a. rockets
    b. missiles
    c. nuclear bombs
    d. conventional bombs
    missiles
  61. when are the audio/communication control panels used in conjunction with the stores management system?
    a. to perform ground functional checks
    b. to provide status of loaded missiles
    c. to control the emergency release of conventional weapons
    d. to bypass the need to position the landing gear in the up position
    to perform ground functional checks
  62. what bombing system release option can be equated to a single-selected weapons release?
    a. manual
    b. computed
    c. automatic
    d. manual computed
    manual
  63. the toal weight of a pallet of cargo secured with side nets and top net and not exceeding 96 inches in height is
    a. 8,000 pounds
    b. 8,355 pounds
    c. 10,000 pounds
    d. 10,355 pounds
    10,355 lbs
  64. what type of steeringg does the 10K adverse-terrain forklift have?
    a. bend
    b. radical
    c. articulated
    d. reverse mount
    articulated
  65. what does the term type of airdrop refer to when talking about airdrop?
    a. way the load exits the aircraft
    b. type of cargo parachute used
    c. rate of decent of the load
    d. type of platform used
    rate of decent of the load

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