Aural Rehab Test 1

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  1. The inner ear consists of what structures?
    Cochlea and semicircular canals

    Vestibular nerce is very close by too
  2. The middle ear consists of what structures?
    Ear drum (tympanic membrane), malleus-incus-stapes (ossicles)
  3. The outer ear consists of which structures?
    Ear canal, hair cells
  4. The fetus can begin hearing in utero at what week range?
    25-30 weeks is when auditory pathway is formulated
  5. The Pharyngeal Arches of the fetus begin forming at what week?
    The 4th week
  6. What is primary purpose of the Pharyngeal Arches of a fetus?
    Arch 1 turns into tragus, helix (pinna), & concha of outer ear.

    Arch 2 turns into the concha, antihelix, and antitragus
  7. The Acoustic Reflex measures what?
    The effect if middle ear muscle contraction (stiffening) on the tympanic membrane in response to intense sounds.
  8. True or false: In contralateral acoustic reflex testing, the probe tip enters the left ear but measures the reflex in the opposite ear; the sound travels via the cranial nerve.
    TRUE
  9. True or False: Tympanometry is the measurement of middle-ear pressure, determined by the mobility of the membrane as a function of vairous amounts of positive and negative pressure in the external ear canal.
    TRUE
  10. In Tympanometry, the compliance (peak) on the vertical plane is normal in what range?
    0.3-1.7
  11. In Tympanometry, the compliance (peak) on the horizontal plane (pressure) is normal in what range?
    -150 to +50 dPa
  12. In Tympanometry, the normal ear canal volume is in what range?
    0.6 - 2.0
  13. On an As tymp, what can you expect to see?
    A normal pressure peak on the horizontal plane, but an abnormally shallow (low) peak on the vertical plane.

    Is caused by stiffness of the middle ear
  14. On an Ad tymp, what can you expect to see?
    A normal pressure peak on the horizontal plane, but an abnormally deep (high) peak on the vertical plane. They may not even meet.

    Cause by dislocation of middle ear bones
  15. On a type C tymp, what can you expect to see?
    Abnormal (negative) pressure on the horizontal plane, but a normal peak on the vertical plane and normal EC volume.

    Could be caused by allergies or upcoming otitis media.
  16. On a type B tymp, what can you expect to see?
    Abnormal pressure on the horizontal plane, a flat peak on the vertical plane.

    Cause by PE tubes, cerumen, or fluid
  17. A loss at 25-40db is considered what?
    A mild loss
  18. A loss at 40-55db is considered what?
    Moderate
  19. A loss at 55-70 is considered what?
    Moderately severe
  20. A loss at 71-90db is considered what?
    A severe loss
  21. A loss at 91+ db is considered what?
    Profound
  22. What is aural rehab?
    Efforts to restore a lost state or function
  23. When were audiologists allowed to dispense hearing aids?
    1980s. It was exclusive to hearing instrument specialists before that time.
  24. Why don't nearly 80% of people who could use hearing aids actually get one?
    Lack of early identification, access to resources, vanity issues, life experiences, improper fitting instruments
  25. The characteristics of hearing loss include:
    Degree/configuration, time of onset, type of loss, and auditory speech recognition ability.
  26. Prelingual deafness is also known as what?
    Congenital deafness (onset is before birth or prior to development of speech and language.
  27. Postlingual deafness occurs when?
    After age 5
  28. What is the term "deafened" relating to?
    those who lose hearing after their schooling is completed.
  29. The level at which the patient can detect a sound is present is called what?
    Speech detection threshold (SDT)
  30. The level at which the patient can repeat or identify the stimulus is called what?
    Speech recognition threshold (SRT)
  31. WHO identifies a disability as?
    An activity limitation, where hearing is not functioning normally.
  32. WHO defines a handicap as?
    A participation restriction, with secondary consquences for social, emotional, educational, and vocational implications.
  33. CORE stands for what?
    Communication status (impairment), Overall Participation Variables (social, emotional, educational), Related Personal Factors (attitude), and Environmental Factors
  34. CARE stands for what?
    Counseling (patient and family), Audibility Improvement (hearing aid fitting), Remediate Communication Activity (repair strategies, speech reading), Environmental coordination (participation improvement)
  35. These tests do not require a behavioral response from patients?
    OAE & ABR
  36. These measure tiny echos from the inner ear (cochlear hair cells/sensory)
    OAE
  37. These measure patterns of electrical activity in the inner ear and brain in response to acoustic stimuli (cochlea and braninstem/neural)
    ABR & AABR
  38. This test helps differentiate a sensory vs neural hearing loss and are used for infants/difficult to test children
    Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions (EOAEs)
  39. This test is more sensitive and tests the higher frequency ranges of the different hair cells functions
    Transient-Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions (TEOAEs)

    Better for diagnostics than DPOAEs, which are more like screeners
  40. This test is less sensitive and tests the lower to mid frequency ranges, with the different frequencies stimulating different areas of the cochlea. It is better for a quick screening than for a diagnostic purpose
    Distortion Product Otoacoustic Emissions (DPOAEs)
  41. Present OAE's indicate what?
    An intact cochlea and a clear conductive pathway, and there is no worse than a mild hearing loss.
  42. These measurements establish an objective measure of hearing sensitivity in infants and other persons who are unable to participate in behavioral tests, using a series of auditory stimuli presented by a transducer. An EEG picks up the neural response and the computer averages it.
    Auditory Evoked Potentials
  43. The endpoint of an OAE is what?
    The cochlea/outer hair cells
  44. ABR's and AABR's end point is where?
    The brain stem
  45. This screening test is automatic and used only for infants 6 months and under
    AABR
  46. This diagnostic test us frequency specific and used for any adult or child that you can't get specific results for (as opposed to an AABR)
    ABR
  47. With this test, electrodes are placed on mastoid process, vertex, and presents seven small waves in first 10-15 miliseconds
    ABR audiometry
  48. Hearing loss includes what psychosocial aspects? (as a list or series of stages)
    Adjustment period, acceptance, lifestyle, unseen variables, and expectations
  49. This component converts the acoustical signal into electrical signal
    The microphone
  50. This component increases the strength of the electrical signal
    The amplifier
  51. This component converts the amplified electrical signal back into amplified acoustical signal
    The receiver
  52. This component provides electrical energy to power the hearing aid
    The battery
  53. This component enhances the use of the hearing aid on the telephone, picking up leaked electromagnetic signals and converting them into acoustic energy
    A telecoil
  54. A toggle switch, rotating wheel, or remote control is what hearing aid component?
    The volume control
  55. True or False: you cannot use result older than 6 months for fitting someone with hearing aids
    TRUE
  56. True or False: hearing aids need a yearly electroacoustic analysis from the manufacturer.
    TRUE
  57. These measures allow for frequency specific fitting of hearing aids and measure the reliability of the output up to the tympanic membrane
    Probe-Microphone measures
  58. This type of hearing aid can be used for a mild to profound loss, is very durable and is worn by children so they will not have to get frequent ear molds
    Behind the ear/BTE
  59. Because of the increased possibility of feedback, and because an open fit allows low frequency sounds to leak out of the ear canal, this type of hearing aid is limited to moderately severe high-frequency losses.
    Over the Ear/OTE
  60. These devices fit in the outer ear bowl (called the concha); they are sometimes visible when standing face to face with someone. These are custom made to fit each individual's ear. They can be used in mild to some severe hearing losses. Feedback, a squealing/whistling caused by sound (particularly high frequency sound) leaking and being amplified again, may be a problem for severe
    hearing losses
    In the Ear/ITE
  61. This type of hearing aid fitting is not visible when worn. It is molded into the canal and does not occlude it by a large plastic shell. These are most suitable for users up to middle age, but are not suitable for more elderly people
    In the Canal/ITC
  62. This measurement is the difference in dB between input and output of the hearing aid. (subtraction)
    Gain
  63. This measurement id the input signal and the aid gain (addition)
    Total output
  64. This measurement is the response or gain at the frequencies it amplifies
    Frequency Response
  65. This measurement is the informaiton about the frequency range of the frequencies the aid effectively amplifies
    Bandwidth
  66. This control on the hearing aid controls the amount of amplification in specific frequencies
    Frequency Specific Gain
  67. The maximum output that the hearing iad will amplify to its upper limit is what?
    Maximum Power/Pressure Output
  68. This hearing aid control limits the MPO loudness, is frequency specific, and is also known as Automatic Gain Control.
    Compression
  69. The AGCo and AGCi controls of the AudioScan Verifit do what?
    • AGCo - limits MPO of hearing aid after the amplifier
    • AGCi - monitors the input before its amplified

Card Set Information

Author:
 rchambers7
ID:
 171507
Filename:
 Aural Rehab Test 1
Updated:
2012-09-17 21:21:50
Tags:
Aural Rehab Test
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Description:
Audiograms, Tymps, Hearing Aids, Psychosocial aspects, ABR's, OAE's
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