A&P 202 Exam 2 Study Guide

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A&P 202 Exam 2 Study Guide
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2012-10-01 16:08:50
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Cardiovasucular blood vessels lymphatic immune system
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Cardiovasucular (blood vessels), lymphatic, immune system
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  1. What is the resistance to a disease called?
    Immunity
  2. What are the 2 intristic systems of the immune system?
    • Innate (nonspecific) defense system
    • Adaptive (specific) defense system
  3. Which of the 2 intristic systems of the immune system responds more quickly?
    Innate (nonspecific) defense system
  4. The innate (nonspecific) defense system consists of what 2 things?
    • First line of defense
    • Second line of defense
  5. The skin and mucosae prevent entry of microorganisms in which line of defense in the intristic (nonspecific) defense system?
    First line of defense
  6. Antimicrobial proteins, phagocytes, and other cells are found in which line of defense in the intristic (nonspecific) defense system?
    Second line of defense
  7. In the innate (nonspecific) defense system, what inhibit the spread of invaders throughout the body?
    Second line of defense
  8. In the second line of defense of the innate (nonspecific) defense system, what is the most important mechanism?
    Inflammation
  9. Which of the 2 intristic systems of the immune system takes longer to react?
    Adaptive (specific) defense system
  10. Is the 3rd line of defense part of the innate or adaptive defense system?
    Adaptive (specific) defense system
  11. In the adaptive (specific) defense system, what mounts attack against  particular foreign substances?
    Third line of defense
  12. What are the surface barriers that make up the first line of defense?
    Skin, muscous membranes, and thier secretions
  13. What is in the skin and presents a physical barrier to most microorganisms?
    Keratin
  14. What is keratin resistant to?
    • Weak acids and bases
    • Bacterial enzymes
    • Toxins
  15. What produce protective chemicals that destroy microorganisms?
    Epithelial membranes
  16. Which epithelial chemical barrier inhibits bacterial growth?
    skin acidity
  17. What is the pH to the skin's acidity?
    pH of 3 to 5
  18. Which epithelial chemical barrier contains chemicals toxic to bacteria?
    Sebum
  19. What are the delivery system of dynamic structures that begins and ends at the heart?
    Blood vessels
  20. What are the 3 types of blood vessels?
    Arteries, capillaries, and veins
  21. Which type of blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?
    Arteries
  22. Arteries are oxygenated except for which 2 things?
    • Pulmonary circulation
    • Umbilical vessels of the fetus
  23. Which type of blood vessels contact tissue cells and directly serve cellular needs?
    Capillaries
  24. Which type of blood vessels carry blood towards the heart?
    Veins
  25. What are the 3 tunics arteries and veins are compose of?
    • Tunica interna (intima)
    • Tunica media
    • Tunica externa (adventitia)
  26. What is known as the central blood-containing space surrounded by tunics?
    Lumen
  27. Which type of blood vessels are composed of endothelim with sparse basal lamina?
    Capillaries
  28. Which tunic is the endothelial layer that lines the lumen of all vessels?
    Tunica interna (intima)
  29. Which tunic is the smooth muscle and elastic fiber layer, regulated by the sypathetic nervous system?
    Tunica media
  30. Which system is the tunica media regulated by?
    sympathetic nervous system
  31. Which tunic controls vasconstriction/ vasodilation of vessels?
    Tunica media
  32. Which tunic is made up of collagen fibers that protecct and reinforce vessels?
    Tunica externa (adventitia)
  33. What nourish the external tissues of the blood vessel wall?
    Vasa vasorum "vessels of the vessels"
  34. What do larger vessels contain?
    vasa vasorum "vessels of the vessels"
  35. Which type of arteries are the thick walled arteries near the heart?
    Elastic (conducting) arteries
  36. The aorta and its major branches are part of which type of arteries?
    Elastic (conducting) arteries
  37. Which type of arteries have large lumen that allow low- resistance conduction of blood?
    Elastic (conducting) arteries
  38. What do the elastic (conductive) arteries contain in all 3 tunics?
    Elastin
  39. What do large lumen in the elastic (conducting) arteries allow?
    Low-resistance conduction of blood
  40. Which type of arteries act as pressure reservoirs?
    Elastic (conducting) arteries
  41. How do elastic (conducting) arteries act as pressure reservoirs?
    They expand and recoil as blood is ejected from the heart.
  42. Muscular (distributing) arteries are _____ to elastic arteries.
    distal
  43. Which type of arteries deliver blood to the body organs?
    Muscular (distributing) arteries
  44. Which type of arteries have thick tunica media with more smooth muscle?
    Muscular (distributing) arteries
  45. Which type of arteries are active in vasocontriction?
    Muscular (distributing) arteries
  46. What are known as the smallest arteries?
    Arterioles
  47. Which type of arties lead to capillary beds?
    Arterioles
  48. Which type of arteries control flow into capillary beds via vasodilation and vasconstriction?
    Arterioles
  49. Arterioles control flow into capillary beds by what?
    Vasodilation and vasoconstriction
  50. Which type of blood vessels are microscopic?
    Capillaries
  51. In which type of blood vessels are walls of thin tunica intima one cell thick?
    Capillaries
  52. Because of thier size, how many RBCs can pass through capillaries at a time?
    Only a single RBC can pass at a time
  53. Capillaries are found in all tissues except which 4?
    • Cartilage
    • Epithelia
    • Cornea
    • Lens of eye
  54. What are some functions of capillaries?
    Exchange of gases, nutients, wastes, hormones, ect...
  55. What are the 3 structural types of capillaries?
    • Continuous capillaries
    • Fenestrated capillaries
    • Sinusoidal capillaries (sinusoids)
  56. Which of the 3 structural types of capillaries is abundant in the skin and muscles?
    Continuous capillaries
  57. What do the continuous capillaries of the brain form?
    The blood-brain barrier
  58. Which of the 3 structural types of capillaries are the least permeable and most common?
    Continuos capillaries
  59. Which of the 3 structural types of capillaries contain pores?
    Fenestrated capillaries
  60. What is another name for pores?
    Fenestrations
  61. T or F:
    Some endothelial cells contain pores (fenestrations).
    True
  62. Which of the 3 structural types of capillaries are more permeable that continuous capillaries?
    Fenestrated capillaries
  63. Which of the 3 structural types of capillaries function in absorption or filtrate formation (small intestines, endocrine glands, and kidneys)?
    Fenestrated capillaries
  64. Which structural type f capillaries are the least permeable?
    Continuos capillaries
  65. Which type of structural capillaries are the most permeable?
    Sinusoidal capillaries (sinusoids)
  66. Which type of structural capillaries are most abundanant in the skin and muscles?
    continuos capillaries
  67. Which type of structural capillaries are the specialized form of fenestrated capillaries, they are most fenestrated and more porous?
    Sinusoidal capillaries
  68. Which type of structural capillaries have fewer tight junctions, larger intercellular clefts, and large lumens?
    Sinusoidal capillaries
  69. Which type of structural capillaries allow large molecules and blood cells to pass betwen the blood and surrounding tissues?
    Sinusoidal capillaries
  70. Which type of structural capillaries are found in the liver, bone marrow, and spleen?
    Sinusoidal capillaries
  71. What is a cuff of smooth muscle that surrounds each true capillary?
    Precapillary sphincter
  72. What regulates blood flow into the capillar and how much goes into it?
    Precapillary sphincter
  73. What are formed when capillary beds unite?
    Venules
  74. What allow fliuds and WBCs to pass from the bloodstream to the tissues?
    Venules
  75. What are the smallest venules, composed of endothelium and few pericytes?
    Postcapillary venules
  76. Do small or large venules have one or two layers of smooth muscle (tunica media)?
    Large venules
  77. What are formed when venules converge?
    Veins
  78. What are composed of the tunics, with thin tunica media and thick tunica externa consisting of collagen fibers and elastic networks?
    Veins
  79. What are capacitance vessels (blood reservoirs) that contain 65% of the blood supply?
    Veins
  80. What are the 2 MAINstructures in the venous system?
    Veins and venules
  81. Which has much lower blood pressure: arteries or veins?
    Veins
  82. Which have thinner walls: arteries or veins?
    Veins
  83. Why do veins have a much lower blood pressure and thinner walls than arteries?
    Bceause veins do not have a "pump"
  84. What are specialized, flattened veins with extremely thin walls?
    Venous sinuses
  85. What are 2 examples of venus sinuses?
    • Conoronary sinus of the heart
    • Dural sinuses of the brain
  86. To return blood to the heart, veins have special adaptations. What are the 2 ANATOMICAL adaptations?
    • Large-diameter lumens, which offer resistance to flow.
    • Valves (resembling semilunar heart valves), which prevent backflow of blood.
  87. What are the 3 factors aiding venous return?
    • Respiratory "pump"
    • Muscular "pump"
    • Vasconstriction of veins under sympathetic control.
  88. Which of the 3 factors aiding in venous return have to do with pressure changes created during breathing move blood toward the heart by squeexing abdominal veins as thoracic veins expanded?
    Respiratory "pump"
  89. Which of the 3 factors aiding in venous return have to do with contraction of skeletal muscles "milk" blodd toward the heart and valves prevent backflow?
    Mulcular "pump"
  90. What is defined as: merging blood vessels?
    Vascular anastomoses
  91. Are vasular anastomoses more common in veins or arteries?
    More common in veins than arteries.
  92. What do arterial anastomoses provide?
    Alternate pathways (collateral channels) for blood to reach a given body region.
  93. Are vasular anastomoses normal in coronary  circulation?
    YES
  94. In vascular anastomoses, if one branch is blocked, what can supply the area with adequate blood supply?
    The collateral channel can supply the area with adequate blood supply.
  95. What is defined as the actual volume of blood flowing through a vessel, an organ, or the entire circulation in a given period of time?
    Blood flow
  96. Blood flow is measured in units of what?
    mL per min (mL/min)
  97. Considering the entire vascular system, what is blood flow equivalent to?
    Cardiac output (CO)
  98. When is blood flow relatively constant?
    At rest
  99. Does blood flow vary widely through individual organs?
    YES
  100. What is known as the force per unit area exerted on the wall of a blood vessel by its contained blood?
    Blood Pressure (BP)
  101. What unit is blood pressure (BP) expressed in?
    mm of mercury (mm Hg)
  102. What is blood pressure measured in reference to in large arteries near the heart?
    Systemic arterial BP
  103. Where is blood pressure measured in reference to systemic arterial BP?
    In large arteries near the heart.
  104. What is the opposition to flow?
    Resistance
  105. What is the measure of the amount of friction the blood encounters?
    Resistance
  106. What else is resistance referred to as?
    Peripheral resistance (PR)
  107. What are the 3 important sources of resistance?
    • 1. Blood viscosity
    • 2. Total blood vessel length
    • 3. Blood vessel diameter
  108. Is resistance directly or indirectly proportional to blood flow?
    Indirectly proportional
  109. As resistance decreases, does blood flow increase or decrease?
    It increases
  110. As resistance increases, does blood flow increase or decrease?
    It decreases
  111. As viscosity increases, what happens to resistance and blood flow (do they increase or decrease)?
    Resisance increases and flow decreases
  112. What are the 2 factors of resistance that remain relatively constant?
    • Blood viscosity
    • Blood vessel length
  113. What is the "stickiness" of the blood due to formed elements and plasma proteins?
    Blood viscosity
  114. The longer the vessel, is there greater or lesser resistance encountered?
    Greater
  115. What are the major determinanatd of peripheral resistance?
    Small-diameter arterioles
  116. Abrupt changes in diameter or fatty plaques from which disease dramatically increas resistance?
    Atherosclerosis
  117. When there is less elasticity, is there more or less resistance?
    More
  118. When there is more elasticity, is there more or less resistance?
    Less
  119. Does vasoconstriction on an artery create a larger or smaller lumen?
    Smaller
  120. Does vasoconstriction on an artery create more or less resistance?
    More
  121. Does vasoconstriction on an artery create more or less flow?
    Less
  122. Does vasodilation on an artery create a larger or smaller lumen?
    Larger
  123. Does vasodilation on an artery create more or less resistance?
    Less
  124. Does vasodilation on an artery create more or less flow?
    More
  125. Which disease is hardening of the arteries?
    Arteriosclerosis
  126. Which diease is fatty plaque formation in the arterial walls?
    Atherosclerosis
  127. Is blood flow (F) directly or indirectly  proportional to the blood (hydrostatic) pressure gradient?
    Directly
  128. If presure gradient increases, does blood flow slow down or speed up?
    Speed up
  129. Is blood flow directly or inversely proportional to peripheral resistance (R)?
    Inversely
  130. Why is resistance more important in influencing local blood flow?
    Because it is easily changed by altering blood vessel diameter.
  131. What does the pumping action of the heart generate?
    Blood flow
  132. During systemic blood pressure, when does pressure result?
    When flow is opposed by resistance.
  133. Where is systemic pressure the highest?
    In the aorta
  134. Does system pressure incline or decline throughout the pathway?
    Declines
  135. What is the value of systemic pressure of mm Hg in the right atrium?
    0 mm Hg
  136. Atrerial BP reflects two factors of the arteries close to the heart. What are the 2 factors?
    • Thier elasticity (compliance or distensibility).
    • The amount of blood forced into them at any given time.
  137. What is defined as the pressure exterted on atrial walls during ventricular contraction?
    Systolic pressure
  138. What is defined as the lowest level of arterial pressure?
    Diastolic pressure
  139. What is dfined as pressure that propels the blood to the tissues (average blood pressure in an individual)?
    • Mean aterial pressure (MAP)
    • OR
    • Blood pressure
  140. What are the 3 main factors influencing blood pressure?
    • Cardiac output (CO)
    • Perpheral resistance (PR)
    • Blood volume
  141. What is blood pressure equal to?
    • Cardiac Output x Peripheral Resistance
    • (CO x PR)
  142. RESTING or UNDER STRESS)
    In Cardiac output, when is the heart rate is controlled by the cardioinhibitory center via the vegas nerve.
  143. (RESTING or UNDER STRESS)
    In Cardiac output, when does the cardioaccelatory center increase heart rate and stroke volume?
    Under stress
  144. If something effects peripheral resistance, will it effect pressure?
    YES
  145. Is the short-term OR long-term controls of blood pressure mediated by neural and hormonal controls?
    Short-term
  146. Short-term controls counteract fluctuations in blood pressure by alternating what?
    Peripheral resistance
  147. Is counteract fluctuations in blood pressure by alternating peripheral resistance part of short-term controls of blood pressure or long-term controls of blood pressure?
    Short-term
  148. Is the short-term OR long-term controls of blood pressure mediated by renal regulation?
    Long-term
  149. Long-term counteracts fluctuations in the blood pressure by alternating what?
    Blood volume
  150. Is counteract fluctuations in blood pressure by alternating blood volume part of short-term controls of blood pressure or long-term controls of blood pressure?
    Long-term
  151. What is the vasomotor center plus the cardiac centers that integrate blood pressure control by altering cardiac output and blood vessel diamter?
    Cardiovascular center
  152. The cardiovascular center is the vasomotor center plus the cardiac centers that integrate blood pressure control by alternating what 2 things?
    • Cardiac output
    • Blood vessel diameter
  153. Which center oversees changes in the blood vessel diamter?
    Vasomotor center
  154. For the short term mechanism, in vasometer activity, what does increased sympathetic activity cause?
    Vasoconstriction and rise in BP
  155. For the short term mechanism, in vasometer activity, what does decreased sympathetic activity cause?
    BP to decline
  156. Does an increased resistance increase or decrease blood pressure?
    Increases
  157. Does decreased resisantce increase or decrease blood pressure?
    Decreases
  158. For short term mechanisms, in chemical controls, what is blood pressure regulated by?
    Chemoreceptor reflexes sensistive to oxygen and carbon dioxide.
  159. What are the prominent chemoreceptors that blood pressure is regulated by?
    Carotid and aortic bodies
  160. Which hormones in the adrenal medulla increase blood pressure?
    Norepinephrine and epinephrine
  161. Which hormones cause vasoconstriction and increase cardiac output?
    Adrenal medulla hormones
  162. Which hormone causes intesnse vasocontriction in cause of extremely low BP?
    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) (Vasopressin)
  163. Kidney release of renin generates what that causes vasoconstriction?
    Angiotensin II
  164. Adrenal medulla hormones, ADH, and Angiotensin II... vasoconstrictors or vasodialators?
    Vasoconstrictors
  165. Which chemical causes blood volume and pressure to decline and is produced by the atria of the heart?
    Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
  166. Which chemical is a brief but potent vasodiator?
    Nitric oxide (NO)
  167. What is one exmple of an infammatory chemical?
    Histamine
  168. Is histamine a vasocontricor or vasodialator?
    Vasodilator
  169. Does alcohol cause BP to increase or drop?
    Causes it to drop by inhibiting ADH
  170. ANP, NO, Infammatory chemicals, and alcohol... are these chemicals vasocontrictors or vasodialators?
  171. For long-term mechanisms, in renal regulation which organs act directly and indirectly to maintain long-term blood pressure.
    Kidneys
  172. Do direct or indirect mechanisms alter blood volume in the long term mechanism?
    Direct
  173. Do direct or indirect mechanisms involve the reninangiotensin mechanism for long-term?
    Indirect
  174. Which mechanism alters blood volume independently of hormones?
    Direct renal mechanism
  175. In direct renal mechanism, does increased or decreased BP/blood volume cause the kidneys to eliminate or more urine, thus reducing BP?
    Increased
  176. In direct renal mechansim, does increased or decreased BP/ blood volume cause the kidneys to converse water and raise BP?
    Decreased
  177. Is the renin-angiotensin mechanism a direct or indirect mechanism?
    Indirect
  178. In the renin-angiotensin mechanism, when atrial blood pressure declines, what enymatic hormone does it release?
    Renin
  179. In the renin-angiotensin mechanism, what is produced when renin triggers a series of reactions?
    Angiotensin II
  180. In the renin-angiotensin mechanism, is renin released when atrial blood pressure inclines or declines?
    Declines
  181. Is angiotensin II a potent vasoconstrictor or vasodialtor?
    Vasoconstrictor
  182. In the renin-angiotensin mechanism, angiotensin II  stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete what?
    Alderosterone
  183. In the renin-angiotensin mechanism, what enhances renal absorption of sodium and declines urine formation?
    Aldosterone
  184. In the renin-angiotensin mechanism, does aldosterone increase or decrease urine formation?
    Decrease
  185. In the renin-angiotensin mechanism, what stimulates ADH release?
    Angiotensin II
  186. What can the efficiency of the circulation be assesed by?
    Taking pulse and blood pressure measurements
  187. When monitoring ciculatory efficiency, what are known as the pulse and blood pressure, along with respiratory rate and body temperature?
    Vital signs
  188. When monitoring ciculatory efficiency, what is known as the pressure wave caused by the expansion and recoil of elastic arteries?
    Pulse
  189. What are the 3 things pulse varies with?
    Health, body postion, and activity
  190. Which pulse is taken on the radial artery at the wrist?
    Radial pulse
  191. The systemic arterial BP is measured indirectly with which method?
    Auscultatory method
  192. Is the systemic arterial BP measured directly or indirectly with the ausculatory method?
    Indirectly
  193. What are the 3 steps for measuring blood pressure?
    • A sphygmomanometer is placed on the arm superior to the elbow.
    • Pressure is increased in the cuff until it is greater than systolic pressure in the brachial artery.
    • Pressure is released slowly and the examiner listens with a stethoscope.
  194. When measuring blood pressure, the first sound heard is recorded as the _____ pressure.
    Systolic
  195. What are values of a normal systolic pressure in mm Hg?
    110-140
  196. When measuring blood pressure, when pressure sounds disappears, it is recorded as the _____ pressure.
    Diastolic
  197. What are values of a nornal diatolic pressure in mm Hg?
    70-80 mm Hg
  198. How long of a period do blood pressures cycle?
    24 hour period
  199. Due to levels o hormones, does BP peak in the morning, afternoon, or night?
    Morning
  200. What are 8 extrinsic factors that may cause BP to vary?
    • Age
    • Sex
    • Weight
    • Race
    • Mood
    • Posture
    • Socioeconomic status
    • Physical activity
  201. What low blood pressure defined as?
    Hypotension
  202. Hypotension has a systolic pressure below _____ mm Hg.
    100
  203. What is hypotension often associated with?
    Long life and lack of cardiovascular illness.
  204. What are 3 homeostatic imbalances of hypotension?
    • Orthostatic hypotension
    • Chronic hypotension
    • Acute hypotension
  205. Which homeostatic imbalance of hypotension has characteristics of temporary low BP and dizziness when suddenly rising from a sitting or reclining position?
    Orthostatic hypotension
  206. Which homeostatic imbalance of hypotension results from a hint of poor nutrition and warning sign for Addison's disease (adrenal insufficiency) or hypothyroidism?
    Chronic hypotension
  207. Which homeostatic imbalance of hypotension is an important sign of circulatory shock?
    Acute hypotension
  208. What is defined as high blood pressure?
    Hypertension
  209. Hypertension has a sustained elevated arterial pressure of __/__ or higher.
    140/90
  210. Hypertension transient elevations in systolic pressure occur as normal elevations during which 3 conditions? 
    • Fever
    • Physical exertion
    • Emotional upset
  211. Is hypertension or hypotension often persistent in obese people?
    Hypertension
  212. Prolonged hypertension is a major cause of what 4 things?
    • Heart failure
    • Vascular disease
    • Renal failure
    • Stroke
  213. About what % of people have primary or essential hypertension?
    90%
  214. Primary or essential hypertension is due to several risk factors such as:
    • Hereditary
    • Diet
    • Obesity
    • Age
    • Stress
    • Diabetes mellitus
    • Smoking
  215. Is primary or secondary hypertension less common?
    Seconday
  216. Is primary or secondary hypertension due to identifiable disorders, including kidney disease, arteriosclerosis, and endocrine disorders such as hyperthyroidism and Cushing's syndrome (hyperadrenalism)?
    Secondary hypertension
  217. What is defined as automatic adjustment of blood flow to each tissue in proportion to its requirements at any given point in time?
    Autoregulation
  218. What occurs when short-term autoregulation cannot meet tissue nutrient requirements?
    Angiogensis
  219. Is Angiogensis a short-term or long-term autoregulation?
    Long-term
  220. What 2 things happen to vessels in Angiogenesis?
    • The number of vessels to a region increases.
    • Exsistig vessels enlarge
  221. When is Angiogenesis common in the heart?
    • When a coronary vessel is occluded.
    • Throughtout the body in people in high altitude areas.
  222. Can muscle blood flow increase or decrease tenfold during physical activity as vasodilation occurs?
    Increase
  223. Muscle blood flow can increase tenfold or more during physical activity as vasoconstriction OR vasodilation occurs?
    Vasodilation
  224. Blood flow to the brain is ____, as neurons are intolerant of ischemia.
    Constant
  225. Blood flow to the brain decreases in pH and increased carbon dioxide cause marked vasodilation. Is this a metabolic control or myogenic control?
    Metabolic control
  226. During blood flow to the brain, myogenic controls increase OR decrease in MAP cause cerebral vessels to dialte?
    Decreases
  227. During blood flow to the brain, myogenic controls increase OR decrease in MAP cause cerebral vessels to contrict?
    Increases
  228. During blood flow to the brain, metabolic controls, declines in __1__, and increased __2__cause marked vasodilation.
    • 1. pH
    • 2. Carbon dioxide
  229. During blood flow to the brain, metabolic controls, declines in pH, and increased carbon dioxide cause marked vasoconstriction OR vasodilation?
    Vasodilation
  230. The brain is vulnerable under extreme systemic pressure changes. MAP below _____ mm Hg can cause syncope (fainting).
    60 mm Hg
  231. The brain is vulnerable under extreme systemic pressure changes. MAP above _____ mm Hg can result in cerebral edema.
    160 mm Hg
  232. What are 3 things in the blood flow through the skin does?
    • Supplies nutrients to the cells in response to oxygen need.
    • Helps maintain body temperature.
    • Provides a blood reservoir.
  233. In blood flow to the heart, what 2 things happen during strenuous excercise?
    • Cornonary vessels dialte in response to local accumulation of vasodilators.
    • Blood flow may release 3 to 4 times.
  234. What results in any condition in which blood vessels are inadequately filled and blood cannot circulate normally?
    Circulatory shock.
  235. What results in inadequate blood blood to meet tissue needs?
    Circulaory shock
  236. What are the 3 types of circulatory shock?
    • Hypovolemic shock
    • Vascular shock
    • Cardiogenic shock
  237. Which type of circulatory shock results from large-scale blood loss?
    Hypovolemic shock
  238. Which type of circulatory shock is a poorcirculation resulting from extreme vasodilation?
    Vascular shock
  239. Which type of circulartory shock the heart cannot sustain adequate circulation?
    Cardiogenic shock
  240. Myocardial damage (multiple infarcts) is an exapmple of which type of circulatory shock?
    Cardiogenic shock
  241. Anaphylactic shock – a systemic allergicreaction, is an exapmle of which type of circulatory shock?
    Vascular shock
  242. What are the 2 distinct circulations in the vascular system?
    Pulmonary and Systemic circulation
  243. The heart pumps by which week of developement?
    Th 4th week
  244. What are the 3 parts of the lymphatic system?
    • A network of lymphatic vessels (lymphatics)
    • Lymph
    • Lymph nodes
  245. Is the lymphatic system a one or two way system?
    One -way system
  246. In the lymphatic system, do lymphs flow towards the heart or away from the heart?
    Towards the heart
  247. What is another name for lymph vessels?
    Lymphatics
  248. Lymph vessels (lymphatics) include what 3 types?
    • Lymphatic capillaries.
    • Lymphatic collecting vessels.
    • Lymphatic trunks and ducts.
  249. What are the 3 main functions of the lymphatic system?
    • 1. Drain excess interstiail fluid
    • 2. Transport dietry lipid.
    • 3. Carry out immune responses.
  250. Once interstital fluid enters lymphatics, what is it called?
    Lymph
  251. Are lymphatic capillaries similar to blood capillaries?
    YES
  252. Lymphatic capillaries are similar to blood capillaries with which 2 modifications?
    • Very permeable.
    • Loosely joined endoethelia minivalves.
  253. Lymphatic capillaries are absent in which 3 areas?
    • Bones
    • Teeth
    • Bone marrow
    • CNS
  254. What are 2 ways minivalves function as one way gates?
    • Allow interstial fluid to enter lymph capillaries.
    • Do not allow lymph to escape from the capillaries.
  255. In the lymphatic capillaries, what allow interstitial fluid to enter the lymph capillaries?
    Minivalves
  256. In the lymphatic capillaries, what do not allow lymph to escape from capillaries?
    Minivalves
  257. During inflammation, what 3 things can lymph capillaries absorb?
    • Cell debris
    • Pathogens
    • Cancer cells
  258. Cells in the what "clease" and "examine"?
    Lymph nodes
  259. What are defined as specialized lymph capillaries present in intestinal mucosa?
    Lacteals
  260. What in the lymph capillaries absorb digested fats and deliver fatty lymph (chyle) to the blood?
    Lacteals
  261. What are formed by the union of the largest collecting ducts?
    Lymphatic trunks
  262. What are 2 large ducts lymph can be delivered into?
    • Right lymphatic duct
    • Thoracic duct
  263. Which of the 2 large ducts that lymph is delivered into, drains the right upper arm and the right side of the heard and thorax?
    Right lymphatic duct
  264. Which of the 2 large ducts that lymph is delivered into arises from the cisterna chyli and drains the rest of the body?
    Tharacic duct
  265. Lymphis delivered into one of two large ducts: right lymphatic duct and thoacic duct. Each empties lymph into venous circulation at the junction of the ____ and ____ on its own side of the body
    • Internal jugular
    • Subclavian veins
  266. Does the lymphatic system have a pumping organ?
    NO, it lacks a pumping organ
  267. In lymph transport, what are low pressure conduits?
    Vessels
  268. Lymph transport uses the similar methods as _____ to propel lymph.
    Veins
  269. Lymph transport uses the similar 5 methods as veins to propel lymph. What are they?
    • Muscular pump
    • Respiratory pump
    • Contractions of smooth muscle.
    • Valves to prevent backflow.
    • Pulsations of nearby arteries (unique to lymph vessels).
  270. What are the main cells involved in immune response?
    Lymphocytes
  271. What are the 2 main varieties of lymphoid cells?
    • T cells (T lymphotcytes)
    • B cells (B lymphocytes)
  272. Which cells protect the body against antigens?
    T cells and B cells (lymphocytes)
  273. Anything the body percieves as foreign  is defined as what?
    Antigen
  274. What are 4 examples of antigens?
    • Backetia and thier toxins
    • Viruses
    • Mismatched RBCs
    • Cancer cells
  275. Which type of lymphocytes manage the immune response?
    T cells
  276. Which type of lymphocytes attack and destroy foreign cells?
    T cells
  277. Which type of lymphocytes produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies?
    B cells
  278. Which type of lymphocytes secrete antibodies that immobilize antigens?
    B cells
  279. What immobilize antigens?
    Antibodies
  280. Which type of lymphoid cells phagocytize foreign substances and help activate T cells.
    Macrophages
  281. Which type of lymphoid cells capture antigens and deliver them to lymph nodes?
    Dendritic cells
  282. Which type of lympoid cells produce stroma that supports other cells in lymphoid organs?
    Reticular cells
  283. What are scattered reticular tissue elements in every body organ?
    Diffuse lymphatic tissue
  284. What are solid, spherical bodies consisting of tightly packed reticular elements and cells?
    Lymphatic follicles (nodules)
  285. What are the principal lympoid organs of the body?
    Lymph nodes
  286. What are embedded in connective tissue and clustered along lymphatic vessels?
    Lmyph nodes
  287. Aggregations of lymph nodes occur near the body surface in which 3 regions of the body?
    • Inguinal
    • Axillary
    • Cervical Regions
  288. What are the 2 basic functions of lymph nodes?
    • Filteration
    • Immune system activation
  289. Which of the 2 basic functions of lymph nodes do macrophages destroy microorganisms and debris?
    Filteration
  290. Which of the 2 basic functions of lymph nodes monitor for antigens and mount an attack against them?
    Immune system activation
  291. What is the structure of lymph nodes?
    Nodes are bean shaped and surrounded by a fibrous capsule.
  292. What are the 2 histologically distinct regions of a lymph node?
    Cortex and Medulla
  293. What are the only things that filter lymph?
    Lymph nodes
  294. Lymph enters via _____ lymphatic vessels
    Afferent
  295. Lymph nodes meander through sinuses and exits the node at the hilus via _____ vessels.
    Efferent (remeber "e" for exit)
  296. Are there fewer afferent or efferent vessels of the lymph nodes?
    Efferent
  297. Because there are fewer efferent vessels, lymph stagnates someone in the _____.
    Node
  298. Because there are fewer efferent vessels, lymph stagnates somewhat in the node. What does this allow lymphotcytes and macrophages time to carry out?
    Protective functions
  299. §Because there are fewer efferent vessels, lymph stagnates somewhat in the node. This allow which 2 cells time to carry out protective functions.
    • Lymphocytes
    • Macrophages
  300. What is the largest lympoid organ?
    Spleen
  301. Which organ is located on the left side of the abdominal cavity beneath the diaphragm?
    Spleen
  302. Which organ is served by the splenic artery and vein, which enter and exit the hilus?
    Spleen
  303. The spleen is served by which 2 things that enter and exit at the hilus?
    Splenic artery and vein
  304. It is served by the splenic artery and vein, which enter and exit at the _____.
    Hilus
  305. What are the 3 functions of the spleen and which is the main one?
    • Site of lymphocyte proliferation.
    • Immune surveillance and response.
    • Cleanses blood. (MAIN function)
  306. What is the main function of the spleen?
    Cleanses the blood
  307. Which organ stores breakdown products of RBCs for later reuse?
    Spleen
  308. Spleen macrophages salavage and store _____ for later use by bone marrow.
    Iron
  309. WEhich organ stores blood platelets?
    Spleen
  310. Which organ is the site of fetal erythrocyte production (normally ceases after birth)?
    Spleen
  311. What are the 2 distinct areas of the spleen?
    • White pulp
    • Red pulp
  312. Which area of the spleen contains mostly lymphocytes suspended on reticular fibers and involved in immune function?
    White pulp
  313. Which area of the spleen is made up of remaining splenic tissue concerned with disposing of worn out RBCs and bloodborn pathogens?
    Red pulp
  314. Which organ is a bilbobed organ that secretes hormones that cause T lymphocytes to become immunecompetent?
    Thymus
  315. Whatare the 2 hormones the thymus releases?
    • Thymosin
    • Thymopoietin
  316. What does the size of the thymus vary with?
    Age
  317. When is the thymus found in the inferior neck and extends into the mediastinum where it partially overlies the heart? Infants, childhoob, or adolescence?
    Infants
  318. When does the thymus increase in size and is most active? Infants, childhood, or adolescence?
    Childhood
  319. When does the thymus stop growing and then gradually atrophies? Infants, childhood, or adolescence?
    Adolescence
  320. The thymic lobes contain an outer __1__ and inner __2__.
    • 1. Cortex
    • 2. Medulla
  321. Thymic _____ contain an outer cortex and inner medulla.
    Lobes
  322. What are the 2 importanat ways the thymus differes from other lymphoid organs?
    • 1. It functions strictly in T lymphocyte maturation.
    • 2. It does NOT directly fight antigens.
  323. Which kind of cells secrete hormones (thymosin and thymopoeitin) that stimulate lymphocytes to become immunecompetent?
    Thymocytes
  324. Which organs are the simplest lympoid organs?
    Tonsils
  325. Which organs form a ring of lymphatic tissue around the pharynx?
    Tonsils
  326. What are the 4 types of tonsils (according to location)?
    • Palatine tonsils
    • Lingual tonsils
    • Pharyngeal tonsils
    • Tubal tonsils
  327. Which tonsils are located on either side of the posterior end of the oral cavity?
    Palatine tonsils
  328. Which tonsils lie at the base of the tongue?
    Linguial tonsils
  329. Which tonsils are located in the posterior wall of the nasophaynx?
    Pharyngeal tonsils
  330. What is another name for pharyngeal tonsils?
    Adenoids
  331. Which tonsils surround the openings of the auditory tubes into the pharynx?
    Tubal tonsils
  332. What are clusters of lymphoid follicles known as?
    Peyer's patches
  333. Where are Peyer's patches located?
    In the wall of the distal portion of the small intestine
  334. Where are similar structures of Peyer's patches also found?
    In the appendix
  335. What destroy bacteria, preventing them from breaching the intestinal wall?
    Peyer's p[atches and appendix
  336. What do Peyer's Patches and the appendix generate?
    Memory
  337. What is MALT?
    Mucosa- associated lymphatic tissue
  338. What would you find in MALT?
    • Peyer's patches, tonsils, and the appendix (digestive tract).
    • Lymphoid nodules in the walls of the bronchi (respiratory tract)
  339. Are Peyer's patches, tonsils, and the appendix part of the digestive or respiratory tract?
    Digestive Tract
  340. Are lymphoid nodules in the walls of the bronchi part of the digestive or respiratory tract?
    Respiratory
  341. What does MALT protect from foreign matter?
    Digestive and Respiratory systems
  342. What does MALT protect the digestive system and respiratory systems from?
    Foreign matter
  343. Which epithelial chemical barrier contains chemicals toxic to bacteria?
    Sebum
  344. Which epithelial chemical barrier secretes concentrated HCl and protein-dige Saliva and lacrimal sting enzymes?
    Stomach mucosae
  345. Which epithelial chemical barrier traps microorganisms that enter the digestive and respiratory systems
    Mucus
  346. Epithelial chemical barrier fluid contain which enzymes?
    Lysozyme
  347. What trap inhaled particles through the nose?
    Mucus-coated ahirs in the nose
  348. Mucosa of which tract is ciliated?
    Upper Respiratory Tract
  349. Mucosa of the upper respiratory tract is ciliated. What do the cilia do?
    Cilia sweep dust- and bacteria-laden mucus away from lower respiratory passages.
  350. What 5 things are necessary if microorganisms invade deeper tissues?
    • Phagocytes
    • Natural Killer (NK) Cells
    • Inflammatory response
    • Antimicrobial proteins
    • Fever
  351. Macrophages, mast cells, WBCs and infammatory chemicals are part of which internal defence cells/chemicals?
    Infammatory response
  352. Interferons and complement proteins are part of which internal defense cell/chemicals?
    Antimicrobial proteins
  353. What do macrophages developed from monocytes become?
    The chief phagocytic cells
  354. What develope from monocytes to become the chief phagocytic cells?
    Phagocytes
  355. Do free or fixed macrophages wander through tissue space?
    Free
  356. Are alveolar macrophages free or fixed macrophages?
    Free
  357. Are free or fixed macrophages permanent residents of some organs?
    Fixed
  358. Are kupffer cells free or fixed macrophages?
    Fixed
  359. Where would you find Kupffer cells?
    The liver
  360. Are microglia free or fixed macrophages?
    Fixed
  361. Where would you find microglia?
    The brain
  362. When do neutrophils become phagocytic?
    When encountering infectious material
  363. Which WBCs/phagocytes become phagocytic when encountering infectious material?
    Neutrophils
  364. Which WBCs/phagocytes are weakly phagocytic against paracitic worms?
    Eosinophils
  365. Which phagocytes bind and ingest wide range of bacteria?
    Mast cells
  366. Which cells that are a part of internal defense are large granular lymphocytes?
    Natural Killer (NK) Cells
  367. What are target cells that lack "self" cell-surface receptors called?
    Natural Killer (NK) Cells
  368. Naturl Killer (NK) cells induce apoptosis (programmed cell death) in which 2 type of cells?
    • Cancer cells
    • Virus-infected cells
  369. Which cells that are a part of internal defense secrete potenet chemicals that enhance the infammatory response?
    Natural Killers (NK) Cells
  370. What is the tissue's response to injury?
    Infammation
  371. What prevents the spread of damaged agents to nearby tissues?
    Infammation
  372. What disposes of cell debris and pathogens and is a park of internal defense?
    Infammation
  373. What is a part of internal defense and sets the stage for repair processes?
    Infammation
  374. What are the 4 (or 5) cardinal signs of acute inflammation?
    • Redness
    • Heat
    • Swelling
    • Pain
    • Sometimes Impairment of function
  375. What kind of chemcials cause dilation of arterioles, resulting in hyperemia?
    Inflammatory
  376. What kind of chemicals cause increased permeability of local capillaries and edema (leakage of exudate from capillaries to tissue spaces).
    Inflammatory
  377. Is inflammation part of vasodilation or vasocontriction?
    Vasodilatation
  378. Does inflammation increase or decrease vascular permeability?
    Increase
  379. What 3 things does excudate contain?
    Proteins, clotting factors, and antibodies.
  380. What is exudate a part of?
    Infammation
  381. What is the surge of protein-rich fluids into tissue spaces defined as?
    Edema
  382. What kind of internal defense response is edema?
    Infammation
  383. What are the 3 main functions of edema?
    • Helps dilute harmful substances.
    • Brings in large quantities of oxygen and nutrients needed for repair.
    • Allows entry of clotting proteins, which prevents the spread of bacteria.
  384. What are the 4 main phases of phagocytic mobilization in inflammatory response?
    • Leukocytosis
    • Margination
    • Diapedesis
    • Chemotaxis
  385. Which of the 4 main phases in phagocytic mobilization of inflammatory response are neutrophils are released from the bone marrow in response to leukocytosis-inducing factors released by injured cells.
    Leukocytosis
  386. Which of the 4 main phases in phagocytic mobilization of inflammatory response are neutrophils cling to the walls of capillaries in the injured area?
    Margination
  387. Which of the 4 main phases in phagocytic mobilization of inflammatory response are neutrophils squeeze through capillary walls and begin phagocytosis?
    Diapedesis
  388. Which of the 4 main phases in phagocytic mobilization of inflammatory response do inflammatory chemicals attract neutrophils to the injury site?
    Chemotaxis
  389. What are a part of internal defense and enhance the innate defenses by attacking microorganisms directly?
    Antimicrobial proteins
  390. What are a part of internal defense and enhance the innate defenses by hindering microorganisms ability to reproduce?
    Antimicrobial proteins
  391. What are the 2 most important antimicrobial proteins?
    • Interferons
    • Complement proteins
  392. What are 2 ways antimicrobial proteins enhance the innate defenses by?
    • Attacking microorganisms directly.
    • Hindering microorganisms’ ability to reproduce.
  393. What are produced by lymphocytes, macrophages, and fibroblasts infected by viruses?
    Interferons
  394. What cells are activated to secrete IFNs?
    Viral-infected cells
  395. What do IFNs enter?
    Neighboring cells
  396. After IFNs enter neighboring cells, what do neighboring cells produce?
    Antiviral proteins that block viral reporduction.
  397. What are the 3 main functions of Interferons?
    • Anti-viral
    • Reduce inflammation
    • Activate macrophages and mobilize NK cells
  398. What are genetically engineered IFNs for?
    • Antiviral agents against hepatitis and genital warts virus.
    • Multiple sclerosis treatment.
  399. About 20 proteins that circulate in the blood in an inactive form are known as:
    Complement proteins
  400. What are the 4 main functions of complement proteins?
    • Amplifies all aspects of the inflammatory response.
    • Kills bacteria and certain other cell types (our cells are immune to complement).
    • Promotes phagocytosis.
    • Enhances the effectiveness of both nonspecific and specific defenses.
  401. What is produced by the liver in response to inflammatory molecules?
    C-reactive protein (CPR)
  402. C-reactive Protein (CPR) is a clinical marker used to assess what 2 things?
    • The presence of an acute infection.
    • An inflammatory condition and its response to treatment.
  403. What is defined as abnormally high body temperature in response to invading microorganisms?
    Fever
  404. Why are high fevers dangerous?
    Because they can denature enzymes
  405. Moderate fever can be benefitical as it causes what 2 things?
    • The liver and spleen to sequester iron and zinc (needed by microorganisms).
    • An increase in the metabolic rate, which speeds up tissue repair.
  406. What causes the liver and spleen to sequester iron and zince, which is needed by microorganisms?
    Moderate fever
  407. Can a moderate fever increase or decrease metabolic rate?
    Increase, which will speed up tissue repair
  408. The adaptive immune system is a functional system that does what 3 things?
    • Recognizes specific foreign substances.
    • Acts to immobilize, neutralize, or destroy foreign substances.
    • Amplifies inflammatory response.
    • Activates complement.
  409. Is the innate or adaptive immune sytem antigen-specific?
    Adaptive
  410. Is the innate or adaptive immune sytem systemic?
    Adaptive
  411. Does the innate or adaptive immune sytem have memory?
    Adaptive
  412. The adaptive immune defenses  have 2 seperate, but overlapping arms... what are they?
    • Humoral (antibody-mediated immunity)
    • Cellular (cell-mediated immunity)
  413. Which of the 2 seperate but overlapping arms of the adaptive immune defenses is the antibody-mediated immunity?
    Humoral
  414. Which of the 2 seperate but overlapping arms of the adaptive immune defenses is cell-mediated immunity?
    Cellular
  415. What are substances that can mobilize the immune system and provoke an immune response?
    Antigens
  416. What is the ability to stimulate proliferation of specific lymphocytes and antibody production defined as?
    Immunogenicity
  417. What is the ability to react with products of activated lymphocytes and the antibodies released inresponse to them defined as?
    Reactivity
  418. What are incompleted antigens defined as?
    haptens
  419. Where are 4 places haptens could be found in?
    • In poison ivy
    • Dander
    • Some detergents
    • Cosmetics
  420. If haptens link up with the body's proteins, what may be the adaptive immune system do?
    Recognize them as foreign and mount a harmul attack (allergy)
  421. What are self-antigens called?
    MHC (Major histocompatibility complex) proteins
  422. What are our cells dotted with?
    Protein molecules (self-antigens)
  423. Our cells are dotted with protein molecules (self-antigens). Are they antigenic to us?
    NO, but they are strongly antigenic to others
  424. Our cells are dotted with protein molecules (self-antigens). Are they antigenic to others?
    Yes, they are strongly antigenic to others, but NOT antigenic to us
  425. What are the 2 classes of MHC (major histocompatibility complex)?
    • Class I MHC proteins
    • Class II MHC proteins
  426. Which of the 2 classes of MHC (major histocompatibility complex) are found on virtually all body cells?
    Class I MHC proteins
  427. Which of the 2 classes of MHC (major histocompatibility complex) are found on certain cells in the immune response?
    Class II MHC proteins
  428. Are B and T lymphocytes part of the innate or adaptive immune system?
    Adaptive
  429. Which of the 2 types of lymphocytes oversee humoral immunity?
    B lymphocytes
  430. Which of the 2 types of lymphocytes are non-antibody producing cells that constitute the cell-mediated arm of immunity?
    T lymphocytes
  431. Are mature OR immature lymphocytes that are released from bone marrow essentially identical?
    Immature lymphocytes
  432. What depends on whether a lymphocyte matures into a B cell or T cell?
    Depends on where in the body it becomes immunocompetent
  433. Where do B cells mature?
    In the bone marrow
  434. Where do T cells mature?
    In the thymus
  435. What 2 things do lymphocytes have when they mature?
    • Immunocompetence
    • Self-tolerance
  436. What are lymphocytes able to do once they mature?
    They are able to recognize and bind to a specific antigen
  437. Are mature, immature, or naive (unexposed) B and T cells exported to lymph nodes, spleen and other lymphoid tissue?
    Naive (unexposed)
  438. Where are naive (unexposed) B and T cells are exported to?
    • Lymph nodes
    • Spleen
    • Other lymphoid organs
  439. Do T cells mature in the thymus under negative or postive selection pressures?
    BOTH!
  440. Does positive or negative selection eliminate T cells that are strongly anti-self?
    Negative
  441. Does positive or negative selection selectT cells with a weak response to self-antigens, which thus become both immunocompetent and self-tolerant?
    Positive
  442. Only about what percent of T cells survive positive selection?
    2%
  443. Do only about 2% of the T cells survive in positive or negative selection?
    Positive
  444. What are self reactive B cells eliminated by?
    Apoptosis (colonal deletion)
  445. What do self-reactive B cells undergo?
    Receptive editing- rearrangement of thier receptors
  446. Wha happens when self-reactive B cells escape from the bone marrow?
    They are inactivated (anergy)
  447. Immunocompetent B or T cells  display a unique type of receptors that responds to a what?
    A distinct antigen
  448. When do Immunocompetent B or T cells become immunocompetent?
    Before they encounter antigens they may later attack
  449. Where are Immunocompetent B or T cells exported to where they encounter antigens?
    Secondary lymphoid tissue
  450. Immunocompetent B or T cells mature into fully funcitional antigen-activated cells upon binding with thier what?
    Recognized antigen
  451. What determine which foreign substances our immune system will recognize and resist?
    Genes, NOT antigens
  452. What are the 2 major roles of antigen presenting cells (APCs) in immunity?
    • To engulf foreign particles.
    • To present fragments of antigens on their own surfaces, to be recognized by T cells.
  453. What are the 3 major types of Antigen- Presenting Cells (APCs) and where are they found?
    • Dendritic cells in connective tissues and epidermis (Langerhans cells).
    • Macrophages in connective tissues and lymphoid organs.
    • B cells.
  454. Which major types of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) present antigens and activate T cells?
    Macrophages and dendritic cells
  455. Which major types of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) mostly remain fixed in the lymphoid organs?
    Macrophages
  456. Which major types of antigen-presenting cells (APCs) internalize pathogens and enter lymphatics to present the antigens to T cells in the lymphoid organs?
    Dendritic Cells
  457. Activated T cells release chemicals that produce __1__ to become insatiable __2__ and to secrete __3__.
    • 1. Macrophages
    • 2. Phagocytes
    • 3. Bactericidal chemicals
  458. Where is defined as the first encounter between an antigen and a naive immunocompetent cell?
    Antigen challenge
  459. Where does antigen challenge take place?
    In the spleen or other lymphoid organ
  460. If the lymphocyte is a B cell, what kind of immune response does the challenging antigen provoke?
    A humoral immune response
  461. If the lymphocte is a B cell, the challenging antigen provokes a humoral response. What are produced against the challenger?
    Antibodies
  462. What do most clone cells become?
    Plasma cells
  463. What do most clone cells that become plasma cells secrete?
    Specific antibodies
  464. At what rate do most clone cells that become plasma cells secrete antibodies and for how many days?
    2000 molexules per second for 4-5 days
  465. What are the 3 main function of the antibodies secreted by clone cells?
    • Circulate in the blood or lymph.
    • Bind to free antigens.
    • Mark the antigen for destruction.
  466. What do clone cells that do not become plasma cells become?
    Memory cells
  467. Clone cells that do not become plasma cells become memory cells. What are the 2 functions of these memory cells?
    • Provide immunological memory.
    • Mount an immediate response to future exposures of the same antigen.
  468. In immunological memory, what is defined as the cellular differentiation and proliferation, which occurs on the first exposure to aspecific antigen
    Primary immune response
  469. What isthe lag period of the primary immune response in the immunoligical memory?
    3 to 6 days after antigen challenge
  470. In how many days are the peak levels of the plasma antibody achieved of the primary immune response in the immunoligical memory?
    10 days
  471. After peak levels of the plasma antibody are achieved after ten days of the primary immune response in the immunoligical memory, do antibody levels incline or decline?
    Decline
  472. In immunological memory, what is defined as re-exposure to the same antigen?
    Secondary immune response
  473. What is the lag time of sensitized memory cells in secondary immune response?
    Respond within hours
  474. Do antibody levels peak in 2 to 3 days much higher in primary OR secondary immune response?
    Secondary
  475. Do antibodies bind with greater affinity, and their levels in the blood can remain high for weeks to months in primary or secondary immune response?
    Secondary
  476. Which cells in active humoral immunity encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them?
    B cells
  477. Is naturally OR artificially acquired active humoral immunity response to a bacterial/ viral infection?
    Naturally
  478. Is naturally OR artificially acquired active humoral immunity response to a vaccine of dead or attenuated pathogens?
    Artificially
  479. How does passive humoral immunity differ from active immunity?
    In the source and degree of protection
  480. Are B cells challenged by antigens in Passive humoral immunity?
    NO
  481. Does immunological memory occur in passive humoral immunity?
    NO
  482. When does protection end in passive humoral immunity?
    When antigens naturally degrade in the body
  483. Is naturally OR artifically aquired of the passive humoral immunity from the mother to her fetus via placenta?
    Naturally
  484. Is naturally OR artifically aquired of the passive humoral immunity from the injection of serum, such as gamma globulin?
    Artifically
  485. What are also called immunoglobulins?
    Antibodies
  486. What are the 5 classes of antibodies?
    • IgD
    • IgM
    • IgG
    • IgA
    • IgE
  487. Which class of antibodies is the first antibody released?
    IgM
  488. Which class of antibodies is a potent agglutinating agent?
    IgM
  489. Which class of antibodies readily fixes and activates complement?
    IgM
  490. Which class of antibodies is in muscus and other secretions?
    IgA (secretory IgA)
  491. Which class of antibodies helps prevent entry of pathogens?
    IgA (secretory IgA)
  492. Which class of antibodies is attached to the surface of B cells?
    IgD
  493. Which class of antibodies functions as a B cell receptor?
    IgD
  494. Which class of antibodies are about 75-85% of the antibodies in plasma?
    IgG
  495. Which class of antibodies is the most abundant?
    IgG
  496. Which class of antibodies is from secondary and late primary responses?
    IgG
  497. Which class of antibodies crosses the placental barrier?
    IgG
  498. Which class of antibodies is active in some allergies and parasitic infections?
    IgE
  499. Which class of antibodies causes mast cells and basophils to release histamine?
    IgE
  500. Do antibodies themselves destroy antigen?
    NO, they inactivate and tag it for destruction
  501. Since antibodies themselves don't destroy antigens, what do they do to them?
    They inactivate and tag it for destruction
  502. What complex do all antibodies form?
    An antigen-antibody (immune) complex
  503. What are the 4 defense mechanisms used by the antibodies?
    • 1. Neutralization
    • 2. Agglutination
    • 3. Precipitation
    • 4. Complex Fixation and Activation
    • (PLAN- Precipitation, Lysis (by complement), Agglutination, Neutralization)
  504. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies is the simplest?
    Neutralization
  505. In which defensive mechanism used by antibodies do antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins?
    Neutralization
  506. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies prevent antigens from binding to receptors on tissue cells?
    Neutralization
  507. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies do antigen-antibody complexes undergo phagocytosis?
    Neutralization
  508. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies do antibodies undergo the same determinant on more than one cell-bound antigen?
    Agglutination
  509. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies do cross-linked antigen-antibody complexes agglutinate?
    Agglutination
  510. Clumping of mismatched blood cells is an example of which defensive mechanism used by antibodies?
    Agglutination
  511. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies are soluble molecules cross-linked?
    Precipitation
  512. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies do complexes precipitate and are subject to phagocytosis?
    Precipitation
  513. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies is the main antibody defense against cellular antigens (such as bacteria or mismatched RBCs)?
    Complex Fization and Activation
  514. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies do several antibodies bind close together on a cellular antigen?
    Complex Fixation
  515. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies do complement-binding sites trigger complement fixation into the cell's surface?
    Complement Fixation
  516. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies triggers cell lysis?
    Complement Fixation
  517. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies amplifies the inflammatory response?
    Complement Activation
  518. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies enhances phagocytosis?
    Complment Activation
  519. Which defensive mechanism used by antibodies enlists more and more defensive elements?
    Complement Activation
  520. Since antibodies are useless against intracellular antigens, what is needed?
    Cell-mediated immunity
  521. Are antibodies useless against intracellular antigens?
    YES
  522. What are the 2 mahor populations of T cells that mediate intracelluar activity?
    • CD4
    • CD8
  523. Which of the 2 major types of T cells become helper T cells (TH) when activated?
    CD4
  524. Which of the 2 major types of T cells become cytotoxic T cells (TC) that destroy cells harboring foreign antigens?
    CD8
  525. Besides the major types, what are the other 2 types of T cells?
    • Regulatory T cells (TREG) (Suppressor T)
    • Memory T cells
  526. T cells recognize and respond only to what?
    To fragmentsof antigen displayed on the surface of body cells
  527. What cells are best suited for cell-to-cell interactions?
    T cells
  528. Which cells target cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or intracellular parasites?
    T cells
  529. Which cells target abnormal or cancerous cells?
    T cells
  530. Which cells target cells of infused or transplanted foreign tissue?
    T cells
  531. When are immunocompetent T cells activated?
    When thier surface receptors bind to a recognized antigen (nnself)
  532. What are 2 things that T cells must simultaneously recognize?
    • Nonself (the antigen)
    • Self (a MHC protein of a body cell)
  533. What are the 2 types of MHC proteins that are important to T cell activation?
    • Class I MHC proteins
    • Class II MHC proteins
  534. Which of the 2 types of MHC proteins that are important to T cell activation, is displayed by all cells except RBCs?
    Class I MHC proteins
  535. Which of the 2 types of MHC proteins that are important to T cell activation, are recognized by cytotoxic T cells?
    Class I MHC Proteins
  536. Which of the 2 types of MHC proteins that are important to T cell activation, is displayed by APCs (dendritic cells, macrophages and B cells)?
    Class II proteins
  537. Which of the 2 types of MHC proteins that are important to T cell activation, is recognized by helper T cells?
    Class II MHC proteins
  538. What provides the key for the immune system to recognize the presence of intracellular microorganisms?
    Antigen Recognition
  539. During antigen recognition, when are MHC proteins ignored by T cells?
    If they are complexed with self protein fragments
  540. How long does it take for primary T cell response to peak?
    Within a week
  541. T cell apotosis occus within how many days?
    7 to 30 days
  542. Does effector activity wane as the amount of antigen inclines OR declines?
    Declines
  543. What is the benefit for apotosis during T cell activation?
    activated T cells are a hazard
  544. Do memory T cells remain and mediate secondary responses?
    YES
  545. What are mediators involved in cellular immunity, that are released by activated T cells and macrophages?
    Cytokines
  546. What are the 2 types of cytokines?
    • Interferons
    • Interleukins
  547. What mediators involved in cellular immunity are also co-stimultors of T cell and T proliferation?
    Cytokines
  548. Which type of cytokines are released by macrophages co-stimulates bound T cells to release interleukin-2 (IL-2)?
    Interleukin 1 (IL-1)
  549. Which type of cytokines are released by macrophages co-stimulates bound T cells to synthesize more IL-2 receptors?
    Interleukin 1 (IL-1)
  550. Which type of cytokines is a key growth factor, which sets up a positive feedback cycle that encourages activated T cells to divide?
    Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
  551. Which type of cytokine is used therapeutically to enhance the body's defenses against cancer (melatonin & kidney)?
    Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
  552. Perforin and lymphotoxin are cell toxins that are examples of what?
    Cytokines
  553. Whats an example of a cytokine that enhances the killing power of macrophages?
    Gamma interferon
  554. What are examples of cytokines that are cell toxins?
    Perforin and lymphotoxin
  555. Which type of T cells play a central role in the adaptive immune response?
    Helper T cells (TH)
  556. Which type of T cells help activate T and B cells once they are primed by APC presntation of antigen?
    Helper T cells
  557. Which type of T cells induce T and B cell proliferation once they are primed by APC presntation of antigen?
    Helper T cells
  558. Which type of T cells activate macrophages and recruit other immune cells once they are primed by APC presntation of antigen?
    Helper T cells
  559. Can there be an immune response without TH?
    NO
  560. Which type of T cells stimulate B cells to divide more rapidly and bein antibody formation?
    Helper T cells
  561. How may B cells be activated without TH cells?
    By binding to T cell- independent antigens
  562. Do most antigens require TH co-stimulation to activate B cells?
    YES
  563. Which type of T cells DIRECTLY attack and kill other cells?
    Cytotoxic T (TC) Cells
  564. Which type of T cells circulate in the blood, lymph, and lymphoid organs in search of the body's cells displaying antigen they recognize?
    Cytotoxic T cells (TC)
  565. Cytotoxic T cells target which 4 types of cells?
    • Virus-infected cells
    • Cells with intracellular bacteria or parasites
    • Cancer cells
    • Foreign cells (transfusions or transplants)
  566. In some cases, which type of T cell can bind to a recepotor on the target cell and stimulate apoptosis?
    Cytotoxic T cells
  567. What are the 3 mechanisms to which cytotoxic T cells deliver a lethal hit to thier targets?
    • TC cell releases perforins and granzymes by exocytosis.
    • Perforins create pores through which granzymes enter the target cell.
    • Granzymes stimulate apoptosis.
  568. Are natural killer cells a non-specific defense?
    YES
  569. Natural Killer cells use the same key mechanisms for killing their targets as which type of T cells?
    Cytotoxic T cells
  570. Which type of T cells dampen the immune response by direct contact or inhibitory cytokines?
    Regulatory T cells
  571. Which type of t cells are important in preventing autoimmune reactions?
    Regulatory T cells
  572. What are the 4 major types of grafts for organ transplants?
    • Autographs (self)
    • Isographs(same)
    • Allographs(other)
    • Xenografts(foreign)
  573. Which of the 4 major types of graphs is a graft transplanted from one site on the body to another in the same person?
    Autograph
  574. Which of the 4 major types of grafts is a graft between identical twins?
    Isographs
  575. Which of the 4 major types of grafts is transplants between individuals that are not identical twins, but belong to same species?
    Allographs
  576. Which of the 4 major types of graphs are grafts taken from another animal species?
    Xenographs
  577. After an organ transplant, what kind of therapy is a patient treated with to prevent rejection?
    Immunosuppresive therapy
  578. After an organ transplant, what kind of drugs is a patient treated with to prevent rejection?
    • Corticosteroid drugs to suppress inflammation.
    • Antiproliferative drugs.
    • Immunosuppressant drugs.
  579. What ind of severe side effects can immunosuppresent drugs cause to a patient who is using them for an organ transplant?
    They can depress the pt's immune system so it cannot figh off foreign agent
  580. Immunodefeciencies are ____ and ____ conditions that cause immune cells, phagocytes, or complement to behave abnormally.
    Congenital and aquired
  581. Which immunodeficiency disease is a genetic defect?
    Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)
  582. Which immunodeficiency disease is marked deficit in B and T cells?
    Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)
  583. Which immunodeficiency disease has abnormalities in interleikin receptors?
    Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)
  584. Whcih immunodeficiency disease contain defective adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme that metabolites lethal to T cell accumulation?
    Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID)
  585. Is Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID) fatal if untreated?
    YES
  586. How is Severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID) treated?
    Bone marrow transplants
  587. Which immunodeficiency disease is aquired?
    Hodgkins disease
  588. Which immunodeficiency disease is the cancer of the B cells?
    Hodgkins Disease
  589. Which immunodeficiency disease leads to immunodeficiency by depressing lymph node cells?
    Hodgkins Disease
  590. What year was AIDS first identified?
    1981
  591. Which immunodeficiency disease cripples the immune system by interfering with the activity of helper T cells?
    AIDS
  592. Which immunodeficiency disease is characterized by severe wieght loss, night seats, and swollen lymph nodes?
    AIDS
  593. In which immunodeficiency disease do opportunistic infections occur, including pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma?
    AIDS
  594. Which immunodeficiency disease is the 6th leading killer of all Americans from ages 25-44?
    AIDS
  595. AIDS is now the __#__ leading killer of all Americans from ages _____.
    6th leading killer from ages 25-44
  596. The cause of which immunodeficiency disease is associated with HIV?
    AIDS
  597. Which immunodeficiency disease is a retrovirus transmitted via body fluids such as blood, semen, and vaginal secretions?
    HIV
  598. What are 3 ways HIV can enter the body?
    • Blood transfusions
    • Blood contaminated needles
    • Sexual intercourse and oral sex
  599. Which immunodeficiency disease destroys TH cells?
    HIV
  600. Which immunodeficiency disease depresses the cell-mediated immunity?
    HIV
  601. Which immunodeficiency disease multiplies in the lymph nodes throughout the asymptomatic period?
    HIV
  602. How long does it take for symptoms of HIV to appear?
    In a few months to 10 years
  603. Within how long will MOST people develope detectable antibodies?
    2 to 8 weeks (avg 25 days)
  604. What % of ppl with HIV will develope antibodies in the first 3 months following the time of thier infection?
    97 %
  605. 97% of ppl infected with HIV will develop antiboies in the within the first how many months?
    3 months
  606. In very rare cases, how long can HIV take up to develop antibodies to HIV?
    6 months
  607. When HIV enters the cell, what does it use to produce DNA from viral RNA?
    Reverse transcriptase
  608. HIV produces a DNA copy called a ____ that directs the host cell to make viral RNA and proteins, enabling the virus to reporduce.
    Provirus
  609. What does HIV transcriptase produce frequntly that has a high mutation rate and resistance to drugs?
    Transcription errors
  610. Which immunodeficiency disease is treatment with antiviral drugs used?
    AIDS
  611. Which immunodeficiency disease use reverse transcriptase inhibitors (AZT)?
    AIDS
  612. Reverse transcriptase inhibitors (AZT) was 1st synthesized in what year to treat what (which failed)?
    in 1964 to treat cancer but failed
  613. Which immunodeficiency disease use protease inhibitors (saquinavir and ritonavir)?
    AIDS
  614. Which immunodeficiency disease use new fusion inhibitors that block HIV's entrance to helper T cells?
    AIDS
  615. Which kind of diseas is a loss of the immune system's ability to distinguish self from nonself?
    Autoimmune disease
  616. Does the body produce autoantibodies and sensitized TC cells that destroy its own tissues in an immunodefieciency OR autoimmune disease?
    Autoimmune diease
  617. What are 7 examples of an autoimmune diease?
    • multiplesclerosis,
    • myasthenia gravis,
    • Graves’ disease,
    • Type I (juvenile) diabetesmellitus,
    • systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE),
    • glomerulonephritis, 
    • rheumatoid arthritis
  618. What are immune responses that cause tissue damage defined as?
    Hypersensitivity
  619. Different types of hypersensitivity reactions are distinguished by what 2 things?
    • Thier time course.
    • Whether antibodies or T cells are the principle immune elements involved.
  620. Do antibodies or T cells cause immediate and subacute hypersensitivities?
    Antibodies
  621. Do antibodies or t cells cause delayed hypersensitivity?
    T cells
  622. What is an immediate hypersensitivity that begin in seconds after contact with allergen?
    Acute (type I) hypersensitivities (allergies)
  623. What is an immediate hypersensitivity that it's initial contact is asymptomatic but sensitizes the person?
    Acute (type I) hypersensitivites (allergies)
  624. Which type of immediate hypersensitivity has a reaction that may be local or systemic?
    Acute (type I) hypersensisitivies (allergies)
  625. What is an immediate hypersensitivity that is also known as allergies?
    Acute (type I) hypersensitivites
  626. what is a severe systematic resonse to allergen that directly enter the blood?
    Anaphylactic shock
  627. During what are basophils and mast cells are enlisted throughout the body?
    Anaphylactic shock
  628. Systemic histamine releases from an anaphylactic shock may cause what 3 things?
    • Constriction of bronchioles.
    • Sudden vasodilation and fluid loss from the bloodstream.
    • Hypotensive shock and death.
  629. How is anaphyliactic shock from an allergy treated?
    Epinephrine
  630. What are caused by IgM and IgG, and transferred via blood plasma or serum?
    Subacute Hypersensitivies
  631. In ubacute hypersensitivies, is onset high or low after antigen exposure?
    1-3 hours
  632. How long is the duration of a subacute hypersensitivty?
    10-15 hours
  633. Is acute (type I) hypersensitivity an immediate, subacute, or delayed hypersensitivity?
    Immediate
  634. In what kind of reactions do antibodies bind to antigens on specific body cells, stimulating phagocytosis and complement-mediated lysis of the cellular antigens?
    Cytotoxic (type II) reactions
  635. A mismatched blood transfusion reaction is an example of what type of reaction?
    Cytotoxic (Type II) reaction

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