RMA Clinical

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bowzbabi1
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173742
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RMA Clinical
Updated:
2012-10-24 12:15:24
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rma review
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Description:
clinical portion of rma
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  1. The optimal growth temperature is:

    A. 98.6 F or body temperature
    B. room temperature
    C. the temperature that kills pathogens
    D. the temperature at which a microorganism grows best
    D. the temperature at which a microorganism grows best
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. All of the following make a person less resistant to a pathogen except:

    a. poor nutrition
    b. immunizations
    c. poor hygiene
    d. stress
    b. immunization
  3. What is the purpose of the Needlestick Saftey and Prevention Act?

    A. to ensure that an injection is administered correctly
    B. to ensure the proper disposal of sharps
    C. to reduce the chance of infection developing at the injection site
    D. to reduce needlestick injuries among health care workers
    D. to redure needlestick injuries among health care workers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. How often does the Occupationsl Safety and health Administration require employers to revew and update their Exposure Control Plan?

    A. only when a new procedure is instituted
    B. every 2 years
    C. every 6 months 
    D. once a year
    D. once a year
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. What is the immunization schedule for the hepatitis B vaccine?

    A. 0, 1 month, 2 months
    B. 0, 2 months, 4 months
    C. 0, 6 months , 12 months
    D. 0, 1 month, 6 months
    D. 0, 1 month, 6 months
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. Patients with chronic hepatitis B face an increased risk for developing:

    A. rheumatic heart disease
    B. liver cancer
    C. pancreatitis 
    D. gallstones
    B. liver cancer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. What is the most common means of transmission for hepatitis C?

    A. coughs and sneezes from an infected person
    B. mosquitoes
    C. sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
    D. sexual intercourse
    C. sharing needles for illegal injection drug use
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. Which od the following is a characteristic of bacterial spores?

    a. they consist of a hard, thick walled capsule
    b. they represent a resting and protective stage
    c. they are more resistant to heat
    d. they usually cannot be killed by disinfectats 
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  9. According to the Hazard Communications Standard, which of the following must be included on the label of a hazardous chemical?

    a. name of the chemical
    b. physical hazards of the chemical
    c. health hazards of the chemical
    d. storing and handling of the chemical
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  10. The most common temperature and pressure used for autoclaving is:

    A. 145 F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
    B. 320 F at 20 pounds of pressure/square inch
    C. 250 F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
    D. 212 F at 15 pounds of Pressure/square inch
    C. 250 F at 15 pounds of pressure/square inch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Sterilization strips should be positioned:

    A. on the bottom tray of the autoclave
    B. in the center of the wrapped pack
    C. on the top tray of the autoclave
    D. on the outside of the pack
    B. in the center of the wrapped pack
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Which of the folloqing is the best means of determining the effectiveness of the sterilization process?

    A. autoclave tape
    B. biologic indicators 
    C. the temperature gauge on the autoclave
    D. sterilization strips 
    B. biologic indicators
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following would be best to use to wrap a large minor office surgery tray setup?

    A. muslin
    B. sterilzizaton pouch
    C. aluminum foil
    D. sterilization paper
    A. muslin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The recommended exposure time and temperature for a dry heat oven is 

    A. 250 F for 1 hour
    B. 320 F for 15 to 20 Minutes
    C. 320 F for 1 to 2 hours
    D. 212 F for 20 to 30 minutes
    C. 320 F for 1 to 2 hours
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. What is the name given to the heat regulating center of the body?

    A. olfactory lobe
    B. pituitary gland
    C. medulla
    D. hypothalamus
    D. hypothalamus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. The transfer of heat from one object to another is known as:

    A. microwaves
    B. radiation
    C. convection
    D. conduction
    D. conduction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. Which of the following represents the average normal body temperture?

    A. 99.6 F
    B. 96.8 F
    C. 98.6 F
    D. 37.8 C
    C. 98.6 F
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. A temperature of 100 F is classified as

    A. hypothermia
    B. low grade fever
    C. normal
    D. hyperpyrexia
    B. low grade fever
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What is the name given to the type of fever in which a wide range of temperature fluctuations occur, all of which are above normal?

    A. intermittent
    B. continuous
    C. remittent
    D. crisis
    C. remittent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. A vague sense of body discomfort, weakness and fatigue that often marks the onset of a disease is known as:

    A. malaise
    B. adventitious
    C. the blahs
    D. crisis
    A. malaise
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. If an axillary temperature of 100 F was taken orally, it would register as:

    A. 100 F
    B. 98 F
    C. 101 F
    D. 99 F
    C. 101 F
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. After measurement of rectal temperature with an electronic thermometer, the probe cover should be ejected into:

    A. a biohazard waste container
    B. a biohazard sharps container
    C. a chemical disinfectant
    D. the regular trash
    D. the regular trash
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. If a rectal temperature of 99 F was taken orally, it would register as: 

    A. 97 F
    B. 100 F
    C. 99 F
    D. 98 F
    D. 98 F
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. How does a temporal artery temperature reading compare with an oral body temperature reading?

    A. it is the same as an oral reading
    B. approximately 2 higher than an oral reading 
    C. approximately 1 higher than an oral reading
    D. approximately 1 lower than an oral reading
    C. approximatelt 1 higher than an oral reading
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Chemical thermometers must be stored in:
    A. a watertight container
    B. a dry heat oven
    C. the freezer
    D. a cool area 
    D. a cool area
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. the purpose of measuring pulse includes all of the following except:

    A. to determine if the patient is developing hypertension
    B. to establish the patient's baseline pulse rate
    C. to assess pulse rate after special procedures that affect heart functioning
    D. to asses pulse rate after the administration of medications that affect heart functioning 
    A. to determine if the patient is developing hypertension
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. What is the normal range for the resting pulse rate of an adult?

    A. 80 to 100 beats per minute
    B. 60 to 80 beats per minute
    C. 70 to 90 beats pre minute
    D. 60 to 100 beats per minute
    D. 60 to 100 beats per minute
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. You are meausring the pulse and find it has a normal rhythm and volume. How should you record this?

    A. dysrhythmia and regular
    B. bounding and strong
    C. regular and strong 
    D. thready and regular
    C. regular and strong
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which of the following individuals may normally exhibit bradycardia? 

    A. an infant
    B. a diabetic patient
    C. a trained athlete
    D. an elderly person
    C. a trained athlete
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. The normal respiratory rate of an adult ranges from:

    A. 10 to 18 respirations per minute
    B. 12 to 20 respirations per minute 
    C. 8 to 16 respirations per minute
    D. 16 to 22 respirations per minute 
    B. 12 to 20 respirations
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Which of the following individuals has the slowest respiratory rate?

    A. newborn
    B. infant
    C. preschool child
    D. adult
    D. adult
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. What is the term used to describe temporary cessation of breathing?

    A. hypopnea
    B. apnea
    C. anoxia
    D. hypoxia
    B. apnea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The abbreviation used to record oxygen saturation as measured by a pulse oximeter is 

    A. PO2
    B. SpO2
    C. PCO2
    D. SaO2
    B. SpO2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. What term designates a decrease in the oxygen saturation of the blood

    A. hypoxemia
    B. hypoxia
    C. apnea
    D. hypopnea
    A. hypoxemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. All of the following may cause a decrease int he SpO2 reading except

    a. pneumonia
    b. asthma
    c. emphysema
    d. gastritis
    d. gastritis
  36. The systolic blood pressure represents the:

    A. expansion and recoiling of the aorta
    B. pressure in the arteries when the heart relaxes
    C. pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract
    D. pressure in the arteries when the atria contract
    C. pressure in the arteries when the ventricles contract
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which of the following has an effect on blood pressure

    a. pain 
    b. bladder distention
    c. body position
    d. smoking 
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  38. Over which artery is the stethoscope places when taking blood pressure

    A. radial
    B. brachial
    C. carotid
    D. apical
    B. brachial
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. When measuring blood pressure, the first clear tapping sound represents 

    A. The diastolic Pressure
    B. phase IV of the Korotkoff sounds
    C. The palpatory blood pressure
    D. the systolic pressure
    D. the systolic pressure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. When measureing blood pressure, the korotkoff phase in which the sounds disappear is 

    A. phase IV
    B. phase V
    C. phase III
    D. phase I
    B. phase V
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. Which of the following may require a physical examination

    a. prerequisite for employment
    b. participation in sports
    c. school admission
    d. summer camp attendance
    e. all of the above
    e. al of the above
  42. What term describes the probable course and outcome of a disease

    A. cure
    B. final diagnosis
    C. prognosis
    D. therapy
    C. prognosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. The process of determining which of two diseases that have similar symptoms is causing a patients illness is known as:

    A. final diagnosis
    B. clinical diagnosis
    C. differential diagnosis
    D. tentative diagnosis
    C. differential diagnosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Which of the following is an example of a chronic illness?

    A. arthritis 
    B. chickenpox
    C. strep throat
    D. poison ivy
    A. arthritis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A risk factor means that:

    A. a patient will develop a certain disease
    B. the chances are increased of a patient developing a certain disease
    C. a patient has a genetic disorder
    D. a patient must avoid foods that trigger an allergic reaction
    B. the chances are increased of a patient developing a certain disease
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. Which of the following is an example of a therapeutic procedure

    A. CT scan
    B. antibiotic injection
    C. sigmoidoscopy
    D. electrocardiography
    B. antibiotic injection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. What is the name of the instrument used to examine the interior of the eye

    A. stethoscope
    B. ophthalmoscope
    C. otoscope 
    D. rhinoscope
    B. ophthalmoscope
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. What is the name of the instrument used to examine the external ear canal and tympanic membrane

    A. otoscope
    B. stethoscope
    C. ophthalmoscope
    D. laryngoscope
    A. otoscope
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. How should a patient be identified?

    A. by name and date of birth
    B. by hair and eye color
    C. by social security number
    D. by phone number and address
    A. by name and date of birth
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. The process of measuring the patient is known as 

    A. inspection
    B. calibration
    C. micturition 
    D. mensuration 
    D. mensuration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. All of the following should be removed before weighing a patient except

    A.shoes 
    B. jewelry
    C. jacket
    D. heavy sweater
    B. jewelry
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. The lower calibration bar of the blance beam scale is diveded into

    A. 25-lb increments 
    B. 1-lb increments 
    C. 2-lb increments 
    D. 50-lb increments
    D. 50-lb increments
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. An adult patients weight should be measures to the nearest

    A. half pound 
    B. pound 
    C. ounce
    D. quarter pound
    D. quater pound
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. The patients height hsould be measured to the nearest 

    A. 1/8 inch 
    B. 1 inch 
    C. 1/2 inch 
    D. 1/4 inch 
    D. 1/4 inch
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The height of an adult patient is udually measured only

    A. after a loss of weight
    B. when medication has been prescribed 
    C. when a patient is ill
    D. during the first office visit
    D. during the first office visit
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. Visual acuity refers to:

    A. a weakness in muscle tone of the eye
    B. the ability to distinguish colors 
    C. an error of refraction 
    D. sharpness of vision
    D. sharpness of vision
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The Snellen Big E chart is used with:

    A. school-age children
    B. elderly individuals 
    C. Preschoolers 
    D. Individuals with cataracts 
    C. preschoolers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. What is the most common color vision defect?

    A. congenital color vision defects
    B. green-blue color vision defect
    C. total color blindness 
    D. acquired color vision defects
    A. congenital color vision defects
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which of the following represents an error in the eye instillation technique

    A. instilling drops onto the center of the cornea 
    B. asking the patient to close and rol the eye afte the instillation
    C.asking the patient to look up before instilling drops 
    D. making sure the mediation bears the word opthalmic
    A. instilling drops onto the center of the cornea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. The range of frequencies for normal speech is 

    A. 512 to 1024 hz
    B. 6000 to 8000 hz
    C. 300 to 4000 hz
    D. 80 to 120 db
    C. 300 to 4000 hz
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which of the followning can result in conductive hearing loss

    A. old age 
    B. ototoxicity
    C. serous otitis media
    D. pierced ears
    C. serous otitis media
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Impacted cerumen can be softened by

    A. instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear
    B. inserting a moistened cotton tipped applicator into the ear
    C. placing a heating pad next to the ear
    D. irrigating the ear with an antiseptic solution
    A. instilling several drops of warm mineral oil into the ear
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. An ear instillation may be performed to

    A. treat an ear infection
    B. apply heat to the ear
    C. remove cerumen
    D. remove discharge from the ear
    A. treat an ear infection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Excessive bleeding during the menstrual period is known as 

    A. dysfunctional uterine bleeding 
    B. metrorrhagia 
    C. hemorrhaging 
    D. dyspareunia 
    A. dysfunctional uterine bleeding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. A complete gynecologic examination consists of a 

    A. bimanual pelvic examination
    B. breast and pelvic examination
    C. breast examination
    D. pap test 
    B. breast and pelvic examination
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. In what position is the patient places for a breast examination

    A. prone 
    B. dorsal recumbent
    C. lithotomy
    D. supine
    D. supine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which of the following positions is used to perform a pelvic examination

    A. supine 
    B. knee chest
    C. dorsal recumbent 
    D. lithotomy 
    E. sims 
    D. dorsal recumbent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. If a pap test is being performed using the liquid-based method, the vaginal speculum should be 

    A. moistened with warm water 
    B. lubricated with a water based lubricant
    C. placed in a warming drawer and lubricated sparingly 
    D. lightly spayed with a fixative 
    B. lubricated with a water based lubricant
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. What is the purpose of a pap test?

    A. evulation of postmenopausal bleeding
    B. diagnosis of gonorrhea
    C. evulation of the cause of infertility 
    D. early detection of cancer of the cervix 
    e. all of the above 
    D. early detection of cancer of the cervix
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. The purpose of a bimanual pelvic examination is to 

    A. detect the presence of a vaginal infection 
    B. determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries 
    C. detect the presence of hemorrhoids and fissures 
    D. collect a pa smear
    e. all of the above
    B. determine the size, shape, and position of the uterus and ovaries 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. The causative agent of trichomoniasis is a 

    A. motile protozoan
    B. virus
    C. bacterium 
    D. yeast 
    A. motile protozoan
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. What preparation is required to examine Trichomonas vaginalis under he microscope

    a. The vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline
    b. a culture medium is inoculated with the vaginal discharge
    c. the swab containing the discharge is placed in a tranport medium
    d. the vaginal discharge is placed on a slide with a drop of potassium hydroxide
    a. the vaginal discharge is palced on a slide with a drop of isotonic saline
  73. Which of the following patients is most likely to develop candidasis?

    A. a patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy 
    B. a patient with mulitple sexua partners 
    C. a patient who has irregular menstrual periods
    D. a patient with poor hygiene
    A. a patient on prolonged antibiotic therapy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. If left untreated, a chlamydial infection in a woman may result in 

    A. cervical erosion
    B. dysmenorrhea 
    C. infertility
    D. cervical cancer
    C. infertility
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. Symptoms of gonorrhea in a man include

    a. urethritis 
    b. cystitis 
    c. profuse yellow purulent discharge
    d. dysuria
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  76. Chlamydia and gonorrhea are usually diagnosed using

    A. a DNA probe test 
    B. an antigen-antibody test 
    C. a culture test 
    D. a pregnancy test
    A. a DNA probe test
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. All of the following are warning signs of pregnancy except 

    A. vaginal bleeding 
    B. abdominal pain
    C. blurred vision
    D. heartburn
    D. heartburn
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. Which of the following urine tests is performed at each retuen prenatal visit

    A. glucose and protein
    B. pregnancy test
    C. clucose and ketone bodies
    D. specific gravity and pH
    A. glucose and protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. When is a pregnant woman tested for group B streptococcus

    A. 18 to 20 weeks
    B. 24 to 28 weeks
    C. just after delivery
    D. 35 to 37 weeks
    D. 35 to 37 weeks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Obstetric ultrasound scanning is used to

    a. detect ectopic pregnancy
    b. determine gestational age
    c. detect the presence of multiple fetuses 
    d. deterine the position of the placenta
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  81. Amniocentesis can be used to 

    a. diagnose certain genetically transmitted conditions
    b. assess fetal lung maturity
    c. determine the gender of the fetus
    d. detect fetal distress
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  82. The first pediatric well child iit is usually scheduled at 

    A. 2 months 
    B. 1 month
    C. 4 months 
    D. 1 week 
    B. 1 month
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Measuring pediatric blood pressure helps to identify children at risk for developing 

    A. type 2 diabetes 
    B. hypertension
    C. heart disease
    D. juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
    e. all of the above
    B. hypertension
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. The resistance of the body to pathogenicc microorganisms or their toxins is knwon as 

    A. inflammation 
    B. immunization 
    C. immunity 
    D. contagious
    C. immunity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Which of the following is required by the national childhood vaccine injury act before an immunization is administered?

    A. the patient must sign a consent form
    B. the expiration date of the vaccine must be checked three times
    C. the child must be promised a sticker after the injection 
    D. a vaccine information statement must be given to the childs parent to read 
    D. a vaccine information statemtn must be given to the childs parent to read
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. All of the following are included in a vaccine information sheet (VIS) except

    A. publication date of the VS
    B. benefits of the immunization
    C. lot number of the vaccine
    D. risks of the immunization 
    C. lot number of the vaccine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Polyuria may be caused by 

    a. the excessive intake of fluids 
    b. the consumption of caffeine
    c. diabetes mellitus
    d. taking a diurectic 
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above
  88. Which of the following does not result in oliguria

    A. diarrhea
    B. profuse perspiration 
    C. edema
    D. vomiting 
    C. edema
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. When collecting a clean catch midstream urine specimen, a front to back motion is used to cleanse the urinary meatus to

    A. avoid contaminating the distal urethra 
    B. prevent the cleaning solution from irratating the urinary meatus
    C. prevent patient discomfort during the cleansing process 
    D. avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed
    D. avoid drawing microorganisms from the anal region into the area being cleansed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. If a urine specimen is a light yellow color, this means that

    A. bacteria are present in the urine specimen
    B. the pH of the urine specimen is slightly acidic
    C. white lood cells are present in the urine specimen
    D. the urine specimen does not contain many dissolved substances
    D. the urine specimen does not contain many dissolves substances
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. Which of the following is an example of a quantiative test result 

    A. positive
    B. trace
    C. small
    D. 2+
    E. 500 mg/dL
    E. 500 mg/dL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Which of the following substances is normally present in urine

    A. urea
    B. bilirubin 
    C. ketones
    D. leukocytes
    e. all of the above
    A. urea
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. How should urine reagent strips be stored

    a. in a cool area 
    b. in a dark container
    c. in a dry area 
    d. with the cap tightly closed
    e. all of the above
    e. all of the above 
  94. Why is a first voided morning specimen preferred for performing a microscopic examination of urine

    A. it contains more dissolved substances
    B. it is more dilute
    C. it contains more abnormal substances 
    D. it contains fewer microorganisms
    A. it contains more dissolved substances
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. What effect does concentrated urine have a red blood cells

    A. it has no effect on them
    B. it causes them to swell and become rounded 
    C. it causes them to shrink and become crenated 
    D. it causes them to develop hypochromia 
    C. it causes them to shrink and become crenated
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. Which of the following represents an error in technique when performing a urine pregrancy test

    a. a clean specimen container is used to collect the specimen
    b. a first voided morning specimen is used to run the test
    c. the urine specimen is at room temperature
    d. the specific gravity of the specimen is 1.020
    e. none of the above
    e. none of the above
  97. All of the following are correct techniques for applying a tourniquet except 

    A. leaving the tourniquet on for at least 2 minutes before drawing the specimen
    B. placeing the tourniquet 3 t 4 incles above the bend in the elbow 
    C. asking the patient to clench his or her fist 
    D. applying the tourniquet so that it is nug, but not tight
    A. leaving the tourniquet on for at least 2 minutes before drawing the specimen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. On palpation, a scarred vein feels 

    A. stiff and hard 
    B. soft and pliable 
    C. elastic and pliable 
    D. swollen
    A. stiff and hard
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Your physician has requested an electrolyte profile on a patient. The laboratory directory indicated this test requires 4 ml of serum. Which of the following tubes should be used to collect the specimen

    A. a 4-ml lavender stoppered tube 
    B. a 7-ml red stoppered tube
    C. a 10-ml red stoppered tube
    D. a 4-ml red stoppered tube
    E. a 7-ml lavender stoppered tube
    C. a 10 ml red stoppered tube
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  100. If a fibrin clot forned in the serum layer of a blood specimen, it would 

    A. lead to inaccurate test results
    B. cause evaporation of the serum 
    C. result in hemolysis of the blood cells
    D. interfere with adequate serum collection 
    D. interfere with adequate serum collection
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  101. Which of the following is typically not found in the medical chart?

    A. diagnostic tests 
    B. chief complaint 
    C. patient ledger card 
    D. physical examination 
    E. past medical history 
    C. patient ledger card 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. According to the food pyramid, which of the following nutrients should be consumed least? 

    A. vegetables 
    B. fruits 
    C. grains 
    D. oils 
    E. dairy products
    D. oils 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. Cardiac cells in a resting, negatively charged state are known as 

    A. depolarization 
    B. repolarization 
    C. polarization 
    d. any of the above 
    e. none of the above
    C. polarization 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Which of the following is considered a dissecting instrument

    A. surgical scissor 
    B. thumb forceps 
    C. probe 
    D. sound 
    E. hemostat 
    A. surgical scissors 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. A drug that is used to prevnt disease is 

    A. prognostic 
    B. prophylactic 
    C. therapeutic 
    D. cathartic 
    E. diagnostic 
    B. prophylactic 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. Which of the following should be assessed first when rendering first aid?

    A. pain or injury to limbs 
    B. pulse 
    C. pupillary reaction 
    D. emotional state 
    E. head injury 
    B. pulse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Which of the following is a subdivision of the microbiology department?

    A. chemistry 
    B. serology 
    C. hematology 
    D. cytology 
    E. parasitology 
    E. parasitology 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  108. All of the following are signs of decomposing urine EXCEPT 

    A. acetone evaporates 
    B. sugar decomposes 
    C. bacterial growth 
    D. pH becomes acidic 
    E. cellular structures disintegrate 
    D. pH becomes acidic 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. The study f blood and blood forming tissues is known as 

    A. hematology 
    B. bacteriology
    C. microbiology 
    D. clinical chemistry 
    E. parasitology
    A. hematology
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. Which of the following is the smallest pathogen?

    A. escherichia coli
    B. epstein-barr virus 
    C. rickettsia rickettsii
    D.candida albicans 
    E. enterobius vermicularis 
    B. epstein barr virus 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Which of the following documents is usually found only in the problem oriented medical record?

    A. insurance forms 
    B. medical history 
    C. diagnostic reports 
    D. progress notes 
    E. problem list 
    E. problem list 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. An instrument used to test hearing is a(n)

    A. reflex hammer 
    B. tuning fork 
    C. ophthalmoscope 
    D. stethoscope 
    E. otoscope 
    B. tuning fork 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. A diet of plant foods supplemented with dairy products and eggs is called 

    A. regular 
    B. lacto-ovo vegetarian 
    C. vegan 
    D. lacto-vegetarian 
    E. therapeutic 
    B. lacto-ovo vegetarian 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. All of the following are included in the cardiac electical conduction system EXCEPT 

    A. purkinje fibers 
    B. sinoatrial node 
    C. atrioventicular node 
    D. bundle of his
    E. sinoatrial septum 
    E. sinoatrial septum 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. An instrument used to grasp or clamp down objects is a(n) 

    A. bandage scissor 
    B. obturator 
    C. forceps 
    D. anoscope 
    E. scalpel 
    C. forceps 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. A drug's generic name is best illustrated by which one of the following?

    A. tigan
    B. aspirin 
    C. tylenol 
    D. achromycin
    E. salicylic acid 
    E. salicylic acid 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. When rendering first aid to a choking infant, all of the following may be performed EXCEPT

    A. chest thrust 
    B. back blows 
    C. finger sweep 
    D. open mouth 
    e. all of the above 
    C. finger sweep 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Which of the following health personnel are trained to perform the majority of laboratoru procedures?

    A. pathologist 
    B. histocytologist 
    C. medical laboratory technician 
    D. medical technologist 
    E. certified medical assistant 
    D. medical technologist 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. The physician examination of urine includes 

    a. color 
    b. transparency 
    c. odor 
    d. specific gravity 
    e. all of the above 
    e. all of the above 
  120. Equal concentration of solute inside and outside a cell is known as 

    A. hypertonic 
    B. ionic pressure 
    C. hypotonic 
    D. anisotonic
    E. isotonic 
    E. isotonic 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  121. All of the following are included in a Gram stain EXCEPT 

    A. safranin 
    B. crystal violet 
    C. new methylene blue 
    D. iodine 
    E. alcohol/acetone 
    C. new methylene blue 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. Which of the following materials does not require the use of universal precautions?

    A. cerebral spinal fluid 
    B. semen
    C. vaginal secretions 
    D. faces 
    E. blood 
    D. faces
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. Examination of the back may be performed when the patient is in al of the following positions EXCEPT 

    A. prone 
    B. sitting 
    C. Trendelenburg 
    D. standing 
    e. none of the above 
    C. trendelenburg 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. The constructive process of building up new substances is called 

    A. catabolism 
    B. metabolism 
    C. basal metabolism 
    D. anabolism 
    e. any of the above 
    D. anabolism 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. Atrial depoloarization is represented by the 

    A. T wave 
    B. QRS complex 
    C. PR interval
    D. P wave 
    E. ST segment 
    D. P wave 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. Which of the following suture sizes is the largest?

    A. OO
    B. OOO
    C. OOOOO
    D. OOOO
    E. OOOOOO
    A. OO
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. All of the following are liquid preparations EXCEPT 

    A. elixir 
    B. syrup
    C. emulsion 
    D. troche
    E. suspension 
    D. troche 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. When performing CPR on an adult, chest compressions should be 

    A. 2 and one half to 3 inches
    B. one-half to 1 inch 
    C. 1 to 1 and one half inches 
    D. 1 and one half to 2 inches 
    E. 2 to 2 and one half inches 
    D. 1 and one half to 2 inches
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. The most common bloodbourne pathogen 

    A. salmonella
    B. staphylococcus 
    C. HBV
    D. HIV
    E. streptococcus 
    C. HBV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. The unit of measure for urine specific gravity is 

    a. mg/dl
    b. mg
    c. ml
    d. cc
    e. none of the above 
    e. none of the above 
  131. The first step when performing a capillary puncture is to 

    A. don gloves 
    B. dispose of the lancet in the shrps container 
    C. select the site 
    D. cleanse the site with alcohol 
    E. identify the patient 
    E. identify the patient 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. All of the following are Gram-positive cocci EXCEPT 

    A. micrococcus tetragenus 
    B. neisseria meningitidis 
    C. staphylcococcus aureus 
    D. streptococcus pneumoniae 
    E. streptococcus pyogenes
    B. neisseria meningitidis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Which of the following may affect body temperature?

    a. age 
    b. environment 
    c. activity 
    d. emotional state 
    e. all of the above 
    e. all of the above 
  134. All of the following materials are associated with an ophthalmologist exam EXCEPT 

    A. ophthalmoscope 
    B. tonometer 
    C. ishihara plates 
    D. otoscope 
    E. snellen chart 
    D. otoscope 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. A unit of heat energy is 

    A. enricment 
    B. fortification 
    C. calorie 
    D. metabolism 
    E. RDA 
    C. calorie 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. Ventricular depolarization is represented by the 

    A. P-wave 
    B. T wave 
    C. PR interval 
    D. ST segment 
    E. QRS complex 
    E. QRS complex 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. Which of the following surgical procedures is used to remove abscesses?

    A. incision and drainage 
    B. toenail resection 
    C. laceration repair 
    D. cyst removal 
    e. none of the above 
    A. incision and drainage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. Common signs and symptoms of drug abuse include 

    A. A and B only 
    B. changes in attitude and mood 
    C. increased friendliness 
    D. B and C only 
    E. changes in appearance 
    A. A and B only 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. The compression to ventilation ratio for adult, one-rescuer CPR is 

    A. 1:15
    B. 15:1 
    C. 5:1
    D. 15:2 
    E. 1:5 
    B. 15:1 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. Treating all body fluids as it they are infectious regardless of their true pathogenicity is called 

    A. universal precautions 
    B. exposure control plan 
    C. OSHA 
    D. MSDS
    E. employee-right-to-know 
    A. universal precautions 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. Microscopic structures found in the urine that are composed of precipitated protein are called 

    A. casts 
    B. epithelial cells 
    C. crystals
    D. bacteria 
    E. blood cells 
    A. casts 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. RBCs that are pale in color indicate 

    A. polychromasia 
    B. hypochromia 
    C. hyperchromia 
    D. anisochromia 
    E. normochromia 
    B. hypochromia 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. A bacillus that stains red with Gram stain is 

    A. GPC
    B. GPR 
    C. GNC 
    D. GNR 
    e. none of the above 
    D. GNR 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. All fo the following are characteristics of the pulse EXCEPT 

    A. depth 
    B. rhythm 
    C. volume 
    D. rate 
    E. texture 
    A. depth 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. Diagnostic imaging is best associated with which of the following specialties?

    A. gynecology 
    B. pediatrics 
    C. internal medicine 
    D. orthopedics 
    E. cardiology 
    D. orthopedics 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. Nutritional elements containing the most calories per gram are 

    A. carbohydrates 
    B. proteins 
    C. fats 
    D. vitamins 
    E. minerals 
    C. fats 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. Process of cleaning or freeing materials from dirt is called 

    A. sterilization 
    B. disinfection 
    C. detergent
    D. sanitization 
    E. asepsis 
    D. sanitization 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. Most drugs are metabolized by the 

    A. liver 
    B. lungs 
    C. intestines 
    D. pancreas 
    E. gallbladder
    A. liver 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. Burns that require immediate activation of local EMS include 

    A. first degree burns on the arms 
    B. third degree burn over a small area 
    C. second degree burns on the shoulders 
    D. burns that casue breathing difficulties 
    e. any of the above
    D. burns that casue breathing difficulties 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. Details regarding the health status of the patients partents and siblings are known as the 

    A. past medical history 
    B. social history 
    C. family history
    D. cheif complaint 
    E. occupational history 
    C. family history
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. An examination method that requires the use os a stethoscope is 

    A. palpation 
    B. auscultation 
    C. percussion
    D. maipulation 
    E. mensuration 
    B. auscultation 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. The best siurce of vitamin D is 

    A. green vegetables 
    B. cheese 
    C. beef 
    D. cereals 
    E. fruits 
    B. cheese 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. A bipolar limd lead

    A. I 
    B. aVL
    C. V2
    D. V6
    E. aVR
    A. I 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. All of the following are methods of disinfection EXCEPT 

    A. acids 
    B. antiseptics 
    C. alcohol 
    D. dessication
    E. boiling 
    B. antiseptics 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. All of the following may be consulted for drug information EXCEPT 

    A. medical dictionary 
    B. desk reference for nonprescription drugs 
    C. USP/NF
    D. product insert 
    E. PDR 
    A. medical dictionary 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. All of the following are common causes of breathing emergencies EXCEPT 

    A. strains 
    B. asthma 
    C. choking
    D. allergic reactions
    E. obstruction 
    A. strains 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. Which of the following illustrates an engineering control?

    A. lab coat 
    B. treating all body fluids as potentially infectious 
    C. sharps container 
    D. handwashing 
    e. all of the above 
    C. sharps container
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. The normal transparency of freshly voided urine is 

    A. hazy 
    B. cloudy 
    C. opaque 
    D. turbid 
    E. clear 
    E. clear 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. Neisseria gonorrheae is morphologically described as 

    A. GNR 
    B. GPR 
    C. GNC 
    D. GPC 
    e. none of the above 
    C. GNC 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. The following identifies the action to be taken to solve a medical problem such as treatment, medication, surgery, referral, etc.

    A. plan 
    B. objective 
    C. assessment 
    D. POMR
    E. subjective 
    A. plan 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. All of the following insturments are commonly used during a routine physical examination EXCEPT 

    A. otoscope 
    B. thumb forceps
    C. ophthalmoscope 
    D. percussion hammer 
    E. stethoscope 
    B. thumb forceps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. Replacing nutritional elements lost during the processing of food is known as 

    A. enrichment
    B. pasteurization 
    C. enhancement 
    D. fortification 
    E. homogenization 
    A. enrichment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. Placement at the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum

    A. V4
    B. V3
    C. V1
    D. V6
    E. V2
    E. V2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. A grooved instrument used to guide the direction and depth of a surgical incision is a(n)

    A. director 
    B. scalpel 
    C. trocar 
    D. applicator 
    E. obturator 
    A. director 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. An example of a Schedule IV drug is 

    A. valium 
    B. acetaminophen 
    C. morphine
    D. codeine 
    E. heroin 
    A. valium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. Shock caused by sudden blood or body fluid loss 

    A. anaphylactic 
    B. psychogenic 
    C. cardiogenic 
    D. neurogenic 
    E. hypovolemic
    E. hypovolemic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. A form prepared by the manufacturer that describes a substance's physical and chemical characteristics is 

    A. ERTK
    B. MSDS 
    C. WPC 
    D. label
    E. PPE
    B. MSDS 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Allof the following are included int he chemical examination of urine EXCEPT 

    A. ketones
    B. glucose 
    C. specific gravity 
    D. urobilinogen 
    E. nitrite 
    C. specific gravity 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. The abnormal hemoglobin molecule responsible for sickle cell anemia is 

    A. hemoglobin S 
    B. hemoglobin D
    C. hemoglobin F 
    D. hemoglobin C 
    E. hemoglobin A 
    A. hemoglobin S 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. The bacteria that commonly causes food poisoning is 

    A. Salmonella typhi 
    B. Streptococcus pyogenes 
    C. Klebsiella pneumoniae
    D. Escherichia coli
    E. taphylococcus aureus 
    A. Salmonella typhi 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. The patients name, date of birth, marital status, education, occupation, etc., is known as the 

    A. family history 
    B. past illnesses 
    C. personal history
    D. social history 
    E. demographics 
    E. demographics 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Initial examination of the breats is usually performed when the patient is in which of the following positions?

    A. sitting 
    B. trendelenberg 
    C. dorsal recumbant 
    D. lithotomy 
    E. prone 
    A. sitting 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. Nutritional elements that helps replace and repair worn out tissue are 

    A. minerals 
    B. proteins 
    C. carbohydrated 
    D. fats 
    E. vitamins 
    B. proteins 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. Each large block of five small squares represents how many seconds on ECG paper?

    A. .05 seconds 
    B. .04 seconds 
    C. .1 seconds 
    D. .3 seconds
    E. .2 seconds 
    E. .2 seconds 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. All of the following are endoscoped EXCEPT the 

    A. protoscope 
    B. stethoscope
    C. bronchoscope 
    D. sigmoidoscope 
    E. laparoscope 
    B. stethoscope
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. A medication given to a patient for a fee is 

    A. prescribed 
    B. subscribed 
    C. injected 
    D. administered
    E. dispensed 
    E. dispensed
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. All of the following are common signs or symptoms of shock EXCEPT 

    A. cool, moist skin 
    B. tachycardia 
    C. unconsciousness
    D. polyphagia 
    E. nausea 
    D. polyphagia 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. The administrative agency that protects employee health and safety is the 

    A. DRG
    B. DEA
    C. HCFA 
    D. OSHA 
    E. FDA 
    D. OSHA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. The specific gravity testing method requiring the least amount of urine is by 

    A. litmus paper 
    B. urinometer
    C. reagant strip 
    D. microscopy 
    E. refractometer 
    C. reagant strip 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. All of the following are examples of anisochromia in RBCs EXCEPT 

    A. hyperchromia 
    B. hypochromia 
    C. normochromia
    D. polychromia 
    e. none of the above 
    C. normochromia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. A common liquid culture media is 

    A. PEA 
    B. BAP 
    C. TSB 
    D. MAC 
    E. TM
    C. TSB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. Questions regarding each of the major body systems and parts are known as 

    A. CC
    B. ROS 
    C. PMH 
    D. FH 
    E. PI 
    B. ROS
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. The Ishihara test is associated with which of the following examinations? 

    A. otological 
    B. dermatological
    C. ophthalmological 
    D. orthopedic 
    E. gynecological 
    C. ophthalmological 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. Nutritional elements that are concentrated sources of energy that add satiety value to foods are 

    A. proteins 
    B. vitamins 
    C. fats 
    D. carbohydrates 
    E. minerals 
    C. fats 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. The framelike apparatus situated under the X-ray table that holds the grid above the film is the 

    A. view box 
    B. intensifying screens 
    C. cassette
    D. grid 
    E. potty-bucky diaphragm 
    E. potty-bucky diaphragm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. All of the following are steps for proper instrument care EXCEPT 

    A. keep sharp and delicate instruments separate from the rest to avoid dulling or damaging them
    B. do not stack instruments to avoid entangling them 
    C. use the instrument only for the purpose for which it is designed 
    D. keep ratcheted instruments in a closed position 
    E. keep instruments with differing finishes separate 
    D. keep ratcheted instruments in a closed position 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. Schedule II inventories must be made every 

    A. 5 years 
    B. 3 years 
    C. 4 years 
    D. 2 years 
    E. year 
    D. 2 years 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. The first aid priority for an injured victim is to 

    A. initiate breathing 
    B. treat for shock 
    C. immoblize injuries 
    D. stop bleeding 
    E. create a patent airway 
    E. create a patent airway 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. A glass tube used to measure small quantities of liquid is a 

    A. flask 
    B. pipette 
    C. cuvette 
    D. beaker 
    E. bottle 
    B. pipette
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. The urine chemistry test that measures percent hydrogen ion concentration is 

    A. bilirubin 
    B. urobilinogen 
    C. pH 
    D. nitrite 
    E. ketones 
    C. pH 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. RBCs thats are normal is shape are called 

    A. codocytes 
    B. poikilocytes
    C. discocytes 
    D. microcytes 
    E. anisocytes 
    C. discocytes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. The culture specimen that commonly uses a calibrated loop is 

    A. throat 
    B. wound 
    C. feces 
    D. urine 
    E. blood 
    D. urine 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. A common abbreviation for biopsy is 

    A. Bpy 
    B. bsy 
    C. bx 
    D. (B)
    E. bpsy
    C. bx 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. The Romberg test is associated with which of the following examinations?

    a cardiological 
    b. gastroenterological 
    c. ophthalmological 
    d. oncological 
    e. otorhinolaryngoological 
    e. otorhinolaryngoological 
  195. Nutritional elements that serve as catalysts for efficient metabolism are 

    a. carbohydrates 
    b. minerals 
    d. fats 
    d. vitamins 
    e. proteins
    d. vitamins 
  196. All of the following are radiation hazards EXCEPT 

    A. physical deformity 
    B. cancer 
    C. cataract 
    D. hair loss 
    E. sterility
    A. physical deformity 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. The most common temperature setting for the autoclave is 

    A. 190 to 210F
    B. 230 to 250F
    C. 270 to 290F
    D. 250 to 270F
    E. 210 to 230F
    D. 250 to 270F
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. Drug inventory records must include the following information EXCEPT 

    A. signature of person who has taken the inventory 
    B. date of inventory 
    C. DEA registration number 
    D. signature of patients who accepted drugs
    E. physicians name 
    D. signature of patients who accepted drugs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. An instrument that uses a spinning force to separate solids of differing mass is a(n)

    A. centrifuge 
    B. spectrophotomer
    C. autoclave 
    D. seralyzer
    E. coulter counter
    A. centrifuge 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. When centrifuging urine for microscopic analysis, the MA should use 

    A. 10 to 12 ml 
    B. 8 to 10 ml 
    C. 4 to 6 ml 
    D. 6 to 8 ml 
    E. 12 to 14 ml 
    A. 10 to 12 ml 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. The normal adult hemoglobin is approximately 

    A. 14 to 16 g/dl 
    B. 12 to 14 g/dl 
    C. 10 to 12 g/dl
    D. 16 to 18 g/dl 
    E. 18 to 20 g/dl
    A. 14 to 16 g/dl 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Enterobius vermicularis is commonly known as 

    A. tapeworm 
    B. flatworm 
    C. pinworm
    D. roundworm 
    E. fluke 
    C. pinworm
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  203. The process of measuring range of motion of a joint is 

    A. arthrometry 
    B. goniometry 
    C. electromyography 
    D. cystometry
    E. arthroscopy 
    B. goniometry 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. All of the following are fat soluble vitamins EXCEPT 

    A. A
    B. K 
    C. E
    D. D 
    E. B 
    E. B 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. Which of the following body parts requires use of Potter-Bucky diaphragm for X-ray?

    A. wrist 
    B. hand 
    C. ankle 
    D. foot 
    E. thigh
    E. thigh
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. All of the following are proper aseptic techniques EXCEPT 

    A. cover a sterile tray with a sterile towel if not used immediately 
    B. bottles containing sterile solution should not touch the sterile receptacle when poured
    C. transfer forceps are held facing down 
    D. lids are placed down on the table 
    E. do not reach over a sterile field 
    D. lids are placed down on the table 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. The form completed when damaged or contaminated controlled substances are destroyed is 

    A. DEA-457
    B. DEA-106
    C. DEA-335 
    D. DEA-222
    E. DEA-41 
    E. DEA-41 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. The most common cause of convulsions is 

    A. dehydration 
    B. epilepsy 
    C. fever 
    D. hyperemesis
    E. diarrhea 
    B. epilepsy 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  209. A condition commonly caused by hyperbilirubinema is 

    A. hemolysis 
    B. melanosis
    C. cyanosis 
    D. icterus 
    E. lipemia 
    D. icterus 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  210. Which of the following is the by-product of incomplete fat metabolism?

    A. ketones
    B. protein
    C. casts 
    D. urobilinogen 
    E. glucose 
    A. ketones
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  211. Another name for percent packed RBCs is 

    A. CBC
    B. RBC 
    C. hemoglobin 
    D. MCV
    E. hematocrit 
    E. hematocrit 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  212. The study of fungus is 

    A. mycology 
    B. parasitology 
    C. microbiology 
    D. virology
    E. bacteriology 
    A. mycology 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  213. Which of the following acronyms refers to physical examination of the eye?

    A. CCE 
    B. PERRLA 
    C. T&A
    D. HCM 
    E. PP&A
    B. PERRLA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  214. An occult blood test is best associated with what body system?

    A. endocrine
    B. lymphatic 
    C. circulatory 
    D. sensory 
    E. gastrointestinal 
    E. gastrointestinal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  215. The societal factor aving the most negative impact on adolescent nutrition is 

    A. teen pregnancy 
    B. commercialism
    C. peer pressure 
    D. emphasis on slimness 
    E. drug abuse 
    D. emphasis on slimness 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  216. Two views of the wrist is best done using which of the following size films?

    A. 10 x 12 inch 
    B. 14 x 17 inch 
    C. 11 x 14 inch 
    D. 8 x 10 inch 
    E. 5 x 7 inch 
    D. 8 x 10 inch 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  217. A surgical wound that becomes infected and must be reopened is a 

    A. fourth intention wound 
    B. first intention wound 
    C. third intention wound 
    D. fifth intention wound 
    E. second intention wound 
    C. third intention wound 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  218. The Rx symbol is classified as the 

    A. superscription
    B. inscription 
    C. signature 
    D. subscription 
    E. prescription 
    A. superscription
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  219. According to the Rule of Nines, the amount of body surface represented by the head and neck is 

    A. 1 percent 
    B. 4.5 percent 
    C. 36 persent 
    D. 18 percent 
    E. 9 percent 
    D. 18 percent 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  220. The blood collection tube containing EDTA 

    A. purple 
    B. green 
    C. blue 
    D. red 
    E. yellow 
    A. purple 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  221. The urine chemisry finding highly correlated with the presence of casts is 

    A. blood 
    B. low pH
    C. glucose 
    D. protein 
    E. ketones 
    D. protein
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  222. An RBC index that measures everage RBC volume is 

    A. MCHC 
    B. MCV
    C. RBC 
    D. MCH 
    E. CBC 
    B. MCV
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  223. Ringworm os the groin or "jock itch" is classified as 

    A. tinea capitis 
    B. tinea pedis 
    C. tinea barbae 
    D. tinea cruris 
    E. tinea corporis 
    D. tinea cruris 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  224. Which of the following is not performed int he handwashing procedure?

    A. allow the hands to become completely wet 
    B. dry hands with a paper towel
    C. scrub for at least 30 seconds 
    D. rinse so that the water flows from fingertips to the wrist 
    E. remore all jewelry except perhaps wedding rings 
    D. rinse so that the water flows from fingertips to the wrist 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  225. Lumbar puncture is best associated with the 

    A. nervous system
    B. lymphatic system 
    C. urinary system 
    D. muscular system 
    E. skeletal system 
    A. nervous system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  226. The metabolic disorder characterized by the lack of the enzyme needed to metabolizr phenylalanine is known as 

    A. histidinemia
    B. homocystinuria 
    C. PKU 
    D. tyrosinosis 
    E. galatosemia 
    C. PKU
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  227. A form of heat energy that uses an electrical field is 

    A. hydrotherapy 
    B. ultrasound 
    C. diathermy
    D. electromyography 
    E. infrared 
    C. diathermy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  228. The sterile cover placed over a wound to prevent contamination is the 

    A. bandage
    B. wrap 
    C. cast 
    D. band aid 
    E. dressing 
    E. dressing
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  229. The acronym p.c means 

    A. before meals 
    B. after meals 
    C. as needed 
    D. with meals 
    E. as desired 
    B. after meals 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  230. Dry, hot, red skin is characteristic of 

    A. heat exhaustion 
    B. heat cramps 
    C. hypothermia
    D. hyperthermia 
    E. heat stroke 
    E. heat stroke
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  231. All of the following are extravascular fluids EXCEPT 

    A. cerebral spinal fluid 
    B. synovial fluid 
    C. pleural fluid
    D. pericardial fluid 
    E. plasma 
    E. plasma 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  232. A positive nitrite on urine chemistry may be indicative of 

    A. casts 
    B. RBCs 
    C. WBCs 
    D. epithelial cells 
    E. crystals 
    C. WBCs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  233. All of the following are considered normal WBCs EXCEPT 

    A. blast 
    B. basophil 
    C. lymphocyte 
    D. eosinophil 
    E. neutrophil 
    A. blast 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  234. The most common cause of yeast infection is 

    A. plasmodium vivax 
    B. candida albicans 
    C. necatur americanus 
    D. schistosoma mansoni 
    E. clostridium perfringens 
    B. candida albicans 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  235. An agent that mechanically removes contaminants from objects is a(n)

    A. ultrasound 
    B. ultraviolet
    C. disinfectant 
    D. detergent 
    E. alcohol 
    D. detergent 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  236. Bringing an infant to the sitting position causes the childs eyes to open is called the 

    A. moro reflex 
    B. rooting reflex 
    C. china doll reflex 
    D. stepping reflex 
    E. sucking reflex 
    C. china doll reflex 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  237. A common signs of diabetes mellitis is 

    A. polyuria 
    B. polycrotism
    C. hypoxia 
    D. polycythemia 
    E. hypoglycemia 
    A. polyuria 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  238. The initial treatment of choice for edema is 

    A. hydrotherapy 
    B. thermotherapy 
    C. ultrasound
    D. cryotherapy 
    E. diathermy 
    D. cryotherapy 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  239. All of the following would be needed for a laceration repair EXCEPT 

    A. needle holder 
    B. surgical scissors 
    C. penrose drain
    D. tissue forceps 
    E. hemostatic forcep
    C. penrose drain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  240. The generic name for Lopressor is 

    A. prozac 
    B. alprazolam 
    C. nifedipine 
    D. nitroglycerin 
    E. metoprolol
    E. metoprolol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  241. When in doubt about whether a conscious victim is suffering from diabetic coma or insulin shock, first 

    A. perform a primary survey 
    B. administer fluids 
    C. lay the victim down 
    D. treat for shock 
    E. administer sugar 
    E. administer sugar 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  242. Closeness of a test to the truth best describes 

    A. control 
    B. standard 
    C. accuracy 
    D. precision 
    E. calibration
    C. accuracy 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  243. Urine crystals that appear like squares with refractive "x"s in them best describe

    A. amorphous phosphates 
    B. amorphous urates 
    C. triple phosphates 
    D. cystine 
    E. calcium oxalates 
    E. calcium oxalates 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  244. A coagulation test commonly used to monitor coumadin therapy is 

    A. CBC 
    B. PT 
    C. RBC 
    D. Hgb 
    E. PTT
    B. PT 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  245. In the Gram stain procedure, the last stain applied is 

    A. iodine 
    B. methylene blue 
    C. crystal violet 
    D. safranin-O
    E. decolorizer 
    B. methylene blue
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  246. The acronym PERRLA is typically recorded in what part of the Review of Systems?

    A. urinary 
    B. cardivascular 
    C. gastrointestinal 
    D. head and neck 
    E. respiratory 
    D. head and neck
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  247. The position of choice for orthopnea

    A. prone 
    B. dorsal recumbent 
    C. lithotomy 
    D. fowlers 
    E. supine 
    D. fowlers 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  248. A nutrient that yeilds 4 kilocalories per gram

    A. sodium 
    B. carbohydrates 
    C. iron
    D. vitamin A 
    E. fats 
    B. carbohydrates 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  249. The three point gait describes the use of which device?

    A. cane 
    B. braces
    C. walker 
    D. crutches 
    E. wheelchair 
    D. crutches 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  250. Instruments designed to grasp objects are 

    A. scopes 
    B. forceps 
    C. sounds 
    D. scissors 
    E. probes 
    B. forceps
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  251. Tylenol is an example of a(n)

    A. chemical name 
    B. anticoagulant
    C. synthetic name 
    D. trade name 
    E. generic name 
    D. trade name 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  252. Which of the following are cardiac enzymes?

    A. coagulase 
    B. CPK
    C. amylase 
    D. glucose 
    E. lipase 
    B. CPK
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  253. The presence of hemoglobin in the urine is most likely indicative of 

    A. urinary hemorrhage 
    B. pyelonephritis 
    C. UTI 
    D. glomerulonephritis 
    E. hydronephrosis 
    A. urinary hemorrhage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  254. Normally, the hematocrit is approximatyle 

    A. two-thirds the hemoglobin 
    B. three times the hemoglobin 
    C. four times the hemoglobin
    D. twice the hemoglobin 
    E. one-third the hemoglobin 
    B. three times the hemoglobin 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  255. The media of choice for cultuering Neisseria gonorrheae is 

    A. tryptocase soy broth 
    B. MacConkey 
    C. Salmonella-Shigella agar 
    D. thioglycolate broth 
    E. Thayer-Martin agar 
    E. Thayer-Martin agar 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  256. The 'S' of SOAP notes comprises 

    A. the physicians diagnosis 
    B. data acquired through eamination and testing 
    C. patient referral 
    D. the course of treatment 
    E. data provided by the patient describing signs, symptoms, and feelings 
    E. data provided by the patient describing signs, symptoms, and feelings 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  257. Attempting to assess a patients condition by ruling out certain possibilitiies describes 

    A. tentative diagnosis 
    B. suspected diagnosis 
    C. final diagnosis 
    D. differential diagnosis 
    E. definitive diagnosis 
    E. definitive diagnosis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  258. All fo the following are nutritional elements EXCEPT 

    A. minerals
    B. fats 
    C. carbohydrates 
    D. ethanol 
    E. proteins 
    D. ethanol 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  259. The right lateral position best describes which of the following?

    A. x-rays enter the left side and exit the right side of the body 
    B. x-rays enter the back and exit the front side of the body 
    C. x-rays enter and eit the body at an acute angle 
    D. x-rays enter the front and exit the back side of the body 
    E. x-rays enter the right side and exit the left side of the body 
    A. x-rays enter the left side and exit the right side of the body 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  260. Which of the following is a gynecological instrument?

    A. obturator 
    B. tenaculum 
    C. sigmoidoscope 
    D. hemostats
    E. bayonette forceps 
    B. tenaculum 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  261. A subcutaneous injection typically employs a 

    A. 3/4 inch needle 
    B. 1/4 inch needle 
    C. 1.5-inch needle 
    D. 5/8 inch needle 
    e. none of the above 
    D. 5/8 inch needle 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  262. In adult CPR, the depth of chest compressions is 

    A. 2.5 to 3.0 inches 
    B. 2.0 to 2.5 inches 
    C. 1.0 to 1.5 inches 
    D. 0.5-1.0 inches 
    E. 1.5 to 2.0 inches 
    E. 1.5 to 2.0 inches 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  263. A metabolic profile typically includes all of the following assays EXCEPT 

    A. BUN 
    B. glucose 
    C. K+
    D. ketones 
    E. Na+
    D. ketones 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  264. All of the following urinary constituents are reported EXCEPT 

    A. leukocytes 
    B. artifact
    C. casts
    D. erthrocytes 
    E. Trichomonas vaginalis 
    B. artifact
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  265. All of the following are granulocytes EXCEPT 

    A. eosinophils 
    B. segmented neutrophils 
    C. basophils
    D. lymphocytes 
    E. band neutrophils 
    D. lymphocytes 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  266. Streptococci are typically described as 

    A. arranged in clusters 
    B. rod shaped 
    C. gram-positive 
    D. comma shaped 
    E. gram-negative
    C. gram-positive 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  267. Which of the following represents hypotension?

    A. 130/84
    B. 120/80
    C. 90/58
    D. 110/70
    E. 142/90
    C. 90/58
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  268. All of the following describes examination methods EXCEPT 

    A. auscultation
    B. palpation
    C. inspection 
    D. percussion 
    E. recitation 
    E. recitation 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  269. Proteins consist of the following EXCEPT 

    A. oxygen
    B. nitrogen 
    C. carbon 
    D. potassium
    E. hydrogen 
    D. potassium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  270. An IVP describes a radipgraphic study of the 

    A. urinary system 
    B. respiratory system 
    C. nervous system 
    D. muscular system 
    E. integumentary system 
    A. urinary system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  271. Which fo the following is a physical disinfection agent?

    A. iodine 
    B. alcohol 
    C. betadine 
    D. boiling water 
    E. bleach
    D. boiling water 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  272. OS means

    A. right eye 
    B. right ear
    C. left eye 
    D. both eyes 
    E. either eye 
    C. left eye 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  273. When happening on an unconscious person, the medical assistant should first 

    A. administer artificial respirations 
    B. call for help 
    C. splint any broken bones 
    D. assess the victims responsiveness 
    E. control any bleeding 
    D. assess the victims responsiveness 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  274. All of the followinf are electrolytes EXCEPT

    A. bicarbonate 
    B. sodium 
    C. potassium 
    D. nitrogen 
    E. chloride 
    D. nitrogen 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  275. Cats are reported as the 

    A. number per cubiv millimeter 
    B. number per low power field 
    C. number per high power field 
    D. total number seen
    E. number per cubic centimeter 
    B. number per low power field 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  276. A "shift to the left" describes 

    A. an increase in PMNs 
    B. an increase in band neutrophils 
    C. an increase in segmented neutrophils 
    D. a decrease in segmented neutrophils 
    E. a decrease in band neutrophils 
    B. an increase in band neutrophils 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  277. Neisseria gonorrheae is morphologically described as 

    A. spiral shaped 
    B. gram-negative 
    C. arranged in chains 
    D. gram postive 
    E. rod-shaped 
    B. gram-negative 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  278. All of the following are minerals EXCEPT

    A. iron 
    B. copper 
    C. hydrogen 
    D. sodium 
    E. calcium 
    C. hydrogen 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  279. The physician orders 600 mg Augmentin. Augmentin, 200 mg per 0.5 ml, is available. The medical assistant should administer

    A. 2.0 ml
    B. 0.5 ml
    C. 1.0 ml
    D. 0.75 ml 
    E. 1.5 ml
    E. 1.5 ml
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  280. A patient suffering from diabetic coma will require 

    A. immediate surgical care 
    B. a dose of insulin 
    C. carbohydrates 
    D. something sweet 
    E. hospital admission
    B. a dose of insulin 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  281. Which of the following assays are used to manage diabetic patients?

    A. blood urea nitrogen 
    B. hemoglobin a1c (glycated hemoglobin)
    C. potassium 
    D. bilirubin 
    E. chloride 
    B. hemoglobin a1c (glycated hemoglobin)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  282. All of the following are considered normal urinary crystals EXCEPT 

    A. amorphous phosphates 
    B. uric acid 
    C. calcium oxalates 
    D. triple phosphates 
    E. tyrosine 
    E. tyrosine 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  283. The instruments used to count blood cells 

    1. hematocrit 
    2. hemotometry 
    3. hemoglobinometer
    4. hemocytometer
    4 is correct 
  284. Which of the following are intestinal worms?

    1. Entamoeba coli
    2. Entamoeba histolytica
    3. Dientamoeba fragilis 
    4. Enterobius vermicularis 
    4 is correct
  285. Which fot he following factors affect body temperature

    1. age
    2. environment 
    3. diurnal variation 
    4. activity
    all of the above 
  286. A percussion hammer is more/most commonly used for which of the following medical specialities?

    1. family practice 
    2. ophthalmology 
    3. internal medicine 
    4. otorhinolaryngology
    1 and 3 are correct 
  287. The seven dietary guidelines includes 

    1. eat a variety of food 
    2. maintain an ideal weight 
    3. eat foods low in fat and choloesterol 
    4. reduce alcohol consumption
    all of the above 
  288. Atrial arrhythmias include 

    1. PVC
    2. PAT
    3. sinus block 
    4. PAC 
    2 and 4 are correct 
  289. Gynecological instruments include

    1. pelvimeter 
    2. uterine tenaculum 
    3. vaginal speculum 
    4. uterine curette
    all of the above 
  290. Antimicrobials include 

    1. e-mycin
    2. amoxil 
    3. veetids
    4. tagamet
    1, 2, and 3 are correct 

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