# A Cert.txt

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The flashcards below were created by user Spenhar on FreezingBlue Flashcards.

1. How is 'safe speed near the ground' calculated? Nominate that speed for the glider you fly.
1.5 times the stalling speed (1.5Vs)
2. What is the secondary effect of the rudder?
Roll, caused by the increased speed of the outer wing.
3. What happens to the stalling speed in a turn? Why does it happen?
It increases, because of the increase in effective weight, due to an increase in "G". This effectively increases wing loading.
4. Define aileron drag.
The downgoing aileron causes an increase in induced drag, resulting in a yaw away from the direction of the intended turn (adverse yaw).
5. How does an aircraft designer compensate for aileron drag?
The designer usually uses differential ailerons, with more upward travel than downward, to help fix the problem.
6. How does the pilot cope with aileron drag?
The pilot ensures that enough rudder is used in coordination with the ailerons to eliminate the adverse yaw.
7. Of the forces acting on a glider in flight, which one is used to turn the glider?
Lift: tilted in the direction of the turn when the glider is banked.
8. On a glider fitted with an elevator trim tab, which way will the tab move if the trim lever is moved forward?
Up.
9. Airbrakes are used on final approach to control what?
Rate of descent.
10. If a wing drops at the stall, what is the correct action on the part of the pilot?
Stick forward. Use only enough rudder to prevent yaw.
11. What is the correct recovery action from a fully developed spin?
Full opposite rudder, stick forward until glider stops spinning. Centralise rudder and recover from dive.
12. What is wind gradient?
Wind gradient is the reduction in wind speed near the ground, caused by ground friction.
13. What is the effect of wind gradient on a glider?
Near the ground, the glider experiences a loss of airspeed as it enters the area of wind gradient.
14. what action does a pilot take to compensate for wind gradient?
Carry extra speed during the whole approach in anticipation of the loss of airspeed.
15. What usually happens to a glider's airspeed when it flies into a thermal?
It increases momentarily.
16. Which is the higher figure, the speed for minimum sink or the speed for the best glide angle?
Speed for the best glide angle is higher than the speed for minimum rate of sink.
17. On a glider fitted with flaps, will downward deflection of the flaps improve the glide angle or make it worse?
Make it worse.
18. What happens to the stalling speed when the airbrakes are opened?
It increases by 2 to 5 knots.
19. What kind of stability does a glider have in the rolling plane?
Neutral.
20. What is the flight visibility required for Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) below 3,000ft AGL?
5km
21. What is the flight visibility required for Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) between 3,000ft AGL & 10,000ft AMSL
5km
22. What is the flight visibility required for Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) above 10,000ft AMSL
8km
23. If the speed falls to just above 1.3Vs on a winch launch and is still falling, what action is the pilot required to take?
Release immediately and obtain 1.5Vs in preparation for landing.
24. Who gives way when two gliders are approaching each other head on?
Both turn right.
25. Who gives way when two gliders are approaching each other on converging headings?
The one which has the other on its right gives way.
26. Assuming that the glider is not taking off or landing, what is the minimum height to fly over a built up area?.
1500 feet.
27. What actions would a pilot take in the event of a release failure on aerotow?
Try again. If no success, move out to the left and await an acknowledgment from the tug pilot. Try again. If still no success, move back behind the tug and then up into high tow. Try again, Tug pilot will release glider when it is established in high tow.
28. What is the minimum vertical and horizontal separation between gliders in a thermal?
200 feet.
29. Who establishes the direction of circling in a thermal?
The first glider in the thermal, unless the local rules specify a particular direction near the airfield (eg comps).
30. What action would the pilot take on running out of height in the circuit?
Modify the circuit and select the best available landing area.
31. What is the 'Gliding in Progress' signal, to be located near the windsock at an airfield?
A double white cross.
32. On which side does a glider overtake another when hill soaring?
When hill soaring, overtake on the downwind side ie between the overtaken glider and the hill.
33. Except when hill soaring, on which side does a glider overtake another?
Unless hill soaring, overtake on the right.
34. Who is entitled to give the 'Stop' signal at a launch point?
Anyone who sees a hazardous situation developing.
35. What action is required from a pilot before flying in controlled airspace?
The pilot requires a clearance from Air Traffic Control and must comply with the terms of that clearance.
36. At what stage is the airbrake or spoiler control used on final approach?
When a definite overshoot situation is seen to exist.
37. What is the pilots first priority immediately following a launch failure?
Ensure that speed is set to 1.5Vs.
38. What action does a pilot take before carrying out intentional stalling or spinning, or before aerobatics?
Complete the pre-aerobatic check.

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 Author: Spenhar ID: 176346 Filename: A Cert.txt Updated: 2012-10-09 00:32:42 Tags: Gliding Certificate Folders: Description: Gliding A Certificate Show Answers:

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