Immediate Action Exams

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Immediate Action Exams
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2009-11-27 16:44:44
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F/A-18
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  1. ABORT

    *1. Throttles-Idle

    *2. Speed Brakes- As desired

    *3. Brakes- Apply

    *4. Stick - Aft below 100kts (if required)

    *5.Hook Handle- Down (if required)
  2. OCF RECOVERY

    *1. Controls- release, feet off rudder pedals, Speed Brakes check in

    If still out-of-control -
    *2. Throttles-Idle

    *3.Alt, AOA, A/S and Yaw Rate - Check

    If command arrow present -
    *4. Lateral stick - full with Arrow

    When command arrow removed -
    *5. Lateral Stick - Smoothly Neutral

    When recovery indicated by AOA and yaw rate
    tones removed, side forces subsided, and
    airspeed accelerating above 180 KCAS -
    *6. Recover

    Passing 6,000 feet AGL, dive recovery not
    initiated -
    *7. Eject
  3. LOSS OF DIRECTIONAL CONTROL DURING TAKEOFF
    OR LANDING (BLOWN TIRE, NWS FAILURE) / PLANING LINK FAILURE
    If detected after touchdown and flyaway airspeed available –
    *1. Go Around

    If flyaway airspeed not available –
    *1. Select Emergency Brakes (if appropriate)

    *2. Hook Handle- Down (if required)
  4. LOSS OF CABIN PRESSURIZATION
    OBOGS Aircraft –
    *1. Emergency Oxygen Green Ring(s)- Pull

    *2. Oxy Flow Knob- Off

    ALL Aircraft

    *3. Initiate Rapid Descent Below 10,000' Cabin Altitude
  5. HYPOXIA / LOW MASK FLOW / NO MASK FLOW

    *1. Emergency Oxygen Green Ring(s)- Pull

    *2. Oxy Flow Knob / Oxygen Supply Lever- Off

    *3. Initiate rapid descent to below 10,000' cabin altitude
  6. Normal brake pressure is supplied by ________ I-2-66
    HYD 2A
  7. Emergency brake pressure is supplied by ________. I-2-67
    HYD 2B
  8. The hydraulic system contains a pressure regulating system that
    maintains about _______. I-2-42
    3000 psi
  9. The RLS system shuts off, and re-opens appropriate hyd systems
    when the HYD reservoir fluid levels reach %, %, and %
    of full. I-2-42
    60,32,4
  10. T / F In flight with an APU ACCUM caution not related to emergency gear/probe extension or APU start, do not select ­­­­HYD ISO ORIDE as this may result in additional loss of HYD 2B fluid. V-12-8
    True
  11. What may a BRK ACCUM caution in flight indicate?
    ____________________________________ V-12-12
    Brake accumulator pressure is low and may not be able to have emergency brakes
  12. A L or R BOOST LO caution associated with GEN, and both HYD circuit cautions, may indicate what?. _____________ V-12-12
    Power Transmission Shaft failure (PTS)
  13. With one engine failed, maintain engine with operating HYD system at or above ____% when practical to avoid going into MECH. V-16-3
    85%
  14. Aside from the primary flight controls, name five systems that HYD2 provides hydraulic power for?
    1. __________________ 2. ____________________
    3. __________________ 4. ____________________
    5. __________________ I-2-44
    Hook, Gun, Speed Brake, Refueling Probe, Main Gear, Nose Gear, NWS, Launch Bar, Brake, Emergency Brakes, Anti-Skid, APU Accumulator, Brake Accumulator, APU Start
  15. How many Hydraulic Filters ( P’s) are there in each wheel well? _______ I-2-42
    Three
  16. Below ______ psi, a circuit pressure switch causes the MASTER CAUTION Light and the appropriate HYD caution displayed on the DDI. I-2-42
    1500 psi
  17. How many applications of the Emergency Brakes do you have if the Brake Accumulator is at 2000psi? ____ I-2-67
    Five, it is a warning that that there are five full brake applications remaining before BRK ACCUM caution is displayed on the LDDI
  18. T / F The aircraft is uncontrollable with HYD1A, HYD2A, HYD2B failures. V-15-12
    False it is HYD1A or HYD2B only
  19. APU FIRE LIGHT
    INFLIGHT or on GROUND

    *1. APU fire Light - Push

    *2. Fire Extiguish Ready Light- Push

    GROUND

    *3. Throttles- Off
  20. DUAL L BLEED and R BLEED WARNING LIGHTS /
    L/R ATS CAUTION / DUAL L/R BLD OFF CAUTION

    IN FLIGHT

    *1. Throttles- Min Practical

    OBOGS Aircraft -
    *2. Emergency Oxygen Green Ring(s)- Pull

    All Aircraft -
    *3. Bleed Air Knob- Off (do not cycle)

    *4. Initiate rapid descent to below 10,000' cabin altitude
  21. SINGLE L BLEED or R BLEED WARNING LIGHT

    IN FLIGHT

    *1. Throttle affected engine- Idle

    *2. Bleed Air Knob- (L) off / (R) off (do not cycle)

    If light still on, do the following in order until light goes out -
    *3. Throttle affected engine- Off

    OBOGS Aircraft –
    *4. Emergency Oxygen Green Ring(s)- Pull

    All Aircraft -
    *5. Bleed Air Knob- Off (Do not Cycle)

    *6. Initiate rapid descent to below 10,000' cabin altitude
  22. FIRE LIGHT
    GROUND
    *1. Throttles- Off

    *2. Fire light affected engine- Push

    *3. Fire extiguish ready light- Push

    4. Batt Switch- Off
  23. INFLIGHT
    Dual FIRE lights -
    *1. Throttles- Min Practical

    Single FIRE light or Dual when side confirmed -
    *2. Throttle affected engine- Off

    *3. Fire light affected engine- Push

    *4. Fire extinguish ready light- push

    *5. Hook Handle- Down
  24. ENGINE CAUTIONS/ ENGINE STALL
    L/R EGT HIGH, L/R FLAMEOUT, L/R IN TEMP (IN FLIGHT),
    L/R OIL PR, L/ R OVRSPD, and L/R STALL

    *1. Throttle affected engine- idle
  25. HOT START
    If EGT climbs rapidly through 750˚ C -
    *1. Throttle affected engine- Off
  26. SINGLE ENGINE FAILURE IN LANDING CONFIGURATION

    *1. Throttles- MIL or MAX

    *2. Flap Switch- Half

    *3. Maintain On-speed AOA and Balanced Flight
  27. What two fuel valves close when an engine fire light is pressed.
    I-2-16 _____________________________
    Engine feed shutoff valve and Engine crossfeed valve
  28. Which one of the following caution and advisory displays will not activate the “engine left / right” voice alert? I-2-8

    a. L or R Overspeed
    b. L or R EGT HIGH
    c. L or R BOOST LO
    d. L or R OIL PR
    L or R Boost LO caution
  29. T/F The internal wing tanks contain foam for fire/explosion protection. I-2-10
    True
  30. Attempting to restart an engine that has flamed out for no apparent reason may result in what? V-15-5 _______________________
    Engine Bay Fire or Fuel Leak
  31. A lockup device in the main fuel control prevents thrust reduction below military if aircraft speed is _____________. I-2-2
    1.23 MACH or higher
  32. To prevent running engagements during APU coast-down and to
    prevent APU exhaust torching, a minimum of minutes must
    elapse between APU shutdown and another APU start. III-7-15
    2 minutes
  33. Actuation of the engine crank switch above ____% rpm may shear
    the air turbine starter shaft. I-2-3
    30%
  34. An AMAD caution indicates what: ___________________ I-2-28
    Designated AMAD oil tempature is to high
  35. An AMAD PR caution indicates what: _______________ I-2-28
    Loss of designated AMAD oil pressure
  36. Max N2:102%
    Ground Idle (400):61-72%
    Flight Idle:68-73%
    Max N2 fluctuation stabilized power:+/-1%
    Ground Idle Oil Pressure (warm oil):45-110 psi
    Inflight Idle Oil Pressure:55-110psi
    Mil power Oil Pressure:95-180psi
    For ambient air temp. above 0 degrees F, Oil pressure must peak
    below 180 and start to decrease within 30 sec after reaching idle
    RPM, and continue to decrease to steady-state limits.
  37. FLIGHT CONTROL CAUTIONS
    DEL ON, MECH ON

    *1. Speed Brake- Check In

    *2. Slowly Decelerate to below 400kts or .80 MACH
  38. FLAPS OFF CAUTION

    *1. Maintain airspeed above 300kts and balanced flight
  39. DOUBLE GENERATOR OR DOUBLE TRANSFORMER-RECTIFIER FAILURE
    If BATT SW caution light not on –
    *1. Batt Switch- Oride
  40. With generator switch in NORM, at approximately what % N-2 does the Generator turn on? ____ % I-2-30
    approx. 60% engine RPM
  41. A ground engine start without the parking brake set results in illumination of the _______________ caution. I-2-31
    GEN TIE caution and requires cycling of the generator tie control switch to reset the bus isolation circuitry
  42. T / F With a single transformer-rectifier failure, no cockpit warning is provided. I-2-31
    True
  43. When the U Batt charge falls below _____ volts for ____ sec, the E BATT automatically takes over the essential 24/28 DC bus. I-2-35
    20.5 volts for 0.5 secs
  44. The battery automatically cuts off after ____minutes once internal or external power is removed and battery switch is ON.
    I-2-35
    5 minutes
  45. Starting on the left and going counter-clockwise, name the eight circuit breakers in order. I-2-37
    1. _______________ 5. _______________
    2. _______________ 6. _______________
    3. _______________ 7. _______________ 4. _______________ 8. _______________
    Speed Brake and Launch Bar, FCS 2, FCS 1, FCS 3, FCS 4, Hook and Landing Gear
  46. How can you recognize dual generator failure? _______________. V-15-16
    Failure of both Generators can be recgonized by the loss of all displays
  47. T / F A Double Generator failure may be caused by a fault within the radar. In this case the generators will not reset until the radar is turned OFF. V-15-19
    True
  48. With a Double Gen or Double TR Fail, the U BATT and E BATT will provided limited DC power for about _______minutes. V-15-19
    About 20 minutes
  49. T / F With Both TR’s Inoperative, Both Gen’s Operative and Batteries in a High State of Charge, you should still have a TACAN. V-15-23
    False you lose TACAN
  50. The AMAD can operate for _____minutes after loss of oil without catastrophic failure, but the generator will fail ________ after loss of oil. V-15-26
    30 minutes but generator will fail shortly after loss of oil
  51. How can you recognize dual transformer-rectifier failure? _______________________________________________________. V-15-19
    Loss of HUD, Bleed Air System, FCS channels 3 and 4 and FC AIR DAT caution
  52. LOSS OF CABIN PRESSURIZATION
    OBOGS Aircraft –
    *1. Emergency Oxygen Green Ring(s)- Pull

    *2. Oxy Flow Knob- Off
    ALL Aircraft

    *3. Initaite rapid descent below 10,000' cabin altitue
  53. The aircraft may be uncontrollable on which single hydraulic circuits? _______________. V-15-12
    HYD 1A or HYD 2A
  54. True/False: If the right engine is being rotated with crossbleed to provide normal systems operation and fuel flow on the left engine is reduced below 2,000 pph (as during landing) the right engine hydraulic pump may not provide sufficient flow for NWS and normal brakes. V-15-3
    True
  55. What two methods may be used to retain both hydraulic systems if the engine core is rotating: V-15-3
    Crossbleed or APU Start
  56. The HYD 2 priority valves close at approximately _______psi.
    I-2-42
    2,200 psi
  57. The hydraulic pumps are located on the _______________ and maintain the hydraulic pressure at approximately ___________psi.
    I-2-42
    L and R AMAD and 3000 psi
  58. The engine accessory gearbox, driven by the compressor rotor powers I-2-1 _________,_____________ , ___________, _____________ and ____________.
    lubercation and scavenage oil pumps, variable exhaust nozzle power unit, alternator, main fuel pump and control, and afternburner fuel pump and control
  59. True/False: V-15-5 If an engine stall does not clear itself, a prompt chop to idle may clear it
    True
  60. Each AMAD mechanically drives a ________,_________, and ___________. I-2-27
    Generator, Hydraulic pump, fuel pump
  61. True/False: If a stalled engine will not clear, you should shut down the engine and attempt a restart. V-15-5
    True
  62. What airspeed may be required to maintain 12% windmilling rpm? __________ V-15-5
    350 kts or greater
  63. True/False: The most probable source of visible smoke or fumes in the cockpit is from the engine bleed or residual oil in the ECS ducts. V-15-30
    True
  64. What failures will illuminate the emergency instrument light and the BATT SW caution light? I-2-40 __________________________________
    Double Generator or Double Transformer Rectifier Failure has occured
  65. What does the BATT SW light coming on in the air with the battery switch on indicate? I-2-36 _________________________________
    That the essential bus is energized bybattery power (dbl Gen / dbl TR) and that the battery energy should be conserved
  66. True/False: With both generators inoperative and good batteries, your hydraulic pressure indicator will be inoperative. V-15-22
    True
  67. On aircraft with CG control, if tank 4 fuel transfer fails tank 1 will not transfer fuel until the ___ ____ caution comes on. I-2-12
    Lo Fuel
  68. On deck, what may the pilot need to do with high ambient temperature and low fuel flow (idle rpm) to help prevent a FUEL HOT caution? _________________________ I-2-16/17
    Increase Fuel Flow
  69. List 4 events that will cause fuel dumping to cease: I-2-17
    1. ____________________________________
    2. ____________________________________
    3. ____________________________________
    4. ____________________________________
    • 1. Off selected on the Fuel Dump Switch
    • 2. The BINGO caution comes on
    • 3. Tanks 1 and 4 are empty
    • 4. Either engine feed tank drops below 800 plus/minus 100 (fuel Lo) caution regardless of total internal fuel
  70. When the fuel level in either feed tank drops to __________ LBS a FUEL LO light on the caution lights panel comes on. I-2-17
    800 plus/minus 100lbs
  71. A FUEL Advisory will appear on the DDI if any of the following cautions do not appear within 15 seconds after initiating FUEL quantity BIT: ____________________________________. I-2-19
    FUEL LO, BINGO, or CG
  72. Fuel dump rate is _____________lbs/min. I-2-17
    600 to 1000lbs a minute
  73. L/R BOOST LO caution, L/R AMAD caution, Fuel LO caution
    may all be indications of what? _________________. V-15-15
    Fuel Leak
  74. What is the max capacity of each fuel tank (using JP5): I-2-23/201
    Tank 1: 2800 (A/C) 2100 (B/D)
    Tank 2: 1800lbs
    Tank 3: 1400lbs
    Tank 4: 3600lbs
    Wing tanks: 580lbs each side
  75. Normal internal fuel transfer is accomplished by ______________.
    I-2-11
    • Ejector pumps powered by motive flow A/B
    • Motive flow powered by ejector pumps in the internal wing tanks and turbine-driven pumps in tanks 1 and 4. C/D
  76. The fuel recirculation system cools what? I-2-16
    1. _______________________________
    2. _______________________________
    AMAD Accessories and HYD 1 /2 hydraulic oil
  77. What is the primary and two backup modes of the flight control system? I-2-43
    a. _______ b. ________ c. ________
    • CAS - Control Augmentation System
    • DEL - Direct Electric Link
    • MECH - Mechanical Link
  78. What does pressing the T/O trim button in-flight do? I-2-47___________________________________________________
    Neutralizes MECH stick position
  79. Rudder toe-in/toe-out is a function of ______ with maximum toe-in_______. I-2-53
    AOA and 30 degrees at low AOA (less than 2 degrees) or WOW and decreases proportionally thru 0 degrees to 15 degrees toe out at 11 AOA
  80. T/F. The FCS I-BIT cannot be performed with nose wheel steering engaged. I-2-171
    TRUE
  81. During BEFORE TAXI checks, if a TRIM advisory does not appear when the T.O. trim button is pressed, what action should the pilot take? ___________________III-7-20
    Abort Mission
  82. For post departure dive recovery, minimum altitude loss is achieved by advancing throttles to MAX and maintaining what AOA? ______ IV-11-10
    25 to 35 AOA until positive rate of climb is established
  83. T/F During recovery from a fully developed spin, full lateral stick should be maintained in the direction of the command arrow until the arrow disappears. IV-11-14
    True
  84. Takeoff with any ______ axis failed
    CAS
  85. Full or partial lateral stick and/or rudder pedal input over ____ ° roll/yaw.
    360 degrees
  86. Negative g for more than ____ seconds (with AFC 053).
    10 sec
  87. Pulling any __________ in flight except as directed in NATOPS
    FCS circuit Breaker
  88. Selection of gain ORIDE above ______ knots/ Mach ______ or above ______ ° AOA
    350 kts, 1.0 MACH, 10 AOA
  89. What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and flared landings? ______ kts.
    30 kts
  90. What is the maximum crosswind component for section landing/takeoffs and normal landings? ______ kts.
    15 kts
  91. Leading edge deflections of the inboard / outboard LEF beyond the 4 degrees over-travel stop may result in an uncontrollable configuration below ______ knots.
    250 kts
  92. CG Limitations:
    Forward CG:17% MAC
    Aft Limit:
    FE Config:28%MAC
    All other :27-28% MAC
  93. Landing Gear Warning Lights/Tone will go off if the aircraft it below ______kts, altitude less than ____ft, and rate of descent greater than _____feet per minute. I-2-65
    175 kts, 7500ft, 250fpm
  94. T/F Anti-skid is completely inoperative below 35 knots. 1-2-67
    Locked wheel protection circuit is disabled at 35% and the anti-skid system is totally disabled below 10kts
  95. ANTI SKID caution will not reappear and brakes may not be available for ____ seconds after cycling the anti-skid switch in flight or _____seconds during landing rollout, until BIT is complete. I-2-67
    13.5 inflight and 9.5 during landing rollout
  96. In LOX aircraft and under less optimal conditions, (low altitude, heavy breathing, loose fitting mask, etc.) as few as _____ minutes of emergency oxygen may be available. In OBOGS equipped aircraft as few as_____ minutes may be available. I-2-155/159
    • LOX 1.5 mins
    • OBOGS 3 mins
  97. On deck, if AV AIR HOT caution on for more than ­­­___ minutes, do not takeoff. V-12-10
    3 minutes
  98. Name 4 systems you lose with both BLD OFF cautions on:
    V-12-11
    No OBOGS, NO ECS or cabin pressurization, No anti-g protection, No external fuel transfer, No engine crossbleed, No throttle boost
  99. Max engagement speed for E-28 arresting gear is ___ knots groundspeed. V-16-19
    175 kts GS / 40ft of centerline
  100. Gear extension / retraction: ______ kts
    250 kts
  101. Emergency gear extension: _____ kts (If practical)
    160 kts
  102. Tires Speed: Nose ______ kts Main ______ kts
    190 ktsGS / 210 ktsGS
  103. What does a TANK PRESS HI caution display on the DDI indicate? I-2-11
    a. On the ground: _____________________________
    b. Inflight: ___________________________________
    • Ground- Internal fuel tank pressurized
    • In-flight- Internal tank pressure high
  104. TRUE/FALSE (F/A-18A), I-2-13 TRUE/FALSE (F/A-18C/D): With external tank control switch in stop transfer and hook handle down, fuel will transfer when the FUEL LO caution display comes on
    True
  105. How is a limited amount of fuel provided for negative G or inverted flight? I-2-16 _______________________
    Negative G baffles in the feed tanks provide limited fuel supply during negative G or inverted flight.
  106. True/False: I-2-17 The fuel low level indicating system is completely independent of the fuel quantity indicating system
    True
  107. How much has the fuel quantity in tank 1 been reduced in the F/A-18D aircraft? I-2-202 ____________.
    700 lbs
  108. What is the internal fuel capacity of the F/A-18D? I-2-203 _______lbs JP-5
    Approx. 10,100 lbs
  109. True/False: : I-2-16 Gravity fuel flow is sufficient to sustain minimum afterburner operation.
    False
  110. True/False: V-15-16 If tank 1 fails to transfer, as much as 700 lbs of fuel, it may not be usable for approach and landing
    true
  111. All external tanks can be pressurized any time by placing either external tank fuel control switch to _______________. I-2-13
    ORIDE
  112. What is the FCS reset button used for? I-2-47 _____________________________________________________
    It is used to reset the flight controls after a transient malfunction
  113. True/False: Failure of FCS channels 1 and 3 will not affect the flying qualities of the aircraft. V-15-36
    True
  114. True/False: Once EMERG has been selected on FCS COOL switch, selection of NORM will switch FCC A and right TR cooling back to avionics air. I-1-141
    False
  115. With the spin switch in NORM, when will the spin recovery mode be activated? I-2-49 _______________,______________,______________
    • Airspeed 120 plus/minus 15kts
    • Sustained uncommanded yaw rate
    • Stick is placed in the direction indicated on the DDI spin recovery display
  116. Lateral Weight Asymmetry Limitations 1-4-6
    1. Field takeoff:22,000ft-lbs.
    2. Inflight:26,000ft-lbs.
    3. FCLP or carrier landing:17,00ft-lbs < 33,000lbs gross wieght.
    4. Field landing (flared) up to 500 fpm sink rate:26,000ft-lbs.
    Lateral weight asymmetry AOA limitation:
    5. With 6,000-12,000 ft-lbs (>0.8 IMN) , AOA limit is:-6 to 20 AOA
    6. With 12,000-26,000 ft- lbs, AOA limit is:-6 to 12 AOA .
  117. Bank angle limits with flaps at half or full:1-4-5
    1. FE configuration:over 90 degrees.
    2. FE configuration with centerline tank/stores:over 60 degrees.
    3. All other configurations: over 45 degrees.
  118. True/False: To extend the landing gear by the emergency method, the gear handle must be in the down position. I-2-65
    False can be done with the gear handle in the up or down position
  119. True/False: The hook light remains on except when the hook is up and latched. I-2-69
    False the hook light remains on when the hook and the hook handle position disagree
  120. True/False: The aft cockpit does not have an internal canopy switch or an internal manual canopy handcrank. I-2-202
    Ture but does have a canopy jettison handle
  121. True/False: There are no provisions for normal landing gear extension from the rear cockpit. I-2-206
    False there is a emergency landing gear handle in rear cockpit
  122. True/False: F/A-18 aerodynamic braking is recommended.
    III-7-28
    False
  123. True/False: Antiskid is not available with rear cockpit emergency brake handle in the emergency position. I-2-68
    True
  124. If the cabin temperature knob is full clockwise with the cabin temperature switch in MAN, cockpit temperature can reach as high as _______F. V-15-29
    190 degrees F
  125. True / False: A flashing NWS cue indicates failed nosewheel steering. V-15-60
    False does not mean there is a NWS failure it flashes to indicate that MC1 has failed or you have a HYD 2A or HYD 2B failure

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