A&P 202 Exam 3 Study Guide

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A&P 202 Exam 3 Study Guide
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2012-10-26 00:06:06
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Respiratory System Digestive
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Respiratory System, Digestive System
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  1. What is defined as movementof air into and outof the lungs?
    Pulumonary Ventilation (breathing)
  2. What is defined as O2 and CO2 exchange between the lungs and the blood?
    External Respiration
  3. What is defined as O2 and CO2 in  the blood?
    Transport
  4. What is defined as  O2 and CO2 exchange between systemic blood vessels and tissues?
    Internal Respiration
  5. What are the 4 processes of respiration?
    • Pulumonary Ventilation (breathing)
    • External Respiration
    • Transport
    • Internal Respiration
  6. Respiratory Zone OR Conducting Zone?
    Which zone is the site of gas exchange?
    Respiratory zone
  7. Respiratory Zone OR Circulatory Zone?
    Which zone is made up of microscopic structures such as: respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli?
    Respiratory Zone
  8. The respiratory zone is made up of which 3 microscopic structures?
    • Respiratory bronchioles
    • Alveolar ducts
    • Alveoli
  9. Respiratory Zone OR Circulatory Zone?
    Which zone conduits to gas exchange sites?
    Conducting zone
  10. Respiratory Zone OR Circulatory Zone?
    Which zone contains all respiratory structures except of the microscopic sturctures such as: respiratorybronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveoli?
    Circulatory Zone
  11. Which muscles are made up of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles that promote ventilation?
    Respiratory Muscles
  12. Which body structure functions to provide an airway for respiration?
    The nose
  13. Which body structure functions in moistening and warming the entering air?
    The nose
  14. Which body structure functions in filtering inspired air and cleaning it of foreign matter?
    The nose
  15. Which body structure functions in serving as a resonating chamber for speech?
    The nose
  16. Which body structure functions in housing the olfactory receptors?
    The nose
  17. What are the 5 main functions of the nose?
    • Providing an airway for respiration.
    • Moistening and warming the entering air.
    • Filtering inspired air and cleaning it of foreign matter.
    • Serving as a resonating chamber for speech.
    • Housing the olfactory receptors.
  18. What are the glands  that secrete mucus containing lysozyme and defensins to help destroy bacteria?
    Respiratory mucosa
  19. When do sentitive mucosa trigger sneezing?
    When they're stimulated by irritating particles
  20. What do sensitive mucosa trigger when they are stimulated by irratating particles?
    Sneezing
  21. During inhalation, what do the conchae and nasal mucosa do?
    They filter, heat, and moisten the air.
  22. During exhalation, what 2 things do the conchae and nasal mucosa do?
    • Reclaim heat and moisture.
    • Minimize heat and moisture loss.
  23. Whcih 2 structurs of the body filter, heat, and moisten air during inhalation AND reclaim heat and moisture  and minimize heat and moisture loss during exhalation?
    • Nasal mucosa
    • Conchae
  24. What are the 4 sinuses in the bones that surround the nasal cavity (parasanal sinuses)?
    • Front
    • Sphenoid
    • Ethmmoid
    • Maxillary
  25. What lighten the skull and help to warm and moisten the air?
    Sinuses
  26. What 3 regions is the phaynx divided into?
    • Nasopharynx
    • Oropharynx
    • Layngopharynx
  27. What is located from the base of the skull to the level of the sixth cervical vertebra?
    The pharynx
  28. Which region of the pharynx lies posterior to the nasal cavity?
    Nasophaynx
  29. Which region of the pharynx is stictly an air passageway?
    Nasophaynx
  30. Which region of the pharynx closes during swallowing to prevent food from entering the nasal cavity?
    Nasopharynx
  31. Which region of the pharynx contains the pharyngeal tonsils (andenoids)?
    Nasopharynx
  32. Which tonsils lie on the high posterior wall of the nasophaynx?
    Pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)
  33. What structurs open into the lateral walls of the naopharynx?
    Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tubes
  34. Pharyngotympanic (auditory) tubes are found in which region of the phaynx?
    Nasopharynx
  35. Which region of the pharynx extends inferiorly from the level of the soft palate to the epiglottis?
    Oropharynx
  36. Which region of the pharynx serves as a common passageway for food and air?
    Oropharynx
  37. Which region of the pharynx contains the palatine tonsils?
    Oropharynx
  38. Which tonsils lie in the lateral walls of the fauces (latin for throat) of the oropharynx?
    Palatine tonsils
  39. Which region of the pharynx contains the lingual tonsils?
    Oropharynx
  40. Which tonsils covers the base of the tongue?
    Lingual tonsils
  41. Which region of the pharynx serves as a common passageway for food and air?
    Laryngophaynx
  42. Which region of the pharynx lies posterior to the upright epiglottis?
    Laryngopharynx
  43. Which region in the body attaches to the hypoid bone?
    Laynx (voice box)
  44. Which region of the body is known as the voice box?
    Larynx
  45. Is the larynx continuous with trachea anteriorly OR posteriorly?
    Posteriorly
  46. What are the 3 functions of the laynx?
    • To provide a patent airway.
    • To route air and food into the proper channels.
    • To function in voice production.
  47. Which region of the body functions to provide a patent airway?
    The larynx (voice box)
  48. Which region of the body functions to route air and food into the propel channels?
    The larynx (voice box)
  49. Which region of the body functions mainly in voice production?
    The larynx (voice box)
  50. What is the elastic cartilage that covers the laryngeal inlet during swallowing?
    Epiglottis
  51. Which vocal ligaments are known as the true vocal cords?
    Vocal folds
  52. What is the opening between the vocal folds?
    The glottis
  53. What is the function of the vocal folds when they vibrate?
    When folds vibrate, they produce sound as air rushes up from the lungs.
  54. Which vocal ligaments are also known as the vesibular fold?
    False vocal cords
  55. Are the false vocal cords (mucosal folds) superior OR inferior to the true vocal cords?
    Superior
  56. Which vocal ligaments have no part in the sound production?
    False vocal cords (vestibular fold)
  57. Which vocal ligaments vibrate to produce sound as air rushes up from the lungs?
    Vocal folds (true vocal cords)
  58. Which vocal ligaments are sometimes referred to as ventricular folds?
    False vocal chords (vestibular fold)
  59. What is defined as intermittent release of expired air while opening and closing the glottis?
    Speech
  60. What is determined by the length and tension of the vocal chords?
    Pitch
  61. What depends upon te force at which the air rushes across the vocal chords?
    Loudness
  62. Chambers of which cavities amplify and enhance sound quality?
    Chambers of the pharynx, oral, nasal, and sinus cavities.
  63. Chambers of the pharynx, oral, and nasal, and sinus cavities _____ and ______ sound quality.
    Amilify and enhance
  64. Sound is "shaped into language by the action of which 4 body structures?
    • Pharynx
    • Tongue
    • Soft palate
    • Lips
  65. When is the larynx closed?
    During coughing, sneezing, and Valsalva's maneuver
  66. Is the larynx open OR closed during coughing, sneezing, and Valsalva's maneuver?
    Closed
  67. What is it when air is temporarily held in the lower respiratory tract by closing the glottis?
    Valsalva's maneuver
  68. What causes intra-abdominal pressure to rise when abdominal muscles contract?
    Valsalva's maneuver
  69. What is a function of the larynx and also helps to empty the rectum? 
    Valsava's maneuver
  70. What acts as a spint to stabalize the trunk when linfiting heavy loads?
    Valsalva's maneuver
  71. What is used as an orthopedic test for herniated discs?
    Valsalva's maneuver
  72. Valsalva's maneuver is used an orthopedic test for what?
    Herniated discs
  73. Which structure of the body is a flexible and mobile tube extending from the larynx into the mediastinum?
    The trachea
  74. What are the 3 layers the trachea is composed of?
    • Mucosa
    • Submucosa
    • Adventitia
  75. Which part of the trachea connects posterior parts of cartilage rings?
    Trachealis muscle
  76. WWhich part of the trachea contracts during coughing to expel mucus?
    Trachealis muscle
  77. When does the trachealis muscle contract during to expel mucus?
    During coughing
  78. The trachealis muscle contracts during coughing to expel what?
    Muscus
  79. Which part of the trachea is the last tracheal cartilage?
    Carina
  80. Which part of the trachea is the point where the trachea branches into two bronchi?
    Carina
  81. Is the right or left bronchus wider?
    Right bronchus
  82. Is the right or left bronchus shorter?
    Right
  83. Is the right or left bronchus more verticle?
    Right
  84. Is the right or left bronchus thinner?
    Left
  85. Is the right or left bronchus taller?
    Left
  86. Are the main bronchi known as the primary, secondary OR tertiary bronchi?
    Primary
  87. Are the lobar bronchi known as the primary, secondary OR tertiary bronchi?
    Secondary
  88. What do each main bronchi branch into?
    Lobar (secondary) bronchi
  89. What does each lobar bronchus supply?
    One lobe of the lung
  90. How many lobes does the right lung have?
    3
  91. How many lobes does the left lung have?
    2
  92. What does each main bronchus enter the hilum of?
    One lung
  93. What structurs does the trachea branch off into? Be specific
    Right and left many (primary) bronchi
  94. Are the segmental bronchi known as the primary, secondary OR tertiary bronchi?
    Tertiary bronchi
  95. What does each lobar bronchus branch into?
    Segmental (tertiary) bronchi
  96. What is the size of bronchioles?
    Less than 1 mm in diameter
  97. Which bronchioles are the smallest?
    Terminal bronchioles
  98. How small are terminal bronchioles?
    Less than 0.5 mm in diameter
  99. What are the 3 structures are make up the respiratory zone?
    • Respiratory bronchioles
    • Alveolar ducts
    • Alveolar sacs (clusters of alveoli)
  100. Approximately how many alvelou account for most of the lungs' volume and are the main site for gas exchange?
    ~300 million
  101. Which structures in the respiratory zone are the main site for gas exchange?
    Alveoli
  102. Which structures in the respiratory zone provide tremendous surface area for gas exchange?
    Alveoli
  103. In the respiartory membrane, what are made up of a single layer of squamous epithelial cells?
    Alveolar walls
  104. In the respiratory membrane, what do type II cells secrete?
    Surfactant
  105. What reduce surface tension, preventing collapse of alveoli?
    Surfactant
  106. Do type I or type II cells in the respirsatory membrane secrete surfactant?
    Type II
  107. On the lungs, what is the cavity that accommodates the heart?
    Cardiac notch (impression)
  108. Is the right or left lung seperated into 2 lobes (upper and lower lobes) by the oblique fissure?
    Left lung
  109. Is the right or left lung seperated by 3 lobes by the oblique and horizontal fissues?
    Right
  110. What are the 2 circulations the lungs are perfused by?
    • Pulomonary
    • Bronchial
  111. Which vessels supply systemic venous blood to be oxygenated?
    Pulmonary arteries
  112. Which vessels carry oxygenated blood from the respiartory zones to the heart?
    Pulmonary veins
  113. Which vessels provide systemic blood to the lung tissue?
    Bronchial arteries
  114. Bronchial veins anastomose with which other vessels?
    Pulmonary veins
  115. Pulmonary veins anastomose with which other vessles?
    Bronchial veins
  116. What is made up of a thin, double layered serosa?
    Pleurae
  117. Would you find parietal or visceral pleura on the thoracic wall and superior face of the diaphragm?
    Parietal pluera
  118. Would you find parietal or visceral pleura on the external lung surface?
    Visceral pleura
  119. What fills the slitlike pleural cavity?
    Pleural fluid
  120. What provides lubrication and surface tension to the pleural cavity?
    Pleural fluid
  121. Pulmonary ventilation consists of which 2 phases?
    Inspiration and Expiration
  122. In which of the 2 phases consisted in pulmonary ventilation do gases flow into the lungs?
    Inspiration
  123. In which of the 2 phases consisted in pulmonary ventilation do gases exit the lungs?
    Expiration
  124. What is known as the pressue by the air surrounding the body?
    Atmospheric Pressure (Patm)
  125. What is the atmospheric pressure are sea level? (in mm Hg)
    760 mm Hg
  126. _____ respiratory pressure is less than Patm.
    Negative
  127. _____ respiratory pressure is greater than Patm.
    Positive
  128. _____ respiratory pressure is equal to Patm
    Zero
  129. What is known as the pressue in the alveoli?
    Intrapulmonary (intra-alveolar) pressue (Ppul)
  130. Does intrapulmonary pressure fluctuate with breathing?
    Yes
  131. Does intrapulmonary pressue always eventually equalize with Patm?
    Yes
  132. What is known as the pressue in the pleural cavity?
    Intrapleural pressue (Pip)
  133. Does intrapleural pressure fluctuate with breathing?
    YES
  134. Is intrapleural pressure always a positive OR negative pressure?
    Negative
  135. Is intrapleural pressure always greater than or less than Patm?
    Less than
  136. Is intrapleural pressure always greater than or less than Ppul?
    Less than
  137. What is caused by equalization of the intrapleural pressure with the intrapulmonary pressure?
    Lung collapse
  138. _____ pressure keeps the airways of the lungs open.
    Transpulmonary
  139. What is known as the difference between the intrapulmonary and intrapleural pressures? (Ppul-Pip)
    Transpulmonary pressure
  140. What is atelectasis?
    Lung collapse
  141. What 2 factors can cause atelectasis (lung collapse)?
    • Plugged bronchioles- collapse of alveoli.
    • Wound that admits air into the pleural cavity (pneumothorax)
  142. What is a mechanical process that depends on volume changes in the thoracic cavity?
    Pulmonary ventilation
  143. What do volume changes in the lungs cause?
    Pressure changes
  144. What do pressure changes in the lungs cause?
    Gases flow to equalize pressure
  145. Name the law: pressure of a gas in a closed container is inversely proportional to the volume of the container.
    Boyles Law
  146. Name the law: P1V1 = P2V2
  147. In boyles law, is pressure directly or inversely proportional to the volume?
    Inversely
  148. What is active process in which inspiratory muscles (diaphragm, external intercostals) contract?
    Inspiration
  149. Do the inspriatory muscles contract or relax during inspiration?
    Contract
  150. What are the 2 inspiratory muscles?
    • Diaphragm
    • External intercostals
  151. Which inspiratory muscle is responsible for 75% of air entering lungs during normal quiet breathing?
    Diaphragm
  152. Which inspriatory muscles are responsible for 25% of air entering lungs during normal quiet breathing?
    External intercostals
  153. During inspriation, does thoracic volume increase OR decrease?
    Increase
  154. Are the lungs stretched or compressed during inspriation?
    Stretched
  155. During inspriation, does the intrapulmonary volume increase or decrease?
    Increase
  156. During inspriation does intrapulmonary pressure rise OR drop?
    Drops to -1 mm Hg
  157. During inspiration, intrapulmonary pressure drops to what pressure (in mm Hg)
    -1 mm Hg
  158. During inspiration, air flows into the lungs, down its pressure gradient until the intrapulmonary pressure is equal to what?
    Atmospheric pressure (Patm)
  159. Is O2 or CO2 delivered to the tissue?
    O2
  160. Is O2 or CO2 picked up at the tissues?
    CO2
  161. Is O2 or CO2 delivered to the lungs?
    CO2
  162. Is O2 or CO2 picked up at the lungs?
    O2
  163. In higher altitudes, does pressure increase or decrease?
    Pressure decreases
  164. Is pneumothorax atelectasis?
    NO
  165. In which direction does the diaphragm move during inspriation? Up or down?
    Down, pushing the abdominal organs down
  166. Does the diaphragm push the abdominal organs up or down during inspiration?
    Down
  167. During inspiration, does the rib cage rise or fall?
    Rise
  168. During inspiration, does the thoracic cavity volume increase or decrease?
    Increase
  169. Is quiet expiration normally an active or passive process?
    Passive
  170. When do the inspiratory muscles relax?
    During expiration
  171. During expiration, do the inspiratory muscles contract or relax?
    Relax
  172. During expiration, does the thoracic cavity volume increase or decrease?
    Decrease
  173. During expiration, do elastic lungs recoil?
    YES
  174. During expiration, does the intrapulmonary volume increase or decrease?
    Decrease
  175. During expiration, does intrapulmonary pressure rise or drop?
    Rises to +1 mm Hg
  176. During expiration, what does the intrapulmonary pressure rise to? (in mm Hg)
    +1 mm Hg
  177. During expiration, air flows out of the lungs down its pressure gradient until the intrapulmonary pressure is equal to what?
    0
  178. Is forced expriation an active or passive process?
    Active
  179. Does expiration use the abdominal and intercoastal muscles?
    NO, but forced expiration does
  180. Does forced expiration use the abdominal and internal intercoastal muscles?
    YES, but normal expiration does NOT
  181. Which 2 muscles does forced expiration use?
    • Abdominal muscles
    • Internal intercoastals
  182. During expriation, does the rib cage expand or descend?
    Descends
  183. What are the 3 physical factors influencuing pulmonary ventilation?
    • Airway resistance
    • Alveolar surface tension
    • Lung compliance
  184. Inspriatory muscles consume energy to overcome three factors that hinder air passage and pulmonary ventilation. What are the 3 factors?
    • Airway resistance
    • Alveloar surface tension
    • Lung compliance
  185. Does breathing movements become more strenuous as airway resistance rises OR drops?
    Rises
  186. When can severely constricted or obstructed bronchioles occur?
    During acute asthma attacks, which stops ventilation
  187. Does epinephrine released via the sympathetic nervouse system dilate or constrict the bronchiols?
    Dilates
  188. Does epinephrine released via the sympathetic nervouse system increase or reduce air resistance?
    Reduces
  189. What is known as the attraction of liquid molecules to one another at a liquid-gas interface?
    Surface tension
  190. The liquid coating the alveolar surface is always acting to do what to the alveoli?
    Reduce the alveloi to the smallest possible size
  191. What is adetergent-like complex, reduces alveolar surface tension and helps keep alveoli from collapsing?
    Surfactant
  192. What does insuffiencient quantity in premature infants cause?
    Infant Respiratory Distress Syndrome (IRDS)
  193. What is known as the ease with which lungs can be expanded (distensiblility)?
    Lung compliance
  194. Lung compliance can be diminished by what 3 things?
    • Nonelastic scar tissue (fibrosis)
    • Reduced production of surfactant
    • Decreased flexibility of the thoracic cage
  195. What are 3 homeostatic imbalances that reduce lung compliance?
    • Deformities of thorax.
    • Ossification of the costal cartilage.
    • Paralysis of intercoastal muscles.
  196. What are 4 things used to asses a person's respiratory status?
    • Tidal volume (TV) – normal is ~500ml
    • Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
    • Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
    • Residual volume (RV)
  197. What is the value of  the average tidal volume in both males and females?
    ~500 mL
  198. Whcih respiratory volume is known as the amount of air inhaled or exhaled with each breath under resting conditions?
    Tidal volume
  199. What are the 4 types of respiratory capacities?
    • Inspriatory capacity (IC)
    • Functional residual capacity (FRC)
    • Vital capacity (VC)
    • Total lung capacity (TLC)
  200. Why is it harder to breath in higher altitudes than lower altitudes?
    Because atmospheric pressure drops
  201. Does pressure move from high pressure to low pressure OR from low pressure to high pressure?
    High pressure to low pressure
  202. What is known as the maximum amount of air contained in the lungs after a maximum inspiratory effort?
    Total lung capacity (TLC)
  203. What is the total lung capacity equal to?
    TLC= TV+IRV+ERV+RV
  204. Does all inspired air contribute to gas exchange?
    NO
  205. About what % of tidal volume reaches the respiratory zone?
    70%
  206. About what % of tidal volume remains in the conducting zone?
    30%
  207. What is known as the conducting airways with air that does not undergo respiratory gas exchange?
    Anatomic (respiratory) dead space
  208. What is the approximate volume of anatomic (respiratory) dead space?
    ~150 mL
  209. What is known as alveolo that cease to act in gas exchange due to collapse or obstruction?
    Alveolar dead space
  210. What is known as the sum of anatomic and alveolar dead space volumes?
    Total dead space
  211. What is known as the volume of air per minute that actually reaches respiratory zone?
    Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)
  212. Does slow, deep breathing increase or decrease alveolar ventilation rate?
    Increases
  213. Does rapid, shallow breathing increase or decrease alveolar ventilation rate?
    Decreases
  214. What is an instrument used to measure respiratory volumes and capacities?
    Spirometer
  215. Spirometry can be distinguished between what 2 diseases/disorders?
    • Obststructive pulmonary diease
    • Restrictive disorders
  216. Increased air resistance is a part of which kind of disease/disorder?
    Obstructive pulmonary disease
  217. What is an example of an obstructive pulmonary disease?
    Chronic bronchitis
  218. What kind of diease/disorder can be caused by the resudction in total lung capacity due to structural or functional lung changes?
    Restrictive disorders
  219. What is an example of a restrictive disorder?
    Fibrosis OR TB
  220. Which law states total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture?
    Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures
  221. Does Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures state that total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases is the sum OR difference of the pressures exerted independently by each gas in the mixture?
    Sum of the pressures
  222. The partial pressure of each gas is directly proportional to its _____ in the mixture.
    Percentage
  223. Whcih law states that the partial pressure of each gas is directly proportional to its percentage in the mixture?
    Dalton's Law of Partial Pressures
  224. Whcih law states that when a mixture of gases is incontact with a liquid, each gas will dissolve in the liquid in proportion toits partial pressure?
    Henry's law
  225. Which law states that the amount of gasthat will dissolve in a liquid also depends upon its solubility?
    Henry's law
  226. Henry's law states that the amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid also depends upon its solublity. Which gas is the most soluble?
    CO2
  227. Henry's law states that the amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid also depends upon its solublity. Which gas is 1/20th as soluble as carbon dioxide?
    O2
  228. Henry's law states that the amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid also depends upon its solublity. Which gas is practically insoluble in plasma?
    Nitrogen
  229. What is known as the amount of gas reaching the alveoli?
    Ventilation
  230. What is known as the blood flow reaching the alveoli?
    Perfusion
  231. Do ventilation and perfuse have to be matched (coupled) for efficient gas exchange?
    YES
  232. Molecular oxygen is carried in the blood and is bound to ____ within red blood cells.
    Hemoglobin (Hb)
  233. Molecular oxygen is carried in the blood and is dissolved in _____.
    Plasma
  234. Each Hb molecule binds to how many oxygen atoms? Is this process reversible or irreversible?
    4 O2 atoms; the process is reversible
  235. Each red blood cells has approximately how many hemoglobin molecules?
    ~270 million
  236. What is the hemoglobin-oxygen combination called?
    Oxyhemoglobin (HbO2)
  237. What is it called when all 4 hemes of the molecule are bound to oxygen?
    Saturated hemoglobin
  238. What is it called when one to three hemes are bound to oxygen?
    partially saturated hemoglobin
  239. The arte of loading and unloading O2 is regulated by which 4 main factors?
    • PO2
    • Temperature
    • Blood pH
    • PCO2
  240. O2 unloading takes place as concentration of O2 increases OR decreases?
    decreases
  241. An increase in O2 loading will take place as the temperature increases OR decreases?
    Increases
  242. An increase in O2 loading takes place as H+ increase OR decrease?
    Increase
  243. Des increase in O2 unloading take place as pH rises or drops?
    Drops
  244. Does an increase in O2 loading take place as aciditiy increases OR decreases?
    Increases
  245. Does an increases in O2 unloading take place as concentration of CO2 increases OR decreases?
    Increases
  246. Only what % of bound oxygen is unloaded during one systemic circulation?
    20-25%
  247. Does O2 dissociate from hemoglobin and is used by cells when oxygen levels in tissues rise OR drop?
    Drops
  248. Which homeostatic imblance is an inadequate O2 delivery to tissues?
    Hypoxia
  249. Hypoxia can be due to which 6 causes?
    • Too few RBCs
    • Abnormal or too little Hb
    • Blocked circulation
    • Metabolic poisons
    • Pulmonary disease
    • Carbon monoxide
  250. What is a vasodialator that plays a role in blood pressure regulation?
    Nitric Oxide (NO)
  251. Is nitric oxide a vasodilator or vasoconstrictor that plays a role in blood pressure regulation?
    Vasodilator
  252. What is a vasoconstrictor and a nitric oxide scavenger?
    Hemoglobin
  253. Is hemoglobin a vasodilator or vasoconstrictor?
    Vasoconstrictor
  254. Does nitric oxide destroy heme OR does heme destroy nitric oxide?
    Heme destroys nitric oxide
  255. As oxygen binds to a hemoglobin, what does the nitric oxide bind to on the hemoglobin?
    Cysteine amino acid
  256. What is bound nitric oxide on a cysteine amino acid (on hemoglobin) protected from?
    Degradation by hemoglobin's iron
  257. When is nitric oxide relased from the hemoglobin?
    As oxygen is unloaded, causing vasodilation
  258. As deoxygenated hemoglobin picks up CO2, it also binds nitric oxide. Where are these gases carried to for unloading?
    The lungs
  259. 7-10% of CO2 is transported in the blood in which form?
    Dissolved in plasma
  260. 20% of CO2 is transported in the blood in which form?
    Chemically bound to hemoglobin- 20% is carried in RBCs as carbaminohemoglobin
  261. 70% of CO2 is transported in the blood in which form?
    Bicarbonate ion in plasma- 70% is transported as bicarbonate (HCO3-)
  262. What states that the amount of CO2 transported is markedly affected by the PO2?
    Haldane effect
  263. What states that thelower the PO2 and hemoglobin saturation with oxygen, themore carbon dioxide can be carried in the blood?
    Haldane Effect
  264. What states: at the tissues, as more CO2 enters the blood, the mosre oxygen dissociates from hemoglobin?
    Bohr Effect
  265. At the tissues, as mosre carbon dioxide enters the blood, does CO2 combine OR dissociate from hemoglobin?
    Combines with hemoglobin
  266. At the tissues, as mosre carbon dioxide enters the blood, does more OR less bicarbonate ions form?
    More
  267. At the tissues, as mosre carbon dioxide enters the blood, does more OR less oxygen dissociate from hemoglobin?
    More
  268. What system resists blood pH changes?
    The carbonic acid- bicarbonate buffer system
  269. If hydrogen ion concentrations in the blood negin to rise, excess H+ are removed by combining with what?
    HCO3- (carbonic acid)
  270. If hydrogen ion concentrations begin to drop, what dissociates, releasing H+?
    Carbonic acid (HCO3)
  271. Can changes in the respiratory rate alter blood pH?
    YES
  272. Would slow, shallow breathing that allows CO2 to accumulate in the blood cause a rise OR drop in pH?
    Drop
  273. Changes in ventilation can be used to adjust pH when it is disturbed by what?
    Metabolic factors
  274. Which medullary respiratory center is near the root of cranial nerve IX?
    Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
  275. Which medullary respiartory centers integrate input from peripheral stretch and chemorecptors?
    Dorsal respiratory group (DRG)
  276. Which medullary respiratory center is the rhythm-generating and integrative center?
    Ventral respiratory group (VRG)
  277. Which medullary Respiratory center sets eupnea?
    Ventral respiartory group (VRG)
  278. What is the value of eupnea?
    12-15 breaths/minutes
  279. Inspiratory neurons excite which muscles via the phrenic and intercoastal nerves?
    Inspriatory muscles
  280. Inspirtaory neruons excite the inspriatory muscles via which 2 nerves?
    Phrenic and intercostal nerves
  281. Do inspirtory neurons excite or inhibit inspiratory muscles?
    Excite
  282. Do expiratory neurons excite or inhibit the inspiratory neurons?
    Inhibit
  283. Which respiratory centers influence and modify activity of the Ventral Respiratory Group?
    Pontine Respiratory Centers
  284. Which Respiratory centers smooth out transition between inspiration and expiration and visa versa?
    Pontine respiratory centers
  285. Inspiratory _____ is determined by how actively the respiratory center stimulates the respiratory muscles.
    Depth
  286. Is inspiratory depth determined by how actively OR how long the respiatory center stimulates the respiatory muscles?
    How actively
  287. Is rate of inspiration determined by how actively OR how long the inspiratory center is active?
    How long
  288. Hypothalmic controls act through which system to modify rate and depth of respiration?
    Limbic system
  289. Does a rise or drop in body temperature act to increase respiratory rate?
    Rise
  290. Hypothalamic controls act through the limbic system to modify rate and depth of respiration. What is an example of this?
    Breath holding that occus in anger
  291. What are direct signals from the cerebral motor cortex that bypass medullary controls?
    Coritcal controls
  292. What are examples of Cortical controls that are signals from the cerebral motor cortex that bypass medullary controls
    • Voluntarybreath holding
    • Taking a deep breath
  293. What promote reflexive constriction of air passages?
    Pulmonary irritant reflexes
  294. In which type of reflexes do rceptors in the larger airways mediate the cough and sneeze reflexes?
    Pumonary irritant reflexes
  295. In which type of reflexes do receptors in the bronchioles respond to irritants?
    Pulmonary irritant reflexes
  296. Which type of reflex is the hering-breuer reflex?
    Inflation reflex
  297. In which type of reflex are stretch receptors in the pleurae and airways are stimulated by lung inflation?
    Hering-Breuer reflex
  298. In which type of reflex do inhibitory signals to the medullary respiratory centers end inhalation and allow expiration to occur?
    Hering -breuer reflex
  299. Which type of reflex acts more as a protective response than a normal regulatory mechanism?
    Hering-breuer reflex
  300. Hypercapnia is due to PCO2 levels rising or dropping?
    Rise
  301. PCO2 levels rise (hypercapnia) resulting in increased OR decreased depth and rate of breathing?
    Increased
  302. What is known as: increased depth and rate of breathing that exceeds the body's need to remove CO2?
    Hyperventilation
  303. What kind of breathing can cause CO2 levels to decline? What is it called when CO2 levels decline?
    • Hyperventilation
    • Hypocapnia 
  304. What may cause cerebral vasoconstriction and cerebral ischemia?
    Hyperventilation-> Hypocapnia
  305. What is the period of breathing cessation that occurs when PCO2 is abnormally low called?
    Apnea
  306. What is defined as: increase in ventilation (10 to 20 folds) in response to metabolic needs?
    Hyperpnea
  307. Does PCO2 remain constant or does it vary during excersize?
    Constant
  308. Does PO2 remain constant or does it vary during exercise?
    Constant
  309. Does pH remain constant or does it vary during exercise?
    Constant
  310. What are the 3 neural factors that cause increase in ventilation as exercise begins?
    • Psychological stimuli—anticipation of exercise. Simultaneous cortical motor activation of skeletal muscles and respiratory centers.
    • Exictatory impulses reaching respiratory centers from proprioceptors in moving muscles, tendons, and joints
  311. What happens to ventilation as exercise ends and the 3 neural factors shut off?
    Ventilation declines
  312. Acidiosis may reflect what 3 things?
    • Carbon dioxide retention.
    • Accumulation of lactic acid.
    • Excess fatty acids in patients with diabetes mellitus.
  313. In acidosis, respiratory system controls will attempt to raise OR drop the pH by increasing the respiratory rate and depth?
    Raise
  314. Quick travel to altitudes about 8000 ft may produce symptoms of what?
    Acute mountain sickness (AMS)
  315. What are some symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS)?
    • Headaches
    • Shortness of breath
    • Nausea
    • Dizziness
  316. What are symptoms of acute mountain sickness (AMS) in severe cases?
    Lethal cerebral and pulumonary edema
  317. What is defined as respiratory and hematopoietic adjustments to altitude?
    Acclimatization
  318. Acclimatization is respiratory and hemapoietic adjustments to altitude that include what 2 factors?
    • Increased ventilation- 2 to 3 L/min higher than at sea level.
    • Decline in blood O2 stimulates the kidneys to accelerate production of EPO.
  319. Evidence suggests that it takes at least how long to get the benefit of high altitude training for increased performance?
    3-4 weeks
  320. Evidence suggests that living at __1__ altitudes and training at __2__ altitudes seems to produce the best results for increased performance.
    • 1. high
    • 2. low
  321. Chronic obsturctive pulmonary disease (COPD) is exemplified by which 2 diseases?
    • Chronic bronchitis
    • Emphysema
  322. Which homeostatic imbalance is due to irreversible decrease in the ability to force air out of the lungs?
    Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
  323. What % of patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) have a history of smoking? 
    80%
  324. Does dyspnea (labored breathing (air hunger)) occure in Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?
    YES
  325. What is labored breathing ("air hunger") called?
    Dyspnea
  326. Which homeostatic imbalance has a common feature of couhing and frequent pulmonary infections?
    Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
  327. True OR False:
    Most victims of Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) develop respiatory failure (hypoventilation) accompanied by respiratory acidosis.
    TRUE
  328. Which homeostatic imbalance is characterized by coughing, dyspnea, wheezing, and chest tightness?
    Asthma
  329. In asthma, active __1__ of the airways precedes __2__.
    • 1. infammation
    • 2. bronchospasms
  330. What kind of response is airway inflammation?
    Immune response
  331. Airway inflammation is a characteristic of which homeostatic imbalance?
    Asthma
  332. In which homeostatic imbalance are airways thickened with inflammatory exudate that magifiy the effect of bronchospasms?
    Asthma
  333. What is the ratio of people in N. America that suffer from asthma?
    1 in 10 people
  334. Tuberculosis is an infectious disease caused which bacterium?
    Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  335. Symptoms of which homeostatic imbalance include fever, night sweats, wieght loss, and racking cough, and spitting up blood?
    Tuberculosis
  336. Treatment of tuberculosis entails how long of a course with antibiotics?
    12-month
  337. Which homeostatic imblance is the leading cause of cancer deaths in N. America?
    Lung cancer
  338. Most victims of lung cancer die within how long of diagnosis?
    1 year
  339. What % of all cases of lung cancer are the result of smoking?
    90%
  340. Which type of lung cancer occurs in 20-40% of cases?
    Squamous cell carcinoma
  341. Which type of lung cancer is in bronchial epithelium?
    Squamous cell carcinoma
  342. Which type of lung cancer occurs in ~40 of cases?
    Adenocarcinoma
  343. Which type of lung cancer originates in peripheral lung areas?
    Adenocarcinoma
  344. Which type of lung cancer occurs in ~20% of cases?
    Small cell carcinoma
  345. Which type of lung cancer contains lymphocyte-like cells that originate in the primary bronchi and subsequently metastasize?
    Small cell carcinoma
  346. By which week can a baby that is born prematurely breathe on its own?
    The 28th week
  347. When are respiratory centers activated?
    At birth
  348. When do alveoli inflate?
    At birth
  349. When do the lungs begin to function?
    At birth
  350. Is respiratory rate highest or lowest in new borns?
    Highest
  351. How many respirations per min. is the respiratory rate in newborns?
    40-80 resps/ min
  352. What is the respiratory rate of respirations per minute in adulthood?
    12-15 per minute
  353. What digests and absorbs food?
    Alimentary canal OR GI tract
  354. What 6 structures is the alimentary canal made up of?
    • Mouth
    • Pharynx
    • Esophagus
    • Stomach
    • Small intestine
    • Large intestine
  355. What are the 6 accessory digestive organs?
    • Teeth
    • Tongue
    • Gallbladder
    • Salivary glands
    • Liver
    • Pancreas
  356. What is defined as taking food into the digestive tract?
    Ingestion
  357. What is defined as swallowing and peristalsis?
    Propulsion
  358. What is defined as waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles in the organ walls?
    Peristalsis
  359. What is defined as chewing, mixing, and churning food?
    Mechanical digestion
  360. What is defined as catabolic breakdown of food?
    Chemical digestion
  361. What is defined as the movement of nutrients from the GI tract to the blood or lymph?
    Absorption
  362. What is defined as elimination of indigestible solid wastes?
    Defecation
  363. What do mechano and chemoreceptors respond to in the GI tract?
    • Stretch, osmolarity, and pH.
    • Presence of substrate, and end products of digestion.
  364. Mechano and chemoreceptors in the GI tract initiae reflaxes that do what?
    • Activate or inhibit digestive glands.
    • Mix lumen contents and move them along.
  365. What is known as the serous membrane of the abdominal cavity?
    Peritoneum
  366. Which part of the peritoneum covers external surface of most digestive organs?
    Visceral
  367. Which part of the peritoneum lines the body wall?
    Parietal
  368. Whcih cavity lubricates digestive organs?
    Peritoneal cavity
  369. Which cavity allows digestive organs to slide across one another?
    Peritoneal cavity
  370. What is the double layer of the peritoneum that provides vasuclar and nerve supplies to the viscera?
    Mesentery
  371. What is the double layer of the peritoneum that holds digestive organs in place and stores fat?
    Mesentery
  372. What are the 4 basic layers (tunics) of the alimentary canal?
    • §Mucosa (innermost layer)
    • Submucosa
    • Muscularis externa
    • Serosa (outermost layer)
  373. What is the innermost layer (tunic) of the alimentary canal?
    Mucosa
  374. What is the outer most layer (tunic) of the alimentary canal?
    Serosa
  375. Which layer of the alimentary canal functions in the secretion of mucus?
    Mucosa
  376. Which layer of the alimentary canal functions in absorption of end products of digestion?
    Mucosa
  377. Which layer of the alimentary canal functions in protection against infectious disease?
    Mucosa
  378. What are the 3 sublayers of the mucosa?
    • Lining epithelium
    • Lamina propria
    • Muscularis mucosae
  379. Which sublayer of the mucosa is made up of a simple columnar epithelium and mucus secreting goblet cells?
    Epithelial lining
  380. What is the function of the mucus secretions of the epithial lining (sublayer of the mucosa)?
    • Protect digestive organs from digesting themselves.
    • Ease food along the tract.
  381. For the epithelial lining sublayer of the mucosa, what do the stomach and small intestine mucosa contain?
    • Enzyme-secreting cells.
    • Hormone-secreting cells (making them endocrine and digestive organs).
  382. Which sublayer of the mucosa nourishes the epithelium and absorbs nurtients?
    Lamina propria
  383. Which sublayer of the mucosa is made up of smooth muscle cells that produce loxal movements of mucosa?
    Muscularis mucosae
  384. Which layer of the alimentary canal is made up of dense connective tissue containing elastic fibers, blood and lymphatic vessels, lymphnodes, and nerves?
    Submucosa
  385. Which layer of the alimentary canal is responsible for segmentation and peristalsis?
    Muscularis externa
  386. Which layer of the alimentary canal is makes up the inner circular and outer longituinal layers?
    Muscularis externa
  387. Which layer of the alimentary canal is the protective visceral peritoneum?
    Serosa
  388. Which of the 2 major intrinsic nerve plexuses that the enteric nervous system is composed of  regulates glands and smooth muscle in the mucosa?
    Submucosal nerve plexus
  389. Which of the 2 major intrinsic nerve plexuses that the enteric nervous system is composed of the major nerve supply that controls GI tract mobility?
    Myenteric nerve plexus
  390. What is a common name for the oral or buccal cavity?
    Mouth
  391. The oral/buccal cavity is bounded by what 4 body structures?
    • Lips
    • Cheeks
    • Palate
    • Tongue
  392. To withstand abrasions, what tissue is the mouth lined with?
    Stratified squamous epithelium
  393. Which structurs that are parft of the mouth are slightly keratinized?
    • Gums
    • Hard palate
    • Dorsum of the tongue
  394. Which palate of the mouth is underlain by the palatine bones and palatine processes of the maxillae?
    Hard palate
  395. Which palate of the mouth assists the tongue in chewing?
    Hard palate
  396. Which palate of the mouth is the mobile fold formed mostly of skeletal muscle?
    Soft palate
  397. Which palate of the mouth closes off the nasopharynx during swallowing?
    Soft palate
  398. Which palate of the mouth does the ulvula downward from its free edge?
    Soft palate
  399. What are the functions of the tongue?
    • Gripping and repositioning food during chewing.
    • Mixing food with saliva and forming the bolus.
    • Initiation of swallowing, and speech.
  400. Which muscles change the shape of the tongue? Intrinsic OR extrinsic?
    Intrinsic
  401. Which muscles alter the tongues postion? Intistic OR extrinsic?
    Extrinsic muscles
  402. What secures the tongue to the floor of the mouth?
    The lingual frenulum
  403. What is in the tongue and produces lingual lipase?
    Lingual glands
  404. What is an enzyme that digests fat and is produced by the lingual glands in the tongue?
    Lingual lipase
  405. Where is lingual lipase activated?
    In the acid environment of the stomach
  406. The salivary glands produce and secrete saliva that do what 4 things?
    • §Cleanses the mouth.
    • Moistens and dissolves food chemicals.
    • Aids in bolus formation.
    • Contains enzymes that break down starch.
  407. Do the intrinsic or extrinsisc salivary glands secrete enzyme rich saliva (salivary amylase)?
    Extrinsic glands
  408. What is enzyme rich saliva also called?
    Salivary amylase
  409. What are the 3 extrinsic salivary glands?
    • Parotid
    • Submandibular
    • Sublingual
  410. Are the intrinsic or extrinsic salivary glands also known as the buccal glands?
    Intrinsic salivary glands
  411. Are the intrinsic or extrinsic salivary glands scattered throughout the oral mucosa?
    Intrinsic
  412. Do the intrinsic or extrinsic salivary glands keep the mouth moist?
    Intrinsic salivary glands
  413. Extrinsic salivary glands secrete serous, enzyme-rich saliva in response to what 2 things?
    •  Ingested food which stimulates chemoreceptors and pressoreceptors.
    • The thought of food.
  414. When strong sympathetic stimulation inhibits salivation, what does this result in?
    Dry mouth (xerostomia)
  415. What is xerostomia?
    Dry mouth
  416. By what age are primary and permanent dentitions formed?
    21 years old
  417. How many primary deciduous teeth erupt at intervals between 6 to 24 months?
    20
  418. The 20 primary deciduous teeth erupt at intervals between:___-___ months
    6 and 24 months
  419. Which teeth are known as the dedciduous teeth? Primary OR permanent
    primary
  420. Which teeth enlarge and develope causing root of deciduos teeth to be resorbed and fall out between the ages 6 to 12? Primary OR permanent?
    Permanent
  421. All but which teeth erupt by the end of adolescence?
    3rd molars
  422. How many permanent teeth are there (usually)?
    32
  423. What are teeth classified according to?
    Thier shape and function
  424. Which teeth are the chisel-shaped teeth and are for cutting or nipping/?
    Incisors
  425. Which teeth are the fanglike teeth that tear or pierce?
    Canines
  426. Which teeth have broad crowns with rounded tips?
    Premolars (bicuspids) and molars
  427. Which teeth are best suited for grinding or crushing?
    Premolars (bicuspids) and molars
  428. What are the 2 main regions of a tooth?
    Crown and root
  429. Which of the 2 main regions of a tooth is the exposed part of the tooth above the gingiva?
    Crown
  430. Which of the 2 main regions of the tooth consists of the enamel?
    Crown
  431. What is the hardest substance of the body and covers the crown of the tooth?
    Enamel
  432. Which of the 2 main regions of the tooth is the portion of the tooth that is embedded in the jawbone?
    Root
  433. Which oart of the tooth is the constriction where the crown and root come together?
    Neck
  434. Which oart of the tooth is the calcified connective tissue?
    Cementum
  435. Which part of the tooth covers the root?
    Cementum
  436. Which part of the tooth attaches the tooth to the periodontal ligament?
    Cementum
  437. Which part of the tooth anchors the tooth in tha alveouls of the jaw?
    Periodontal ligament
  438. Which part of the tooth forms the fibrous joint called a gomphosis?
    Periodontal ligament
  439. Which part of the tooth is the depression where the gingiva borders the tooth?
    Gingical sulcus
  440. Which part of the tooth is the bonelike material depp to the enamel cap that forms the bulk of the tooth?
    Dentin
  441. Which part of the tooth is the cavity surrounded by the dentin that contain pulp?
    Pulp cavity
  442. Which part of the tooth is made up of the connective tissue, blood vessels, and nerves?
    Pulp
  443. Which part of the tooth is the portion of the pulp cavity that extends into the root?
    Root canal
  444. What is the common name for dental caries?
    Cavities
  445. What is known as a gradual demineralization of enamel and dentin by bacterial action?
    Dental caries (cavities)
  446. What is a film of sugar, bacteria, and mouth debris that adheres to teeth?
    Dental plaque
  447. What can dissolve cacium salts of the teeth?
    Acid produced by the bacteria in the plaque
  448. Without the calcium salts in teeth, what is organic matter digested by?
    Proteolytic enzymes
  449. What help prevent caries by removing forming plaque?
    Flossing and brushing
  450. In which disease does plaque calcify to form calculus (tartar)?
    Gingivitis
  451. In Gingivitis, the calculus disrupts the seal between which 2 structures?
    gingivae (gums) and teeth
  452. Which type of bacteria infect gums?
    Anaerobic
  453. Anaerobic bacteria infecting gums can result in which disease?
    Gingivitis
  454. In gingivitus, is the infection reversible if the calculus is removed?
    YES
  455. What is the name of periodontal disease?
    Periodontitis
  456. In which gum disease do immune cells attack intruders and body tissue and destroy periodontal ligament and activate osteoclasts to dissolve bone?
    Periodontitis
  457. What are some consequences of periodontitis?
    Possible tooth loss, promotion of atherosclerosis and clot formation in coronary and cerebral arteries (by chronic inflammation and bacteria in blood)
  458. What are some risk factors that could result in periodontitis?
    • Smoking
    • Diabetes mellitus
    • Tongue or lip piercing
  459. What allows passage of food and fluids to the esophagus and air to the trachea?
    The pharynx
  460. How many skeltal muscle layers does the pharynx have?
    2
  461. What is the muscluar tube going from the laryngopharynx to the stomach?
    Esophagus
  462. Which body structure does the esophagus pierce at the esophageal hiatus?
    The diaphragm
  463. Which body structure joins the stomach at the cardiac orifice?
    Esophagus
  464. Which 2 structures serve as conduits to pass food from the mouth to the stomach?
    The pharyx and esophagus
  465. What are the 5 digestive processes in the mouth?
    • 1. Food is ingested.
    • 2. Mechanical digestion begins (chewing).
    • 3. Propulsion is initiated by swallowing (deglutition).
    • 4. Salivary amylase begins chemical breakdown
    • of starch.
    • 5. Lingual lipase begins digestion of fats
  466. What is the common term for deglutition?
    Swallowing
  467. What is known as the coordinated activity of the tongue, soft palate, pharynx, esophagus, and 22 seperate muscle groups?
    Deglutition (swallowing)
  468. In which phase of deglutition (swallowing) is the bolus forced into the oropharynx?
    Buccal phase
  469. In which phase of deglutition (swallowing) is the voluntary contraction of the tongue?
    Buccal phase
  470. In which phase of deglutition (swallowing) is controlled by the medulla and lower pons?
    Pharyngeal-esophagus phase
  471. In which phase of deglutition (swallowing) are all routes exept into the digestive tract are sealed off?
    Pharygeal-esophagus phase
  472. In which phase of deglutition (swallowing) are the muscles involuntary?
    Pharyngeal-esophagus phase
  473. What moves food through the pharynx to the esophagus?
    Peristalsis
  474. In the stomach, __1__ breakdown of __2__ begins and food is converted  into __3__.
    • 1. Chemical
    • 2. Proteins
    • 3. Chyme
  475. Which region of the stomach surrounds the cardiac orifice?
    Cardiac region
  476. Which region of the stomach is the dome-shaped region beneath the diaphragm?
    Fundus
  477. Which region of the stomach is the midportion of the stomach?
    Body
  478. Which region of the stomach is made up of the antrum and canal which terminates at the pylorus?
    Pyloric region
  479. In the stomach, what is he pylorus continuos with the duodenum through?
    Pyloric sphincter (valve)
  480. What are the 2 mesentaries of the stomach called that tether the stomach to other digestive organs and the body wall?
    Omenta
  481. Which of the 2 mesentaries that tether the stomach to the other digestive organs and the body wall, runs from the liver to the lesser curvature?
    Lesser omentum
  482. Which of the 2 mesentaries that tether the stomach to the other digestive organs and the body wall, drapes inferiorly from the greater curvature to the small intestine?
    Greater omentum
  483. The stomach is served by the ANS; are the sympathetic fibers OR parasympathetic fibers from the thoracic splanchnic nerves relayed through the celiac pluxus?
    Sympathetic
  484. The stomach is served by the ANS; are the sympathetic fibers OR parasympathetic fibers supplied by the vagus nerve?
    Parasympathetic
  485. Which trunk is is the blood supply of the stomach is provided by?
    Celiac trunk
  486. Veins of which system are part of the blood supply of the stomach?
    Hepatic portal system
  487. The muscularis of the stomach has an additional _____ layer.
    Oblique
  488. The muscularis of the stomach that has an additional oblique layer does what to food?
    • Allows the stomach to churn, mix, and pummel food physically.
    • Breaks down food into smaller fragments.
  489. What is the epithelial lining of the stomach composed of?
    • Goblet cells that produce a coat of alkaline mucus.
    • The mucous surface layer traps a bicarbonate-rich fluid beneath it.
  490. What does the mucous surface layer of the stomach trap?
    A bicarbonate rich fluid beneath it.
  491. What is in the stomach and contains gastric glands that secrete gastric juice, mucus, and gastrin?
    Gastric pits
  492. What do the gastic glands of the stomach secrete?
    Gastric juice, mucus, and gastrin
  493. What do the gastric glands in the gastric pits of the stomach secrete?
    Gastric juice, mucus, and gastrin
  494. What are the 4 types of cells thar are found in the gastric glands?
    • Mucous neck cells
    • Parietal cells
    • Chief cells
    • Enteroendocrine cells
  495. Gastric glands of the fundus and body have a variety of secretory cells. Which of these cells secrete acid mucus?
    Mucous neck cells
  496. Gastric glands of the fundus and body have a variety of secretory cells. Which of these cells secrete HCl?
    Parietal cells
  497. Gastric glands of the fundus and body have a variety of secretory cells. Which of these cells secrete an intristic factor (necessary for the absorption of B12 in the small intestine)?
    Parietal cells
  498. Gastric glands of the fundus and body have a variety of secretory cells. Which of these cells produce gastric lipase?
    Chief cells
  499. Gastric glands of the fundus and body have a variety of secretory cells. Which of these cells produce pepsinogen?
    Chief cells
  500. Is pepsinogen activated to pepsin in the stomach by HCl OR pepsin itself?
    HCl
  501. Is pepsinogen activated to pepsin via a positive feedback mechanism by HCl OR pepsin itself?
    Pepsin itself
  502. Gastric glands of the fundus and body have a variety of secretory cells. Which of these cells produce paracrines?
    Enteroendocrine cells
  503. Entereoendocrine cells produce Paracrines and Hormones. Which one of these products produce serotonin and histamine?
    Paracrines
  504. Gastric glands of the fundus and body have a variety of secretory cells. Which one of these cells produce hormones?
    Enteroendocrine cells
  505. Enteroendocrine cells produce Paracrines and Hormones. Which one of these products produce somatostin and gastrin?
    Hormones
  506. Which organ is exposed to the harshest conditions in the digestive tract?
    Stomach
  507. To keep the stomach from digesting itself, the stomach has a mucosal barrier. What make up this mucosal barrier?
    • 1) A thick coat of bicarbonate-rich mucus on the stomach wall.
    • 2) Epithelial cells that are joined by tight junctions – prevents gastric juice from leaking into underlying tissue.
    • 3) Gastric glands that have cells impermeable to HCl.
    • 4) Damaged epithelial cells are quickly replaced.
  508. WEhat prevent gastric juices in the stomach from leaking into underlying tissue?
    Epithelial cells that are joined by tight junctions
  509. Do gastric glands in the stomach have cells that are preameable OR impermeable to HCl?
    Impermeable
  510. Are damaged epithelial cells in the stomach quickly replaced?
    YES
  511. Which homeostatic imbalance is inflammatoin caused by anything that breaches the mucosal barrier?
    Gastritis
  512. Which homeostatic imbalance is caused by erosion of the wall of the stomach (gastric ulcer), esophogus (esophogeal ulcer), or duodenum (duodenal ulcer)
    Peptic ulcers
  513. In which 3 structurs of the body would you find peptic ulcers?
    • Stomach (gastric ulcer)
    • Esophogus (esophogeal ulcer)
    • Duodenum (duodenal ulcer)
  514. Which structures are peptic ulcers MOST COMMON in?
    The stomach and duodenum
  515. Peptic ulcers are the most common in the stomach and duodenum. Which bacteria causes this?
    Helicobacter pylori
  516. Helicobacter pylori bacteria may cause duodenal and gastric ulcers (peptic ulcers). 80-95% causes which of these ulcers?
    Duodenal ulcers
  517. Helicobacter pylori bacteria may cause duodenal and gastric ulcers (peptic ulcers). 60-95% causes which of these ulcers?
    Gastric ulcers
  518. Risk of developing peptic ulcer disease in persons infected with Helicobacter pylori is __-__%, though it is estimated that ~___% of the worlds population is infected with H. pylori
    • 10-15%
    • ~50% of the worlds pop. is infected with H. pylori
  519. Chronic NSAIDS/aspirin use may account for __-__% of gastric ulcers
    15-30%
  520. Chronic NSAIDS/aspirin use may account for 15-30% of which type of ulcers?
    Gastric ulcers
  521. What are 7 causes of peptic ulcer disease?
    • NSAIDS
    • Gastrin-secreting tumors
    • Tobacco
    • Steroid use
    • Renal failure
    • COPD
    • Trauma
  522. Which disease has symptoms of burning, radiating substernal pain that occurs when acidic gastric juice regurgitates into the esophagus?
    Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
  523. Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD) is common in persons that have a _____ – weakening of the gastroesophageal sphincter in which the stomach protrudes above the diaphragm
    Hiatal hernia
  524. What are 3 complications of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)?
    • Inflammation of the esophagus
    • Esophageal ulcers
    • Potentially esophageal cancer.
  525. Which organ holds ingested food?
    The stomach
  526. Which organ degrades food that it hold boths physically and chemically?
    The stomach
  527. Does the stomach degrade food that it hold physically OR chemically?
    BOTH phycically and chemically
  528. Which organ delivers chyme to the small intestine?
    The stomach
  529. Which organ does the stomach deliver chyme to?
    The small intestine
  530. What does the stomach deliver to the small intestine?
    Chyme
  531. Which organ enzymatically digests proteins with pepsin?
    The stomach
  532. What does the stomach enzymatically digest proteins with?
    Pepsin
  533. Whcih organ secretes intrinsic factor required for absorption of vitamin B12?
    The stomach
  534. The stomach secretes intrinsic factor required for absorption of what?
    Vitamin B12
  535. What happens when there is a lack of the intristic factor in the stomach?
    Pernicious anemia (because vitamin B12 wouldn't be able to be absorbed)
  536. Do neural or hormonal mechanisms regulate the release of gastric juice?
    BOTH
  537. Neural and hormonal mechanisms regulate the release of gastric juice.Stimulatory and inhibitory events occur in three phases, in which one or all can be occurring at the same time. Which of these phases occurs prior to food entry and lasts a few minutes?
    Cephalic (reflex) phase
  538. Neural and hormonal mechanisms regulate the release of gastric juice.Stimulatory and inhibitory events occur in three phases, in which one or all can be occurring at the same time. Which of these phases occurs once food enters the stomach and lasts 3-4 hours?
    Gastric phase
  539. Neural and hormonal mechanisms regulate the release of gastric juice.Stimulatory and inhibitory events occur in three phases, in which one or all can be occurring at the same time. Which of these phases occurs as partially digested food and endters the duodenum?
    Intestinal phase
  540. In the cephalic phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include sight/ thought of food?
    Excitatory events
  541. In the cephalic phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include stimulation of taste or smell receptors?
    Excitatory events
  542. In the cephalic phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include loss of appetite or depression?
    Inhibitory events
  543. In the cephalic phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include decrease in stimulation of the parasympathetic divsion?
    Inhibitory events
  544. In the gastric phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include stomach distension?
    Excitatory
  545. In the gastric phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include activation of stretch receptors (neural activation)?
    Excitatory
  546. In the gastric phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include activation of chemoreceptors by peptides, caffeine and rising pH?
    Excitatory events
  547. In the gastric phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include release of gastrin (hormone that plays an essential role in the stomach secretion and motility to the blood?
    Excitatory
  548. In the gastric phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include a pH lower than 2 (excessive acidity)?
    Inhibitory events
  549. In the gastric phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, do excitatory OR inhibitory events include emotional upset that overrides the parasympathetic division?
    Inhibitory events
  550. In the intestineal phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, in which phase (excitatory OR inhibitory phase) occur from a low pH?
    Excitatory phase
  551. In the intestineal phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, in which phase (excitatory OR inhibitory phase) occurs when partially digested food enters the duodenum and encourages gastric gland activity?
    Excitatory phase
  552. In the intestineal phase during the regulation of gastric secretions, in which phase (excitatory OR inhibitory phase) occurs from distension of the duodenum presence of fatty, acidic, or hypertonic chyme, and/or irritants in the duodenum?
    Inhibitory phase
  553. Which phase of the intestinal phase in the regulation of gastric secretion initiates inhibiton of local reflexes and vagal nuclei? Excititory phase OR Inhibitory phase?
    Excitatory phase
  554. Which phase of the intestinal phase, in the regulation of gastric secretion, closes the pyloric sphincter ? Excititory phase OR Inhibitory phase?
    Inhibitory phase
  555. Which phase of the intestinal phase, in the regulation of gastric secretion, releases enterogastrones that inhibit gastric secretion? Excititory phase OR Inhibitory phase?
    Inhibitory phase
  556. Which type of relation of the reflex-mediated events occurs as food travels in the esophagus, cauing the stomach mucles relax?
    Receptive relaxation
  557. Which type of relation of the reflex-mediated events occurs as the stomach dialtes in the response to gastric filling?
    Adaptive relaxation
  558. What is defined as the intrinsic ability of smooth muscle to exhibit the stress-relaxation response?
    Plasticity
  559. What 2 things is gastric emptying regulated by?
    • A) The neural enterogastric reflex
    • B) Hormonal (enterogastrone) mechanisms
  560. Gastric emptying is regulated by the neural enterogastric reflex and the hormonal (enterogastrone) mechanisms. Do these mechanisms excite OR inhibit gastric secretion asnd duodenal filling?
    Inhibit
  561. What is defined as the stomach emptying through vomiting?
    Emesis
  562. In the regulation of gastric emptying, carbohydrate-rich chyme quickly moves through the _____.
    Duodenum
  563. In the regulation of gastric emptying, does carbohydrate-rich chyme move quickly OR slowly through the duodenum?
    Quickly
  564. Is fat-laden chyme digested more quickly or sloly than carbohydrate-rich chyme?
    More slowly, causing food to remain in the stomach longer (can be as long as 6 hours).
  565. Which organ is the major organ of digestion and absorption?
    Small intestine
  566. How long is the small instine?
    2-4 m (~6.5-13 ft) long
  567. Where does the small intestine start and end?
    From the pyloric sphincter to the ileocecal valve
  568. What are the 3 subdivisions of the small intestine?
    • Duodenum
    • Jejunum
    • Ileum
  569. In the small intestine, where do the (common) bile duct and the main pancreatic duct join the duodenum?
    At the hepatopancreatic ampulla
  570. In the small intestine, what controls the (common) bile duct and the main pancreatic duct?
    They are controlled by the sphincter of Oddi (hepatopancreatic sphincter)
  571. Which subdivision of the small intestine extends from the duodenum to the ileum?
    Jejunum
  572. Which subdivision of the small intestine joins the large intestine at the ileocecal valve?
    Ileum
  573. Structural modifications of the small intestine wall increase surface area. Which structures are deep ciruclar folds of the mucosa and submucosa?
    Plicae circulares
  574. Structural modifications of the small intestine wall increase surface area. Which structures are fingerlike extensions of the mucosa?
    Villi
  575. Structural modifications of the small intestine wall increase surface area. Which structures are tiny projections of the absorptive mucosal cells' plasma membranes?
    Microvilli
  576. Which cells that are found in the epithelium of the mucosa of the small intestine, are involved in nutrient and electrolyte absorption?
    Absortive cells
  577. Which cells that are found in the epithelium of the mucosa of the small intestine, contain brush border enzymes?
    Absortive cells
  578. Which cells are brush border enzyme cells synthesized by? And then where are they inserted?
    Synthesized by the absorptive cells and inserted into plasma membrane of the microvilli (of the smasll intestine)
  579. Which 4 carbohydrates are part of brush border enzymes?
    • α-dextrinase
    • maltase
    • sucrase
    • lactase (carbohydrates)
  580. Which 2 proteins are part of brush border enzymes?
    • Aminopetidase
    • Dipeptidase
  581. Which 2 nucleotides are part of brush border enzymes?
    • Nucleosidases
    • Phosphatases
  582. Which cells of the epithelium of the mucosa, in the small intestine, secrete mucous?
    Goblet cells
  583. What are are located in the walls of the small intestine,found within the intestinal mucosa, and contain secretory cells that produce intestinal juice?
    Intestinal crypts (crypts of Lieberkuhn)
  584. Which cells are part of the intestinal crypts (crypts of Lieberkuhn) of the small intestine and secrete secretin and cholycystokinin?
    Enteroendocrine cells
  585. Which cells are part of the intestinal crypts (crypts of Lieberkuhn) of the small intestine immediately release cytokines (kill infected cells)?
    Tell cells called intraepithelial lymphocytes
  586. Which cells are part of the intestinal crypts (crypts of Lieberkuhn) of the small intestine secrete defensins and lysozyme (antibacterial enzyme)?
    Paneth cells
  587. Which of the  2 structures that are contained within the submucosa of the small intestine are found in the distal part of the small intestine and protect against bacteria?
    Peyer's patches
  588. Which of the  2 structures that are contained within the submucosa of the small intestine are in the duodenum and secrete alkaline mucus, which helps neutralize gastric acid in the chyme?
    Brunner's glands (duodenal glands)
  589. What is the largest gland of the body?
    Liver
  590. How many lobes does the liver have?
    4
  591. What are the 4 lobes of the liver?
    • Right
    • Left
    • Caudate
    • Quadrate
  592. Which ligament in the liver seperates the right and left lobes anteriorly?
    The falciform ligament
  593. Which ligament of the liver suspends the liver from the diaphragm and anterior abdominal wall?
    The falciform ligament
  594. Which ligament of the liver is a remnant of fetal umbilical vein?
    Round ligament (ligamentum teres)
  595. Which structure anchors the liver to the stomach?
    The lesser omentum
  596. Where do hepatic blood vessels enter the liver?
    At the porta hepatis
  597. The gallbladder rests in the recess of the inferior surface of which lobe of the liver?
    Right lobe
  598. Which structure rests in the recess on the inferior surface of the right lobe?
    The gallbladder
  599. Does the gallbladder rest in the recess on the superior OR inferior surface of the right lobe?
    Inferior
  600. Bile leaves the liver via which duct(s) that fuse(s) into the common hepatic duct?
    Right and left hepatic ducts
  601. Bile leaves the liver via which duct(s) that fuse(s) with the cystic duct and forms the common bile duct?
    The common hepatic duct
  602. Which cells are hepatic macrophages and are found in the liver sinusoids?
    Kupffer cells
  603. What are the 4 functions of hepatocytes?
    • 1) Production of bile (~900ml/day)
    • 2) Processing bloodborne nutrients
    • 3) Storage of fat-soluble vitamins
    • 4) Detoxification
  604. Which diease is the inflammation of the liver and is most often due to viral infection?
    Hepatitis
  605. Is hepatitis more common in men or women?
    Men
  606. Which type of hepatitis is in 40% of cases?
    Hepatitis B
  607. Whcih type of Hepatitis is transmitted via blood transfusions, contaminated needles, and sexual contact?
    Hepatitis B
  608. Which type of Hepatitis is 32% of cases?
    Hepatitis A
  609. Which type of Hepatitis is transmitted via contaminated food, water, or feces-mouth?
    Hepatitis A
  610. Which type of Hepatitis is characterized by persistent or chronic liver infections?
    Hepatitis C
  611. In which type of Hepatitis are more than 4 million Americans infected and 10,000 die annually?
    Hepatitis C
  612. Which disease is a progressive chronic inflammation of the liver that  typically results from severe chronix hapatisis or chronic alcoholism?
    Cirrhosis
  613. Which disease is a progressive chronic inflammation of the liver and the liver becomes fatty and fibrous and decreases function?
    Cirrhosis
  614. What is a yellow-green, alkaline solution containing bile salts, bile pigments, cholesterol, neutral fats, phospholipids, and electrolytes?
    Bile
  615. What are cholesterol derivatives that emulsify fat?
    Bile salts
  616. What are cholesterol derivatives that facilitate fat and cholesterol absorption??
    Bile salts
  617. What are cholesterol derivatives and help solubilize cholesterol?
    Bile salts
  618. What is the chief bile pigment and is a waste product of heme?
    Bilirubin
  619. Which body structure is a thin-walled, green muscular sac on the ventral surface of the liver?
    The gallbladder
  620. Which body structure stores and concentrates bile by absorbing its water and ions (up to 10-20x more concentrated)?
    The gallbladder
  621. The gallbladder releases bile via the _____ duct , which flows into the bile duct.
    Cystic
  622. What are crystallizations of cholesterol in the gallbladder due to insuffiecient bile salts or lecithin, or excess cholesterol?
    Gallstones (cholelithiasis)
  623. Are gallstones (cholelithiasis) more common in men or women?
    Women due to estrogen imbalances
  624. How are gallstones (cholelithiasis) treated?
    • Gallstone dissolving drugs
    • Lithotripsy (shock-wave therapy), or
    • Surgical removal (cholecystectomy)
  625. What does acidic, fatty chyme cause the duodenum to release into the bloodstream?
    • Cholecystokinin (CCK)[intestinal hormone] and
    • Secretin
  626. Bile salts and _____ transported in the blood stimulate the liver to produce bile.
    Secretin
  627. Does cholecytokinin cause the gallbladder to contract OR relax??
    Contract
  628. Does cholecytokinin cause the hepatopancreatic sphincter to contract OR relax??
    Relax
  629. After the cholecytokinin causes the gallbladder to contract and the heptaopancreatic sphincter to relax, where does the bile enter?
    The duodenum
  630. _____ stimulation causes weak contractions of the gallbladder.
    Vagal
  631. Acini cells secrete pancreatic juice which breaks down all categories of foodstuff. Is this an exocrine or endocrine function of the pancreas?
    Exocrine
  632. What kind of cells are 99% of pancreatic cells?
    Acini
  633. What % of cells in the pancrease are acini cells?
    99%
  634. Pancreatic islets release of insulin and glucagon. Is this an exocrine OR endocrine function of the pancreas?
    Endocrine
  635. What % of cells are pancreatic islets in the pancreas?
    1%
  636. What neutralizes acid chyme in the pancreas?
    The watery alkaline solution (pH8) of pancreatic juice.
  637. Does high OR low pH provide an optimal enviornment for pancreatic enzymes?
    High
  638. Is pancreatic juice made up of an acidic OR alkaline solution? What is its pH?
    Alkaline (pH 8)
  639. What are the primary elecrtolytes in the pancreatic juice?
    Primary HCO3- (bicarbonate ion)
  640. Which enzymes are part of the pancreatic juice and are secreted in an active form, but require ions or bile for optimal activity?
    Amylase, lipase, nucleases
  641. Are the enzymes amylase, lipase, and nucleases (in the pancreatic juice) secreted in an active OR inactive form?
    Active
  642. Which enzyme in the pancreatic juice is secreted in an inactive form?
    Proteases
  643. Is the enzyme proteases (in the pancreatic juice) secreted in an active OR inactive form?
    Inactive
  644. During protease activation in the duodenum, what is activated to trypsin by brush border enzyme enteropeptidase?
    Trypinsogen
  645. During protease activation in the duodenum, what are activated by trypsin to become carboxypeptidase and chymotrypsin?
    Procarboxypeptidase
  646. During pancreatic secretion, what are released when fatty or acidic chyme enters the duodenum?
    Secretin and CCK
  647. Upon reaching the pancrease, does CCK OR secretin induce the secretion of enzyme-rich pancreatic juice?
    CCK
  648. Upon reaching the pancrease, does CCK OR secretin cause secretion of bicarbonate-richpancreatic juice?
    Secretin
  649. Does vagal stimulation cause the release of pancreatic juice (minor stimulus)?
    YES
  650. As chyme enters the duodenum, are carbohydrates and proteins partially OR fully digested?
    Partially
  651. Does a lot OR a little chemical digestion of fat take place as chyme enters the duodenum?
    Very little
  652. Virtually all nutrient _____ takes place in the small intestine.
    Absorption
  653. After nutrients have been absorbed in the small intestine, what begins with each wave starting distal to previous?
    Peristalsis
  654. After nutrients have been absorbed in the small intestine, peristalsis begins with each wave starting distal to previous. What 4 things are moved into the large intestine?
    Meal remnants, bacteria, mucosal cells, and debris
  655. What is caused by enhance activity of the stomach?
    Gastroileal reflex
  656. What 2 things relax the ileocecal sphincter?
    Gastroileal reflex and gastrin
  657. Do the gastroileal reflex and gastrin contract OR relax the ileocecal sphincter?
    Relax
  658. The gastroileal reflex and gastrin allow chyme to pass into which structure?
    The large intestine
  659. What 2 things allow chyme to pass into the large intestine?
    The hastoileal reflex and gastrin
  660. Do ileocecal valve flaps open OR close when chyme exerts backward pressure?
    Close
  661. Which of the 3 unique features of the large intestine  are 3 bands of longitudinal smooth muscle in its muscularis?
    Teniae coli
  662. Which of the 3 unique features of the large intestine are pocketlike sacs caused by the tone of the tenia coli?
    Haustra
  663. Which of the 3 unique features of the large intestine are fat-filled pouches of visceral peritoneum?
    Epiploic appendages
  664. What 5 structures is the large intestine subdivided into?
    • Cecum
    • Appendix
    • Colon
    • Rectum
    • Anal canal
  665. Which one of the structures that the large intestine is subdivided into lies below the ileocecal valve in the right iliac fossa?
    The saclike cecum
  666. Which one of the structures that the large intestine is subdivided into contains a wormlike vermiform appendix?
    The saclike cecum
  667. What are the 6 distinct regions of the colon?
    • Ascendingcolon,
    • Hepatic flexure,
    • Transverse colon,
    • Splenic flexure,
    • Descending colon, and
    • Sigmoid colon
  668. Which 2 regions of the colon are anchored via mesenteries called mesocolons?
    The tranverse and sigmoid portions
  669. The transverse and sigmoid portions of the colon are anchored via mesenteries called what?
    Mesocolons
  670. Which region of the colon joins the rectum?
    Sigmoid colon
  671. Which region is the last segment of the large intestine and opens to the exterior at the anus?
    The anal canal
  672. How many valves of the rectum stop feces from passed with gas?
    3 valves
  673. Which sphincter of the anus is composed of smooth muscle?
    Internal anal sphincter
  674. Which sphincter of the anus is composed of skeletal muscle?
    External anal sphincter
  675. When is the only time the internal and external anal sphincters are open during?
    During defecation
  676. Which plexus are associated with the anal canal?
    Superficial venous plexuses
  677. In the large intestine, what results in the inflammation of the veins (superficial venous plexuses) and are itchy varicosities?
    Hemorrhoids
  678. What do the bacterial flora of the large intestine consist of?
    • Bacteria surviving the small intestine that enter the cecum
    • AND
    • Thise entering via the anus
  679. What 4 things do bacteria flora of the large intestine do?
    • Colonize the colon
    • Ferment indigestible carbohydrates
    • Release irritating acids and gases (flatus)
    • Synthesize B complex vitamins and vitamin K
  680. What is the only thing that gets digested in the large intestine?
    Enteric bacteria
  681. What 3 things in the large intestine are reclaimed?
    • Vitamins
    • Water
    • Electrolytes
  682. Which organ's major function is propulsion of fecal material toward the anus?
    The large intestine
  683. Do haustral contractions speed up OR slow segemented movements that move the contents of the colon>?
    Slow
  684. Do haustra sequentially contract OR relax as they are stimulated by distension?
    Contract
  685. Which reflex does the presence of food int he stomach activate?
    Gastrocolic reflex
  686. Which reflex initialtes the peristalsis that forces contents towards the rectum?
    Gastrocolic reflex
  687. Does distension of the recal walls caused by feces stimulate contraction OR does it relax the rectal walls?
    It stimulates contraction
  688. Does distension of the recal walls caused by feces stimulate contraction OR does it relax the internal anal sphincter?
    Relaxes
  689. Do voluntary OR involuntary signals stimulate relaxation of the external anal sphincter, resulting in defecation?
    Voluntary signals
  690. What are smalls herniations of the mucosa through the colon walls defined as?
    Diverticula
  691. What is the formation of diverticula defined as?
    Diverticulosis
  692. What is the inflammation of the diverticula that can cause rupture andleakage of feces into the peritoneal cavity defined as?
    Diverticulitis
  693. During chemical digestion, what is absorbed via the secondary active transport (contransport) with Na+?
    Carbohydrates
  694. Which 3 enzymes are used during th echemical digestion of carbohydrates?
    • Salivary amylase
    • Pancreatic amylase
    • Brush border enzymes
  695. During chemical digestion, what is absorbed in the similar way carbohydrates are absorbed?
    Proteins
  696. During chemical digestion of proteins, which  enzymes are used in the stomach?
    Pepsin
  697. During the chemical digestion of proteins, are pancreatic enzymes and brush border enzymes the enzymes acting in the small intestine OR are they enzymes used in the stomach?
    Small intestine
  698. During chemical digestion of proteins, is pepsin an enzyme used int he stomach OR is it an enzyme acting in the small intestine?
    In the stomach
  699. During chemical digestion of proteins, which type of enzymes are typsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidase?
    Pancreatic enzymes
  700. During chemical digestion of proteins, which type of enzymes are aminopeptidases, carboxypeptidase, and dipeptidases?
    Brush border enzymes

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