2410 unit 1 questions

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  1. Softening of the lower uterine segment at 6wks
    Hegar Sign
  2. Contractions felt after the 4th week of pregnancy 
    Braxton Hicks sign 
  3. Softening of the cervical tip in the 6th wk
    Goodwell's sign 
  4. A bluish color observed in the vaginal mucosa and cervix.
    What week(s) is this noticed?
    • Chadwick sign
    • 6th-8th wk
  5. What are striae gravidarum?
    stretch marks
  6. What is an epulis?
     a raised red nodule on the gums that bleeds easily 
  7. Prenatal visit q4 wks should
    occur between what weeks in a normal pregnancy
    • 16-28 
    • This is twelve wks after the start of 16wks
  8. Prenatal visit q2 wks should
    occur between what weeks in a normal pregnancy
    • 29-36
    • This is 7 wks after the start of 29wks
  9. Weekly visits should occur
    between what weeks in a normal pregnancy
    36 to birth
  10. From GWs ____ to ____ the height of the fundus in cm is app the same as the number of weeks of gestation (+/-2)
    18 to 32 wks
  11. A stable or decreased fundal height may indicate the presence of?
  12. An excessive increase could indicate the presence of?
    Multifetal gestation or hydraminios  
  13. The glucose challenge test is performed between what weeks?
    24 to 28 weeks
  14. GBS testing is performed between what weeks?
    35 and 37 weeks
  15. What are breast shields used for? When and how long should they be worn?
    Breast shields are used for women who have inverted nipples. They should be worn 1 to 2 hrs daily during the last trimester of pregnancy.
  16. Name the exercise that is performed to prevent or relieve back pain
    Pelvic tilt (rock)
  17. Which of the following vaccines can not be given during pregnancy? Select all that apply:

    A)    Hep B

    B)    Chickenpox

    C)    Mumps

    D)   diphtheria

    E)     Influenza

    F)     Tetanus

    G)   Rubella 
    Rubella, chickenpox, and mumps are live vaccines and therefore cannot be given.

    B, C, G
  18. There is an increased risk of miscarriage with caffeine intake greater than _______?
  19. GI tract motility is slowed because
    what hormone?
  20. The glucose tolerance test  (glucose challenge) is given at ____wks. 
    24-28 weeks
  21. Which of the following results
    indicate the need for a 3-hr oral glucose test?

    A)    80-90

    B)    110-120

    C)    135-140

    D)   150-160
    C.  results of >130 to 140 will need the 3GTT
  22. Fetal heart activity can be detected by echo scanner during___ wks gestation and by Doppler during _____ wks
    • Echo—6 to 7 weeks
    • Doppler: 10 to 12 weeks
  23. In post term pregnancy an elevated /d ration indicates what?
    Poorly perfused placenta
  24. What is the normal score for a biophysical profile?
    8 to 10
  25. Amniocentesis is possible after
    week___ of pregnancy.
    Week 14
  26. When is Chorionic Villus Sampling
    is performed?
    Between 10 and 12 weeks gestation
  27. This procedure involves the removal of a small
    tissue specimen from the fetal portion of the placenta. Can be done transvaginally or transabdominally
    Chorionic Villus Sampling
  28. This procedure involves the insertion of a needle
    directly into a fetal umbilical vessel (vein) and is the most widely used method for fetal blood sampling and transfusion.
    Percutaneous Umbilical bloodsampling (PUBS)
  29. When is PUBS performed?
    2nd and 3rd trimesters
  30. Which maternal titer is a positive indirect coombs?

    A)    1:6

    B)    1:8

    C)    1:10

    D)   1:12
    C ; a titer greater than 1:8 is considered positive
  31. What is the normal weight gain in pregnancy?
  32. What is the normal BMI?
  33. Normal weight gain in the 1st
    trimester?...2nd and 3rd?
    • 2 to 5lbs during first trimester
    • 1 lb per week during 2nd and 3rd
  34.  When should the NST be performed?
    After26 wks gestation
  35. Fill in the blanks.

     A reactive NST for a patient after 32 weeks gestation is ___ accels in a ___ minuteperiod, lasting at least _____ and peaking at least ____ beats per minute above the baseline.
    2, 15, 15sec, 15 beats
  36. Fill in the blank.

    For a negative contraction stress test, at least ____
    uterine contractions occur in a _____ period with no ____ or significant ____ decels.
    3, 10, late, variable 
  37. Hydramnios is amniotic fluid  in excess of ____ml and occurs 10 more times in _____ pregnancies.
    2000ml, diabetic
  38. Macrosomia is defined as a birthweight more than ____ to ___ grams.
    4000 to 4500g
  39. What is the target fasting level glucose during pregnancy?
  40. What is the target glucose 1 hr post meal during pregnancy?
    130-140 or less
  41. What is the target glucose 2 hr post meal during pregnancy?
  42. How much Fe+ does a pregnant women need a day?
  43. How much protein does a pregnant women need a day?
    Around 60g/day
  44. How much Ca+ does a pregnant women >19 need a day?
  45. During labor fluids and insulin are adjusted to maintain the blood glucose level at less than___mb/dl
  46. The following symptoms are sign of:

    Irritability, Hunger, Sweating,
    Personality Changes, Weakness, double vision

    A)    Hypoglycemia

    B)    Hyperglycemia

    Answer is(a) hypoglycemia
  47. The following symptoms are sign of:

    Thirst, n/v, and abdominal pain, increased urine, flushed dry skin

    A)    Hypoglycemia

    B)    Hyperglycemia
    Answer is(b) hyperglycemia 
  48. Which of the following are signs of Mg toxicity?

    A)    Loss of patellar reflexes

    B)     Increased patellar reflexes

    C)    RR <12

    D)   RR >20

    E)     Increased LOC

    F)     Decreased LOC

    G)   Oliguria

    H)   Polyuria
    Answer:  a, c, g, f 
  49. What is the therapeutic range of Mg?
    4  to 7
  50. What is the target BP range for severe preeclapsia?
  51. What is the antihypertensive agent of choice for the intrapartum treatment of HTN in severe preeclampsia
    IV hydralazine
  52. ________is the drug most often recommended for treating chronic HTN in pregnancy.
    • Methyldopa
    • (Aldomet)
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2410 unit 1 questions

2410 unit one questions
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