RMA Sample Test

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bowzbabi1
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178123
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RMA Sample Test
Updated:
2012-10-26 10:51:19
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RMA
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Practice test
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  1. An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the 

    A. knee
    B. hip
    C. ankle
    D. elbow
    B. hip
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The kidneys are located behind the 

    A. peritoneum 
    B. spinal column 
    C. bladder 
    D. sternum
    A. peritoneum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the 

    A. uvula 
    B. soft palate 
    C. tongue
    D. epiglottis
    D. epiglottis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is 

    A. elastin
    B. keratin
    C. melanin
    D. collagen
    B. keratin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A doughnut-shaped gland that encircles the urethra is the 

    A. prostate gland 
    B. urinary bladder 
    C. bulbourethral glands
    d. none of the above
    A. prostate gland 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The right lung is divided into how many sections?

    A. 4
    B. 3 
    C. 2
    D. 1 
    B. 3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. The three sections of the small intestine are the 

    A. duodenum, sigmoid, and jejunem
    B. ascending, transverse, and descending 
    C. duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
    D. cecum, duodenum, and ileum
    C. duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. The urinary bladder is located in the 

    A. abdominal cavity
    B. dorsal cavity
    C. pelvic cavity 
    D. ventral cavity
    C. pelvic cavity
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?

    A. freezing
    B. incubation
    C. refrigeration
    D. protection from light
    D. protection from light 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at

    A. puberty
    B. conception
    C. birth
    D. menopause
    A. puberty
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Where do peristaltic waves occur?

    A. large intestine 
    B. esophagus 
    C. liver
    D. small intestine
    B. esophagus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by 

    A. a neurotransmitter 
    B. a dendrite 
    C. an axon
    D. a neuron
    A. a neurotransmitter 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. The duodenum is part of the 

    A. stomach 
    B. large intestine 
    C. liver 
    D. small intestine 
    D. small intestine 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Where are the sublingual glands located?

    A. esophagus 
    B. labia 
    C. abdomen
    D. beneath mucous membrane 
    D. beneath mucous membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. When a muscle contracts, it becomes 

    A. shorter and thicker 
    B. longer and thicker 
    C. shorter and thinner 
    D. longer and thinner 
    A. shorter and thicker
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. What is the medical term for "baby" teeth?

    A. bicupsid 
    B. deciduous 
    C. small teeth 
    D. fake teeth
    B. deciduous 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. The function of insulin is to 

    A. convert glucose into fat 
    B. promote carbohydrate synthesis
    C. assist glucose into the cells
    D. accelerate liver glycogenolysis
    C. assist glucose into the cells 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is 

    A. lordosis
    B. kyphosis
    C. scoliosis
    D. spondylosis
    C. scoliosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. What organ is located int he lymphatic system?

    A. heart 
    B. brain 
    C. spleen
    D. pancreas 
    C. spleen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Prostatic hypertrophy is 

    A. inflamed prostate 
    B. decreased in size of the prostate 
    C. no prostate 
    D. enlarged prostate 
    D. enlarged prostate 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. Functional units of the lungs that are air sacs are called 

    A. visceral pleura 
    B. bronchioles
    C. parietal pleua 
    D. alveoli 
    D. alveoli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the 

    A. oropharynx 
    B. laryngopharynx 
    C. laryx
    D. nasopharynx 
    D. nasopharynx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. The most important digestive enzyme in the gastric juice is 

    A. rennin 
    B. CCK
    C. pepsin
    D. gastrin 
    C. pepsin 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Permanent adult dentition consists of __ teeth

    A. 18
    B. 30
    C. 20
    D. 32 
    D. 32
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is the 

    A. urinary bladder 
    B. Bowman's capsule 
    C. ureter 
    D. renal pelvis 
    D. renal pelvis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Night blindnes may be caused by a deficiency of 

    A. thiamin
    B. vitamin D
    C. niacin 
    D. vitamin A
    D. vitamin A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. The internal folds of the stomach are known as 

    A. rugae 
    B. convolutions 
    C. villi 
    D. cilia 
    A. rugae
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?

    A. coronary 
    B. carotid
    C. pulmonary 
    D. aorta 
    D. aorta 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Digestion DOES NOT involve which organs?

    A. spleen 
    B. liver
    C. large intestine 
    D. tongue 
    A. spleen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Which one of the following is the most common blood disorder that may result from a variety of causes?

    A. leukemia 
    B. thrombocytopenia 
    C. polycythemia 
    D. anemia 
    D. anemia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. The combining form "hist/o" means 

    A. organ 
    B. tissue 
    C. muscle 
    D. fat 
    B. tissue 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?

    A. presbyopia 
    B. conjunctivitis 
    C. glaucoma 
    D. astigmatism 
    A. presbyopia 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The medical term for inflammation of the liver is 

    A. ascites
    B. hepatitis 
    C. hepatomegaly
    D. cirrhosis
    B. hepatitis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. The abbreviation for "prescription" is 

    A. Bx
    B. Fx
    C. Rx
    D. Tx
    C. Rx
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which of the following means a physician who specializes in the study of the anus and the rectum?

    A. proctology 
    B. protalgia 
    C. proctoplasty 
    D. proctologist 
    D. proctologist 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Inflammation of the salivary gland is known as:

    A. sialaden 
    B. sialoangitis
    C. saladenitis 
    D. sialadenitis 
    D. sialadenitis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Which term is best described as "destruction by burning"?

    A. fulguration 
    B. electro cauterization 
    C. anastomosis
    D. cryosurgery 
    B. electro cauterization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. "Abnormal widening of the arterial wall that is weak and bulges", defines the term

    A. arteriosclerosis
    B. embolism 
    C. aneurysm 
    D. phlebitis 
    C. aneurysm 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. The prefix "ad" means 

    A. removal of 
    B. to move away from 
    C. around 
    D. to add to 
    D. to add to 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. The study of the stomach and the intestines is 

    A. enterogastrology 
    B. gastroenterology 
    C. enterology 
    D. gastrology 
    B. gastroenterology 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. The edical term for a toothache is 

    A. detoid 
    B. dentalagia 
    C. dentibuccal 
    D. denticle 
    B. dentalagia 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. In a patient's progress note you see that the physician has used the term "necrosis" regarding a lesion. The physician is referring to 

    A. healthy tissue 
    B. healing tissue 
    C. infected tissue 
    D. dead tissue 
    D. dead tissue 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Which one of the following is a physician having a practice limited to the aging population?

    A. gerontologist 
    B. gynecologist 
    C. gastroenterologist 
    D. pathologist
    A. gerontologist
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. Low blood pressure is 

    A. hypertension 
    B. carcinoma 
    C. hypotension
    D. morphology 
    C. hypotension
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. What is the first portion of the small intestinal?

    A. duodenum
    B. ileum 
    C. cecum 
    D. jejunum 
    A. duodenum
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. "Ostomy" is a 

    A. prefix 
    B. root 
    C. combining form 
    D. suffix 
    D. suffix 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. The inflammation of the pancreas is 

    A. pancreatic
    B. pancreatitis 
    C. precreatin 
    D. pancreatis 
    B. pancreatitis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. Choose the abbreviation that means four times a day

    A. QID 
    B. QD
    C. HS
    D. QOD 
    A. QID 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. The medical term for indigestion is 

    A. stomatitis 
    B. dyspahagia 
    C. dyspepsia 
    D. ascites 
    C. dyspepsia 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?

    A. K
    B. C
    C. D 
    D. E
    B. C
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?

    A. tonsilitis 
    B. toncilitis 
    C. toncillitis 
    D. tonsillitis 
    D. tonsillitis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. The combining form that means "red" is 

    A. leuko
    B. xantho
    C. melano
    D. erythro
    D. erythro
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Which of the following means pertaining to after meals?

    A. postocular 
    B. postfebrile 
    C. postictal 
    D. postprandial 
    D. postprandial 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A small mass of masticated food ready to be swallowed is 

    A. bolus 
    B. chyme 
    C. anabolism 
    D. catabolism 
    A. bolus 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. The term "myotomy" means incision into 

    A. a muscle 
    B. the spinal cord 
    C. the eardrum 
    D. a tendon 
    A. a muscle 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. A hermia of part of the rectum into the vagina is called 

    A. rectocele
    B. rectouretheral
    C. rectostensosis 
    D. rectolingual 
    A. rectocele
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?

    A. suspected child abuse 
    B. advertisements for surrogacy
    C. a minor with a positive pregnancy test 
    D. physician advertising 
    A. suspected child abuse
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from 

    A. contracting diseases 
    B. loss of credentials 
    C. civil and criminal liability 
    D. accidental injury 
    C. civial and criminal liability 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. The committee on Medicolegal Problems of the American Medical Association(AMA) has determined that patients must present evidence of four elements before negligence has been proven. Which of the following is NOT one of the four elements of neglience?

    A. defamation 
    B. direct cause 
    C. duty 
    D. damages 
    A. defamation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. A discussion involving the physician providing the patient or the patients legal representative with a deeper understanding of the patients condition, a full explanation of the plan for treatment, and enough information to decie whether the patient will undergo the treatment or seek an alternative is called what type of consent?

    A. implied consent 
    B. reasonable consent 
    C. informed consent 
    D. contributory consent
    C. informed consent 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?

    A. organ donation 
    B. blood test 
    C. lumbar puncture 
    D. breast biopsy 
    B. blood test 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Translated as "the thing speaks for itself", which of the following is evidence showing that neglience by the accused person may be reasonably inferred from the nature of the injury occurring to the plantiff?

    A. non compus mentis
    B. res ipsa loquitur 
    C. quid quo pro 
    D. corpus jusis 
    B. res ipsa loquitur
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. Which of the following is a court order requiring a witness toproduce records for a trial?

    A. interrogatory 
    B. subpoena duces tecum 
    C. bench warrant 
    D. writ 
    B. subpoena duces tecum 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the medical assistant when assisting the physician with a surgical procedure?

    A. advising the patient about nonsurgical treatment alternatives 
    B. assuring the patient that they will tolerate the procedure well
    C. ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file 
    D. discussing the details of the procedure with the patient in order to obtain written consent for the surgical procedure 
    C. ensuring that there is a signed patient consent form on file 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. Which of the following cases would best exemplify the concept of res ipsa loquitur?

    A. a surgeon leaved a sponge in a patients abdominal cavity after abdoninal surgery 
    B. a physician advises against unnecessary surgery
    C. a physician writes a schedule II drug prescription with no refills 
    D. a health care provider consults another provider for a patient requiring a specialist 
    A. a surgeon leaves a sponge in a patients abdominal cavity after abdominal surgery 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Under the doctrine, physicians are legally responsible for the acts of their employees when they are acting within the scope of their duties or employment

    A. reciprocity 
    B. respondeat superior 
    C. the occupational safety and health act 
    D. patients bill of rights 
    B. respondeat superior 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Medical practice Acts are laws enacted to

    A. prevent malpractice 
    B. institute arbitration 
    C. define what is included in the practice of medicine 
    D. provide medical leave for employees 
    C. define what is included in the practice of medicine 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. In some states, a minor is legally unable to make treatment decisions with limited exceptions. Under what circumstances would a patient such as Jane Doe, a 16- year old minor, suffering from cancer, be allowed to refuse continued chemotherapy treatments?

    A. being abandoned by her parents 
    B. being an emancipated minor 
    C. being declaed mentally incompetent 
    D. under the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur 
    B. being an emancipated minor 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. An example of a medical assistant illegally precticing medicine is 

    A. interviewing a patient 
    B. giving advice on a patient condition 
    C. taking vital signs 
    D. scheduling a patient appointment 
    B. giving advice on a patient condition 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. The controlled substances act is a united statess law that regulates controlled drugs. The law is administered by the Drug Enforcement Administration. All of the following are responsibilites of medical assistants in the medical setting when dealing with controlled substance, EXCEPT

    A. prescribing controlled drugs 
    B. maintaining an inventory of controlled substances 
    C. storing controlled substances in a locked cabinet or safe 
    D. reporting loss or theft of controlled substances 
    A. prescribing controlled drugs 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. In the absence of the employing physician, a medical assistant determines that a patient needs a precription drug and dispenses the wrong drug from the physicians supply the performance of this totally wrongful and unlawful act is knwon as 

    A. misfeasance 
    B. nonfeasance 
    C. duty 
    D. malfeasance 
    D. malfeasance 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. Dr. martin agrees to perform an appendectomy on Mrs. O'Hara. Mrs O'hara has received anesthesia and is prepped for surgery. Dr. Martin is double-booked so he allows the Chief Resident, Dr. Thompson, to perform Mrs. O'hara's appendectomy. The practice of substituting another surgeon without the patients consent is the unethical situation known as 

    A. ghost surgery 
    B. surgical professtional courtesy 
    C. surgical fee splitting 
    D. contingent surgery 
    A. ghost surgery
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. Mrs. Jones is diagnosed with a terminal illness. She has given permission for her husband, Mr Jones, to have access to her medical information. Dr. Smith informs Mr. Jones that his wife is terminally ill. Mr Jones does not want Dr. Smith to tell her patient that she is terminally ill. The physician would violate which of the following ethical principles if she does not inform fer patient of the correct diagnosis?

    A. veracity 
    B. fair distribution of benefits 
    C. maleficence 
    D. justice 
    A. veracity 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for referral of a patient, both are guilty of un unethical practice called 

    A. fee waiver 
    B. marketing 
    C. contractual relationship
    D. fee splitting 
    D. fee splitting 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  75. If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of 

    A. fee splitting 
    B. a misdemeanor 
    C. violation of confidentiality
    D. insurance fraud 
    A. fee splitting 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  76. A physician performed plastic surgery on a patient and later published an article about the procedure in a medical journal. A photograph of the surgical site was included. Permission to publish the photograph had not been obtained. This act is an example of 

    A. fraud 
    B. invasion of privacy 
    C. neglience 
    D. malfeasance 
    B. invasion of privacy 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. Positioning or sitting a desk communicated the message of 

    A. authority 
    B. impartiality 
    C. acknowledgment 
    D. congruency 
    A. authority 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called 

    A. focusing 
    B. reflecting 
    C. clarification 
    D. restating 
    D. restating 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. The justication of behavior with socially-acceptable reasons and the tendency to ignore the real reasons underlying the behavior is a defense mechanism. An example is, I dieted strictly all day; therefore, its okay to eat a couple of candy 
    bars later in the evening after supper." This defense mechanism is known as bars later in this evening after supper." This defense mechanism is known as

    A. compensation 
    B. repression 
    C. displacement 
    D. rationalization 
    D. rationalization 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Psychologist Abraham Maslow created the "Hierarchy of Needs". Maslow believed that our human needs can be categorized into five levels and that the needs of each level must be satisfied before we canmove on to the next. Which of the following is the correct order of Maslow's "Hierarchy of Needs." stating from the bottom to the top?

    A. physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, esteem and recognition, self actualization
    B. physiological needs, love and belonging, esteem and recognition, saftey and security, self actualization 
    C. physiological needs, safety and security, esteem and recognition, love and belonging, self actualization 
    D. physiological needs, love and belonging, safety and security, esteem and recognition, self actualization 
    A. physiological needs, safety and security, love and belonging, esteem and recognition, self actualization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. When exlaining drug use terminology to the patient, prophylactic is best explained as 

    A. treating and curing a disorder (e.g. antibiotics cure bacterial infections)
    B. helping to determine the cause of a particular health problem (e.g. injecting antigen serum for allergy testing)
    C. indicating that the drug does not cur, but provides relief from pain or symptoms related to the disorder (e.g. the use of an antihistamine for allergy symptoms or narcotics for pain relief)
    D. preventing the occurrence of a condition (e.g. vaccines prevent the occurrence of specific infectious diseases)
    D. preventing the occurrence of a condition (e.g. vaccines prevent the occurrence of specific infectious diseases)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. Patient education for preventinf Lyme disease includes all of the following except 

    A. remove a tick by squeezing or cruching the tick with tweezers 
    B. use insect repellants that contain DEET
    C. wear pants tucked into socs and long sleeved shirts when walking in wooded or grassy areas 
    D. understand that deer ticks are no bigger than the heas of a pin or a grain or pepper
    A. remove a tick by squeezing or cruching the tick with tweezers 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Instructing patients in the collection of a clean catch, midstream urine specimen is especially important in order to avoid contamination. Which of the following is incorrect in patient education?

    A. fill the contaner half way 
    B. cleanse each side of the urinary meatus with a front to back motion from the pubic to the anus 
    C. on the second motion, cleanse directly across the meastus back to front, using another antiseptic wipe 
    D. allow the initial flow of urine to pass into the toilet flushing the opening of the urethra
    C. on the second motion, cleanse directly across the meastus back to front, using another antiseptic wipe 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. Patient education for minor burn care involves all of the following EXCEPT

    A. gentle cleansing of the wound with bactericidal solution (i.e. povidone-iodine solution [betadine])
    B. eating a low calorie, low protein diet to promote healing 
    C.paying attention for fever, malaise, inflammation, swelling, increades pain, odor, and draining from the burn area 
    D. covering the wound with an antibiotic ointment (silver sulfadiazine)
    B. eating a low calorie, low protein diet to promote healing 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. Diabetic patient education must be acknowledged and followed by the patient. Which of the following is not recommended for the diabetic patient?

    A. maintain plasma glucose level between 120 and 200 mg/dl
    B. check your feet every day, using a mirror if necessary 
    C. stop smoking. smotking causes vasoconstriction which reduces circulation to the extremities 
    D. wash your feet every day with warm (not hot) water and  mild soap 
    A. maintain plasma glucose level betwwen 120 and 200 mg/dl
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Educating female patients on signs and symptoms of a myocardial infarction includes all of the following except

    A. shortness of breath (SOB)
    B. dizziness (vertigo)- unexplained lightheadeadness or syncopal episodes 
    C. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum 
    D. back pain and aching and throbbing in the biceps or forearms 
    C. feeling of lightness or feeling famished in the mediastinum 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called 

    A. coordination of benefits 
    B. major medical 
    C. service benefit plan 
    D. co payment plan 
    D. coordination of benefits 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  88. The policy describing a period of non coverage for conditons diagnosed prior to the issurance of an insurance benfit plan is called 

    A. a special risk rider 
    B. a pre existing conditons waiver
    C. a hold harmless clause 
    D. an exclusion 
    B. a pre existing conditions waiver 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  89. Medicare Part B covers 

    A. routine eye examinations 
    B. prescription medical equipment 
    C. prescription drugs 
    D. elective cosmetic surgery 
    B. prescription medical equipment 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  90. Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim measns that the physician is compensated 

    A. 100% of the limiting charge 
    B. 100% of the usual and customary fee
    C. 70% of the allowable charge 
    D. 80% of approved charge 
    D. 80% of the usual and customary fee
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  91. This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependeant children of veterans who diead as a result of service related disabilities

    A. TRICARE extra 
    B. TRICARE standard 
    C. CHAMPVA
    D. TRICARE prime 
    C. CHAMPVA 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  92. Workers compensation insurance provides benefits for 

    A. non occupational injuries and illnesses 
    B. employees whose jobs have been elimated 
    C. occupational injuries 
    D. family medical leave 
    C. occupational injuries 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  93. An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is 

    A. 99211
    B. 934.6
    C. J0540
    D. V72.3
    C. J0540
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  94. A written authorization by the patient giving the insurance company the right to pay the physician directly for billed services is known as the 

    A. copayment 
    B. premium 
    C. assinment of benefits 
    D. deductible 
    C. assignment of benefits 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. A letter for statement from the insurance carrier escribing what was paid, denied, or reduced in payment. Also contains information about amounts applied to the deductible, the patients co insurance, and the allowed amounts. 

    A. participating providers (PAR)
    B. explanation of benefits (EOB)
    C. assignment of benefits (AOB)
    D. third party administrator (TPA)
    B. explanation of benefits (EOB)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. A range of usual fes in the same community is the 

    A. customary fee
    B. fee profile 
    C. prevailing fee
    D. usual fee
    C. previaling fee 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  97. The notice sent to the patient showing the amount owed to the physician is called the 

    A. itemized statement 
    B. chart of accounts 
    C. receivables summary 
    D. CMS 1500 
    A. itemized statement 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  98. An organization that contracts with the government to handle and mediate insurance claims from the medical facilities, home health agencies, or providers of medical services or supplies 

    A. fiscal intermediary 
    B. carrier 
    C. guarantor 
    D. service benefit plan 
    A. fiscal intermediary 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  99. Medical sole proproetorship, partnerships, groups and corporations are encouraged to purchase insurance policies that include benefits for medical expenses payable to individuals who are injured in the insured persons home, business, or car, without regards to the insured persons actual legal liability for the accident. This type of insurance is called 

    a. life insurance 
    b. special risk insurance 
    d. disability (loss of income) protection 
    d. liability insurance 
    d. liability insurance 
  100. A person who holds a health benefit plan is a 

    a. subscriber 
    d. rider
    c. dependent 
    d. medical indigent 
    a. subscriber 
  101. Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error?

    A. using "rule out" diagnosis 
    B. entering all diagnoses on the claim 
    C. recording one item per line 
    D. using both ICD-9 and CPT codes
    A. using "rule out" diagnosis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  102. In 2006, drug and prescription benefits were added allowing Medicare recipients the option of choosing, at a reduced cost, a plan that pays for prescription drugs with just a small co payment from the patient. Beneficiaries choose the drug plan and pay a monthly premium. This option is 

    A. Medicare part B
    B. Medicare Advantage (formerly medicare + choice)
    C. Medicare Part D 
    D. Medicare Part A 
    C. Medicare Part D 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  103. The amount specified by an insurance plan that the patient must pay before the plan will pay is the 

    A. deductible 
    B. claim 
    C. premium 
    D. copayment 
    D. copayment 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  104. Medicare Part B says physicians on a fee scale consisting of three parts: 1. physicians work. 2. charge based professional liability expenses. 3. charge based overhead. This fee scale is known as 

    A. Diagnostic related group (DRG)
    B. CMS 1500
    C. fee for service scale 
    D. resource based relative value scale (RBRVS)
    D. resource based relative value scale (RBRVS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  105. Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physicians office should 

    A. continue to send monthly statements 
    B. offer the patient a payment plac 
    C. continue billing late fees 
    D. refer all inquiries to the collection agency 
    D. refer all inquiries to the collection agency 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  106. The petty cash fund may be used 

    A. to make change for patients 
    B. for small incidental items 
    C. to balance day sheet discrepancies 
    D. for paying vendors 
    B. for small incidental items 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  107. Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column?

    a. insurance write offs 
    b. payments received 
    c. services rendered 
    d. credit balances
    a, insurance write offs 
  108. If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the toal expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a 

    A. net profit of $17,500
    B. gross profit of $33,000
    C. net profit of $2,000
    D. gross profit of $17,500
    C. net profit of $2,000
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  109. The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the 

    A. maker 
    B. payee
    C. endorsement 
    D. payer 
    B. payee
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  110. Which one of the following represents the total of all patients outstanding balances owed to the practice?

    A. receipts 
    B. charges 
    C. accounts payable 
    D. accounts receivable 
    D. accounts receivable 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  111. Regulation Z of the truth in Lending Act is enforces by the Federal Trade Commission and is a part of the Consumer Credit Protection Act. When a physician agrees and accepts payment is installments, the physician must provide a disclosure statement about finance charges even if no finance charges are involved. What is the minimum number of installments in this Regulation?

    A. four installments 
    B. two installments 
    C. three installments 
    D. more than four installments 
    D. more than four installments 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  112. A compilation or average of physician fees over given perios is know as 

    A. fee profile 
    B. posting 
    C. a cycle schedule
    D. a fee schedule 
    A. fee profile 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  113. Expenses that will most likely be included in the capital for a medical facility are

    A. salaries 
    B. medical equipment 
    C. rent or mortgage 
    c. office supplies 
    B. medical equipment 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  114. "For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement?

    A. blank 
    B. restrictive 
    C. special 
    D. qualified 
    B. restrictive 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  115. To properly void a check write "VOID" across the front and 

    A. return it to the bank 
    B. destroy it after reciveing the back statment 
    C. retain it with canceled checks, in numeric order 
    D. destroy it immediately
    C. retain it with canceled checks, in numeric order 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  116. Things that are owed or debts are called 

    A. liabilities 
    B. proprietorship 
    C. assets 
    D. equities 
    A. liabilities 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  117. Nonsufficient funds or NSF refers to the situation in which the bank

    A. routing number is incorrect
    B. returns a deposited check from an account that does not have enough funds to cover the amount of the check 
    C. returns a deposited check due to improper endorsement 
    D. rejects a deposited check due to a error in the deposit 
    B. returns a deposited check from an account that does not have enough funds to cover the amount of the check 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. The person who signs his or her name on the back of a check for the purpose of transferring title to another person is the 

    A. drawee 
    B. holder
    C. endorser 
    D. drawer 
    C. endorser 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  119. Which one of the following represents a successful "trial balance"?

    A. assests equal the liabilities plus equity 
    B. bank statement balances with the checkbook 
    C. all transactions balance with the end of the day journal 
    D. cash flow statement balances with the checkbook 
    C. all transactions balance with the end of the day journal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. A medical assistant, made an incorrect entry into her patients medical record. Shes understand that corrections in the medical record are made by 

    a. obliterating the incorrect entry 
    b. drawing a line through the text to be corrected and then writing the new information above the old 
    c. drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it 
    d. removing and shredding the page with the incorrect entry from the paper record 
    c. drawing a line through the text to be corrected, writing the new information above the old, dating the new entry, and signing it 
  121. It is recommened that a multipurpose ABC fire extinguisher be readily available and prominently mounted in a visible, convenient place int he medical office. All employees must be trained in the use of the fire extinguisher. The proper way to operate a fire extinguisher is to 

    A. pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle 
    B. aim the hose, pull the pin, queeze the handle, sweep the nozzle 
    C. aim the hose, squeeze the handle, pull the pin, sweep the nozzle 
    D. pull the pin, aim the hose, sweep the nozzle, squeeze the handle 
    A. pull the pin, aim the hose, squeeze the handle, sweep the nozzle 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?

    A. modified wave scheduling patterns 
    B. days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds 
    C. patient perferences regarding appointment times 
    D. patient wait time in exam rooms 
    D. days and hours that physician performs hospital rounds 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  123. When a patient cancels his or her appointment or merely does not show up, the correct course of action is to 

    A. reprimand the patient 
    B. do nothing-the patient obviously does not want to see the doctor
    C. have the doctoc call the patient 
    D. call the aptient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database
    D. call the aptient and try to reschedule for another time; document the missed appointment in the patient record and in the appointment book or database
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  124. Which of the following dates is written correctly for inclusion in the heading of a business letter?

    A. July 27th, 2011
    B. 7/27/11
    C. July 27, '11
    D. July 27, 2011
    D. July 27, 2011
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. When making travel arrangements for thr physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called 

    A. an inventory
    B. an itinerary 
    C. an honorarium 
    D. a statement 
    B. an itinerary 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  126. Which of the following is the best method of interacting with an angry patient in the reception area?

    A. invite the patient into a room out of the reception area 
    B. sit down next to the patient and gently pat his or her back to sooth the patient 
    C. be assertive in calming the patient down
    D. ignore the patient. When ignored, patients will stop unacceptable behavior 
    A. invite the patient into a room out of the reception area 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  127. When patients arrive at the physicians office, medical records should not be found lying on the reception desk in view of patients signing in or approaching the desk. Avoiding this situation prevents violation of regulations established by the 

    A. occupational safety and health administration act (OSHA)
    B. the joint commission 
    C. health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)
    D. clinical laboratory improvement ammendments (CLIA)
    C. health insurance portability and accountability act (HIPAA)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. The method used to accommodate appointmments for minor emergencies in the physicians office is to 

    A. leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule 
    B. advise the patient to call "911"
    C. have special evening appointments for emergencies 
    D. refer all emergency cases to the nearest paramedic station
    A. leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  129. To prevent back pain or a workplace injury when working with an object, ergonomically, which of the following ergonomic stance is not recommended?

    A. keep feet together
    B. bend the knees when lowering the object 
    C. tuck the chin in slightly 
    D. get close to the object 
    A. keep feet together 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. A method of priritizing patients so that the most urgent receive care first is called 

    A. triage 
    B. double booking 
    C. risk management 
    D. case management 
    A. triage 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  131. An approach of sensitivity to the individual needs and reactions of patients beginsfrom the initial contact with the medical receptionist to the conclusion of the patients treatment. This approach is known as 

    A. sarcasm 
    B. malediction
    C. empathy 
    D. sympathy 
    C. empathy 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  132. Which of the following type of magazines or journals should not be in the reception area?

    A. good hosusekeeping 
    B. u.s. new and world report 
    C. physician professional journals 
    D. readers digest 
    C. physician professional journals 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  133. Who is the legal owner of the medical record (original hardcopy or electronic medical record)?

    A. the patient 
    B. the physician or medical facility which initiaited and developed the record 
    C. both the physician and the patient 
    D. the patients insurance company 
    B. the physician or medical facility which initiaited and developed the record 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  134. Medical reocrds in thish medical office are filed alphabetically. Arrange the following names in alphabetical order to prepare them for filing. Select the sequence of the numbers correctly that alphabetizes the names. 
    (1) Smith, James 
    (2) Smithson, Jane 
    (3) Smithy, J
    (4) sMITHE, John

    A. (1),(4),(2),(3)
    B. (3),(2),(4),(1)
    C. (4),(2),(3),(1)
    D. (2),(3),(1),(4)
    A. (1),(4),(2),(3)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  135. Whean an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the 

    A. invoice
    B. packing slip
    C. warranty 
    D. receipt 
    B. packing slip 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  136. When a patient fails to keep an appointment the medical assistant should 

    A. document the failed appointment in the patients chart 
    B. refuse further treatments 
    C. call the patients nearest relative 
    D. bill the appointment fee to the insurance company 
    A. document the failed appointment in the patients chart 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  137. Which one of the following represents the statistical characteristics of human populations (as in date of birth, address, telephone number, occupation, place of employment) used especially to identify markets?

    A. template 
    B. demographic 
    C. matrix
    D. consumer 
    B. demographic 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  138. According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with 

    A. hair 
    B. sweat 
    C. skin 
    D. blood 
    D. blood 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  139. Sterile fiels rules include all of the following EXCEPT 

    A. sterile team members do not need to face each other 
    B. nonsterile persons or items should never cross the sterile field 
    C. talking over a sterile field should be kept to a minimum
    D. always keep the sterile field in your view 
    A. sterile team members do not need to face each other 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  140. When performing medical aseptic handwashing, the hands should be positioned 

    A. below the waist 
    B. below the elbows 
    C. above the elbows 
    D. level with the elbows 
    B. below the elbows 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  141. The cleansing process used to remove debris such as blood, tissue, and other body fluids from medical instruments or equipment is called 

    A. sterilization 
    B. sanitation 
    C. asepsis 
    D. disinfection 
    B. sanitation 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  142. The destruction of all microorganizams is essential for surgical asepsis. The methos often used in the medical office that completely destrops microorganisms is 

    A. disinfection 
    B. sterilization 
    C. boiling 
    D. sanitization 
    B. sterilization 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  143. Monica is responsible for sterilizing instruments. she places a biological sterilization indicator into the autoclave to test the effectivenes of the sterilization process. What information is provided by thr biological sterilization indicator?

    A. the presence of spores in the autoclave 
    B. maximum temperature reached during the sterilization process
    C. presence of microorganisms in the items that were sterilized 
    D. highest pressure reached during the sterilization process 
    A. the presence of spores in the autoclave 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  144. Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of 

    A. chemicals 
    B. steam 
    C. gas
    D. pressure 
    A. chemicals 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  145. Which one of the following is the primary methos for sterilizing instruments and equipment?

    A. dry heat process 
    B. gas processes 
    C. autoclave 
    D. chemicals 
    C. autoclave 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  146. Which of the following are applied to the outside of the material used to wrap insturments or supplies for the autoclave that lets you know when an item or items have been sterilized?

    A. thermometers 
    B. sterilization indicators 
    C. markers 
    D. labels 
    B. sterilization indicators 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  147. The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to 

    A. release the steam 
    B. avoid the pressure build up 
    C. prevent contamination 
    D. allow the items to dry 
    D. allow the items to dry 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  148. A stainless steel instrument with a handle at one end and two prongs at the other end used to test hearing is a 

    A. tuning fork
    B. reflux hammer 
    C. tuning knife 
    D. percussion hammer 
    A. tuning fork
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  149. Which of the following is a surgical instrument with slender jaws used for grasping blood vessels and establishing homeostasis?

    A. thumb forcep
    B. hemostat clamp
    C. needle holder 
    D. kelly clamp 
    B. hemostat clamp 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  150. Instruments used to take blood pressure are the 

    A.sphygmomnometer and stethoscope 
    B. sphygmanometer and stethscope 
    C. sphygmomanometer and stethoscope 
    D. stethoscope and sphygmomometer 
    C. sphygmomanometer and stethoscope 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  151. What instrument holds open layers of tissue, exposing the areas beneath?

    A. towel clamp 
    B. retractors 
    C. forceps 
    D. hemostats 
    B. retractos 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  152. What kind of machines do electrocardiograph technicians operate?

    A. EKG
    B. MRI
    C. ultrasound 
    D. EEG
    A. EKG
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  153. When obtaining a patients blood pressure, the patients arm should she 

    A. beleow waist level 
    B. at waist level 
    C. at the level of the heart 
    D. slightly below the level of the heart
    C. at the level of the heart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  154. The instrument used to view the urinary bladder is 

    A. a otoscope 
    B. a urinoscope 
    C. a cystscope 
    D. a sigmoid scope 
    C. a cystscope 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  155. Forceps are used to 

    A. close incisions 
    B. retract tissue 
    C. hold tissue 
    D. holds drapes 
    C. hold tissue 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  156. A marked drop in blood pressure is found with 

    A. shock 
    B. hysteria 
    C. fright 
    D. hypertension 
    A. shock 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  157. The signs and symptoms of IDDM (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus) do not include 

    A. hyperglycemia and polyuria 
    B. weight gain 
    C. ketonuria and glycosuria 
    D. weight loss 
    B. weight loss 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. To obtain the most accourate rate, respirations should be counted for 

    A. 15 seconds and multiply by 4 
    B. 10 seconds and multiply by 6 
    C. 30 seconds and mulitply by 2 
    D. 60 seconds 
    D. 60 seconds 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  159. Which of the following is not associated with insulin dependent diabetes mellitus?

    A. type 1A and type 1B
    B. due to lack of insulin 
    C. type 1 
    D. type II
    D. type II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of 

    A. 20-40 beats per minute 
    B. 40-55 beats per minute
    C. 60-80 beats per minute 
    D. 100-110 beats per minute 
    C. 60-80 beats per minute 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. Normal bacteris that are found in the intestinal tract and are the common cause of lower tract urinary infections (due to improper hygiene after bowel movements), are

    A. nitrites 
    B. E.coli 
    C. ketones 
    D. electrolytes 
    B. E. coli 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. A sudden attack, such as that observed in epilepsy is known as 

    A. inspiration
    B. an aneurysm 
    C. gerneralization 
    D. a seizure 
    D. a seizure 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is

    A. radial 
    B. popliteal 
    C. carotid 
    D. brachial 
    A. radial 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. The knee chest position is used for examination of the 

    A. limbar spine 
    B. bladder 
    C. rectum 
    D. abdomen
    C. rectum 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. A patient short of breath should be put into what position on the examination table?

    A. fowlers 
    B. prone 
    C. supine 
    D. sims 
    A. fowlers 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. Cheyne Stokes describes a 

    A. type of pulse 
    B. surgical instrument
    C. stethoscope
    D. type of respiration 
    D. type of respiration 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. Which statement is considered to be closed-ended?

    A. Describe the pain you are having in your head 
    B. Describe the abdominal pain you are having 
    C. Do you have a headache?
    D. Tell me how you hurt you back 
    C. Do you have a headache?
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Cardinal signs are also known as 

    A. blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations 
    B. oxygen saturation 
    C. height and weight 
    D. pulse oximeter 
    A. blood pressure, temperature, pulse, respirations 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to be faint. into what position do you quickly place your patient in?

    A. lithotomy 
    B. sims 
    C. semi fowlers 
    D. Trendelenburg
    D. Trendelenburg
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. What type of pulse is obtained using a stethoscope?

    A. brachial 
    B. radial 
    C. popliteal 
    D. apical 
    D. apical 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. Two tablespoon of medication are equal to 

    A. 1 mL
    B. 15 cc
    C. 30 mL
    D. 20 cc
    C. 30 ml
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Samantha is adminstering an infants first dose of the Diptheria, tetanus, pertussis vaccine. What is the safest site for an intramuscular injection on the infant?

    A. vastus lateralis 
    B. deltoid 
    C. dorsogluteal 
    D. abdomen
    A. vastus lateralis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. Sarah has been given the following physician order: give keflex 1 gram orally now. the drug that is available is the Kefles 250mg per capsule. How many capsules should the aptient receive 

    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 0.125
    D. 0.25
    B. 4
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. Tim is newly diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes Mellitus. Tim si recieving insulin. His medical assistant knows that Tim needs to be taught to be cautious about which of the following adverse effects?

    A. malignant hyperthermia 
    B. malignant hypertension 
    C. severe hyperglycemia 
    D. hypogylcemic reaction 
    D. hypogylcemic reaction 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Which of the following type of intramuscular injections is recommended for the irritating or staining medications?

    A. z-track
    B. subcutaneous 
    C. intramuscular 
    D. intradermal 
    A. z track
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. While administering an intramussular injection, the medical assistant inadvertently aspirates blood into the syringe. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

    A. insert the needle deeper 
    B. withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over
    C. continue the injection 
    D. change the needle angle 
    B. withdraw the needle completely and start the procedure over
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  177. Which of the following is a legally binding request to provide records or documents to a court that is usually issued to the person considered the custodian of the records?

    A. res judicata
    B. respondeat superior 
    C. subpoena duces tecum 
    D. prima facie 
    C. subpoena duces tecum 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  178. Dr. Elisabeth Kubler-Ross stages of Death and Dying progress through five stages. Which of the following is the correct order of her Death and Dying stages?

    A. denial, depression, anger, bargaining, acceptance
    B. anger, depression, denial, bargaining, acceptance 
    C. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance 
    D. depression, anger, bargaining, denial, acceptance 
    C. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  179. Muscles are attached to bones by 

    A. joints
    B. fascia 
    C. tendons 
    D. ligaments 
    C. tendons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  180. A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is 

    A. a compund fracture 
    B. a comminuted fracture 
    C. a greenstick fracture 
    D. an open fracture 
    aB. a comminuted fracture 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  181. The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the 

    A. parietal pericardium 
    B. visceral pericardium 
    C. epicardium 
    D. fibrous pericardium 
    D. fibrous pericardium 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  182. A patient diagnosed with epistaxis has 

    A. an allergy 
    B. bloody nose 
    C. a bee sting 
    D. a vaginal discharge 
    B. bloody nose 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  183. The thoracic cavity is lined by the

    A. meninges
    B. peritoneum
    C. mediastinum  
    D. pleural membrane
    D. pleural membrane
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  184. When gastric contents leaks into the abdominal cavity from perforation of the stomach it is called:

    A. pyelonephritis 
    B. peritonitis 
    C. duodenal ulcer
    D. vomiting 
    B. peritonitis 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  185. The largest glandular organ in the body is the 

    A. pancreas
    B. gallbladder 
    C. heart 
    D. liver 
    D. liver 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  186. The urinary system consists of 

    A. the urinary bladder, two kidneys and the urethra 
    B. the urethra, two kidneys and two uretrs
    C. two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra 
    D. two kidneys and the urethra 
    C. two kidneys, two ureters, urinary bladder and the urethra 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  187. With respect to educating patients on the functions of minerals in the body, which combination of mineral to sources is incorrect?

    A. potassium- bananas, raisins, green beans, broccoli, carrots, potatoes, meats, peanut butter 
    B. sodium- salt, milk and milk products, vegetables 
    C. calcium- milk and milk products, dark green, leafy vegetables, tofu and soy products 
    D. iron- nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks
    D. iron- nuts, whole grains, vegetables, coffee, tea, cocoa, egg yolks
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  188. A genetic disorder characterized by the inability of the blood to clot properly is 

    A. thalassemia 
    B. galactosemia 
    C. thrombocythemia 
    D. hemophilia 
    D. hemophilia
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  189. The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the insurrance of an insurance benefit plan is called 

    A. a pre existing conditions waiver
    B. an exclusion 
    C. a hold-harmless clause 
    D. a special risk rider 
    A. a pre existing conditions waiver
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  190. The hormone responsible for ovulation is 

    A. TSH 
    B. LH 
    C. FSH
    D. ACTH
    B. LH
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  191. Medicare Part B covers 

    A. prescription medical equipment 
    B. prescription drugs 
    C. routine eye examinations 
    D. elective cosmetic surgery 
    A. prescription medical equipment 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  192. Encephalopathy is defined as 

    A. inflammation of the brain 
    B. any dysfunction of the brain
    C. deterioration of the brain 
    D. swelling of the brain 
    B. any dysfunction of the brain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  193. The medical term for indigestion is 

    A. stomatitis 
    B. dyspahagia 
    C. ascites 
    D. dyspepsia 
    D. dyspepsia 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  194. A range of usual fees in the same community is the 

    A. prevailing fee
    B. usual fee
    C. fee profile 
    D. customary fee
    A. prevailing fee
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  195. This insurance covers health benefits program for the spouses and dependent children of veterans suffering total, permanent, service-connected disabilities and for surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as a result of service-related disabilities. 

    A. TRICARE Prime 
    B. TRICARE Extra 
    C. CHAMPVA
    D. TRICARE Standard 
    C. CHAMPVA 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  196. The surgical incision into the abdomen is 

    A. hemiotomy 
    B. laparotomy
    C. ileostomy 
    D. vagotomy 
    B. laparotomy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  197. This type of check has a detachable form.  The detachable portion is used to itemize or specify the purpose for which the check is drawn and shows discounts and various itemizations.  The detachable portion is removed before the check is presented for payment.

    A. cashiers check 
    B. bank draft 
    C. voucher check 
    D. limited check 
    C. voucher check 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  198. When an order arrives from a supplier, the box should be inventoried. The list of the items included in a shipment is called the 

    A. invoice 
    B. receipt 
    C. warranty 
    D. packing slip 
    D. packing slip 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  199. Medical records in this medical office are filed via terminal digit order. Arrange the follwoing medical record numbers in terminal digit order from the lowest to the highest.  Select the correct terminal digit order sequence.
    (1) 06 14 06
    (2) 06 06 06
    (3) 06 05 06
    (4) 05 01 06

    A. 4, 3, 2, 1
    B. 4, 2, 3, 1
    C. 1, 2, 3, 4
    D. 2, 3, 1, 4
    A. 4, 3, 2, 1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  200. The medical assistant develops a matrix or a template prior to creating the physicians schedule in order to 

    A. block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients 
    B. prevent overcrowding in the reception area 
    C. allow patient self scheduling 
    D. establish the legality of the appointment book 
    A. block out time slots when the physician is not available to see patients 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  201. What information would you need in order to properly matrix the appointment book or electronic medical record?

    A. patient perferences regarding appointment times 
    B. days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds 
    C. modifed wave scheduling patterns 
    D. patient wait times in exam rooms 
    B. days and hours the physician performs hospital rounds 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  202. Laura disinfects the exam tables in between each patient using a 1:10 bleach solution. In order for the process to be effective she must

    a. leave the disinfection solution in an open container to allow evaporation.
     b. leave the solution on the exam tables for 15 minutes in order to kill spores and viruses. 
    c. dilute the bleach solution with boiling water. 
    d. prepare the solution according to the recommended dilution, store the solution in a closed container to avoid evaporation, change the after the recommended period of expiration
    c. dilute the bleach solution with boiling water. 
  203. The third level of infection control is 

    A. washing 
    B. sterilization 
    C. disinfection 
    D. sanitization 
    B. sterilization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  204. Sterilization is the 

    A. destruction of all microbial life 
    B. careful cleaning of instruments 
    C. removal of blood and body fluids 
    D. destruction of pathogens 
    A. destrucion of all microbial life 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  205. You have just a venipuncture on your patient and the patient says she feels like she is going to faint. Into what position do you quickly place your patient in?

    A. semi-fowlers 
    B. lithotomy 
    C. trendelenburg 
    D. sims 
    C. trendelenburg 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  206. Electrosurgery is used for 

    A. removal of benign skin lesions 
    B. aspirating tissues or cells 
    C. freezing tissue 
    D. laser a targeted area 
    A. removal of benign skin lesions 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  207. When  preparing a pamphlet for the gastroenterologist’s office regarding IBS you would want to include information regarding the treatment of

    A. chronic constipation and diarrhea 
    B. bladder control 
    C. epistaxis 
    D. joint pain 
    A. chronic constipation and diarrhea 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  208. Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will case 

    A. excessive bleeding 
    B. dilution of the sample with tissue fluid 
    C. permanent nerve damage 
    D. the site to become cyanotic 
    B. dilution of the sample with tissue fluid 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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