TranslatFINAL

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  1. Image Upload
    Anticodon
  2. Image Upload
    Ribose-phosphate backbone
  3. Image Upload
    anticodon loop
  4. Image Upload
    unpaired base
  5. Image Upload
    hydrogen-bonded base pairs
  6. Image Upload
    T-loop
  7. Image Upload
    D-loop
  8. The secondary structure of tRNAs exhibits a ________ pattern
    cloverleaf
  9. what are the four components of the secondary structure of tRNA?
    • 3 stem-loop structures
    • variable region
    • An acceptor stem
    • 3' single strand region
  10. The actual three-dimensional or tertiary structure of tRNA involves....
    additional folding of the secondary structure
  11. In addition to the normal A, U, G and C nucleotides, tRNAs commonly contain...
    modified nucleotides
  12. More than ____ of modified nucleotides can be contained in tRNAs.
    60
  13. Where is the anticodon located in the tRNA?
    in the second loop region.
  14. where do amino acids become attached to tRNA?
    the acceptor stem
  15. The "I" modified base is?
    Inosine
  16. The "ml" modified base is?
    methylinosine
  17. The "T" modified base is?
    ribothymidine
  18. The "UH2" modified base is?
    dihydrouridine
  19. The "m2G" modified base is?
    dimethylguanosine
  20. The "Psi" modified base is?
    pseudouridine
  21. What attahces amino acids to tRNAs?
    aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases
  22. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases are...
    The enzymes that attach amino acids to tRNAs
  23. How many types of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases are there?
    20 types

    • Why are there only 20 aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases?
    • there is one for each amino acid
  24. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases catalyze a two-step reaction involving what three different molecules?
    Amino acid, tRNA and ATP
  25. What are the three steps to the catalytic function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase?
    • 1) An amino acid and ATP bind to the enzyme and AMP is covalently bound to the amino acid then pyrophosphate is released
    • 2) The correct tRNA binds to the enzyme. The amino acid becomes covalently attached to the 3' end of the tRNA and AMP is released.
    • 3) The "charged" tRNA is released
  26. What group is at the 5' end of tRNA?
    phosphate group
  27. What three base pairs are at the 3' end in tRNA?
    CCA
  28. How many different base pairs are in the D loop?
    4
  29. How many different base pairs are in the T loop?
    6
  30. How many different base pairs are in the anticodon?
    6
  31. What is the order of the base pairs in the D loop?
    A, G, UH2, C, G, G, UH2, A
  32. What is the order of the base pairs in the T loop?
    T, Psi, C, G, A, U, U
  33. What is the order of the base pairs in the anticodon loop?
    U, U, I, G, C, ml, psi
  34. Positions 34 and 37 in the tRNA contain...
    the largest variety of modified nucleotides.
  35. poisition 34 in the first base in the anticodon that matches the third base in the codon of...
    mRNA
  36. what positions recognizes valine?
    3 bases of anticodon
  37. what positions recognizes methionine?
    3 bases of anticodon
  38. what positions recognizes phenylalanine?
    • 3 bases of anticodon
    • G20 in D loop
    • A73 at terminus
  39. What position recognizes isoleucine?
    modification at C34 of anticodon
  40. What position recognizes glutamine?
    anticodon, especially central U
  41. What position recognizes serine?
    • G1+C72
    • G2+C71
    • AE+U70 in acceptor stem
    • C11+G24 bp in D stem
    • What position recognizes Alanine?
    • G3+U70 bp in acceptor helix
  42. Translation involves an interpretation of one _________ into another
    language
  43. In genetics, the nucleotide language of mRNA is translated into...
    the amino acid language of proteins
  44. Translation relies on...
    the genetic code
  45. the genetic info is coded within mRNA in groups of three nucleotides known as ...
    codons
  46. the genetic info is coded within ____ in groups of three nucleotides known as codons
    mRNA
  47. the genetic info is coded within mRNA in groups of three _________ known as codons
    nucleotides
  48. the genetic info is coded within mRNA in groups of ______ nucleotides known as codons
    three
  49. What helped to crack the genetic code?
    RNA copolymers
  50. What was the novel method to synthesize RNA?
    • 1) Created short RNAs (2 to 4 nucleotides long) that had a defined sequence
    • 2) These were then linked together ezymatically to create long copolymers
  51. ____________ were used in a cell-free translation system
    copolymers
  52. Copolymers were used in a _________ system
    cell-free translation
  53. synthetic RNA was made with the enzyme...
    polynucleotide phosphorylase
  54. ____________ was made with the enzyme polynucleotide phophorylase
    synthetic RNA
  55. Synthetic RNA does not use a ....
    template
  56. In synthetic RNA, the order of nucleotides is random because...
    it does not use a template
  57. UAA is a ________ codon
    stop
  58. UAG is a _______ codon
    stop
  59. UGA is a ________ codon
    stop
  60. AUG is a _______ codon
    start
  61. AUG specifies ....
    methionine
  62. More that one codon can specify for...
    for the same amino acid
  63. In most instances, the third base is the ________ base
    degenerate
  64. when something is degenerate, it means that...
    more than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
  65. the third base is sometimes referred to as the _________ base
    wobble
  66. the codon possibilities for UC are...
    UCU, CUC
  67. the codon possibilities for AG are...
    AGA, GAG
  68. the codon possibilities for UG are...
    UGU, GUG
  69. the codon possibilities for AC are...
    ACA, CAC
  70. the codon possibilities for UUC are...
    UUC, UCU, CUU
  71. the codon possibilities for AAG are...
    AAG, AGA, GAA
  72. the codon possibilities for UUG are...
    UUG, UGU, GUU
  73. the codon possibilities for CAA are...
    CAA, AAC, ACA
  74. the codon possibilities for UAUC are...
    UAU, AUC, UCU, CUA
  75. the codon possibilities for UUAC are...
    UUA, UAC, ACU, CUU
  76. UCU codes for what amino acid?
    serine
  77. CUC codes for what amino acid?
    leucine
  78. AGA codes for what amino acid?
    Arginine
  79. GAG codes for what amino acid?
    Glutamic acid
  80. UGU codes for what amino acid?
    cysteine
  81. GUG codes for what amino acid?
    valine
  82. ACA codes for what amino acid?
    Threonine
  83. CAC codes for what amino acid?
    Histamine
  84. UUC codes for what amino acid?
    Phenylalanine
  85. AAG codes for what amino acid?
    Lysine
  86. CAA codes for what amino acid?
    Glutamine
  87. AAC codes for what amino acid?
    asparagine
  88. ACA codes for what amino acid?
    threonine
  89. UAU codes for what amino acid?
    tyrosine
  90. AUC codes for what amino acid?
    isoleucine
  91. CUA codes for what amino acid?
    leucine
  92. ACU codes for what amino acid?
    threonine
  93. UAC codes for what amino acid?
    tyrosine
  94. In the codon-anticodon recognition process, the first two position pair strictly according to..
    the A-U/G-C rule
  95. How can the third position in tRNAs tolerate certain types of mismatches?
    they can actually wobble or move a bit
  96. The wobble position occurs between...
    The first base in the 5' to 3' direction in the anticodon and the third base in the mRNA codon
  97. With the revised wobble rules the third nucelotides of codon for the G nucleotide of the anticodon is..
    C,U
  98. With the revised wobble rules the third nucelotides of codon for the C nucleotide of the anticodon is..
    G
  99. With the revised wobble rules the third nucelotides of codon for the A nucleotide of the anticodon is..
    U
  100. With the revised wobble rules the third nucelotides of codon for the U nucleotide of the anticodon is..
    A, G
  101. With the revised wobble rules the third nucelotides of codon for the I nucleotide of the anticodon is..
    U,C,A
  102. The universal meaning for AUA codon is...
    isoleucine
  103. The universal meaning for UGA codon is...
    Stop
  104. The universal meaning for CUU, CUA, CUC, CUG is...
    Leucine
  105. The universal meaning for AGA, AGG is...
    Arginine
  106. The universal meaning for UAA, UAG is...
    Stop
  107. The exception for AUA codon is...
    Methionine in yeast and mammalian mitochondria
  108. The exception for UGA codon is...
    Tryptophan in mammalian mitochondria
  109. The exception for CUU, CUA, CUC, CUG codon is...
    Threonine in yeast mitochondria
  110. The exception for AGA, AGG codon is...
    Stop codon in ciliated protozoa and in yeast and mammalian mitochondria
  111. The exception for UAA, UAG is...
    Glutamine in ciliated protozoa
  112. The sedimentation coefficient of a bacterial ribosomal small subunit is...
    30S
  113. The number of proteins in a bacterial ribosomal small subunit is...
    21
  114. The rRNA of a bacterial ribosomal small subunit is...
    16S rRNA
  115. The sedimentation coefficient of a bacterial ribosomal large subunit is ....
    50S
  116. The number of proteins in a bacterial ribosomal large subunit is...
    34
  117. The rRNA of a bacterial ribosomal large subunit is...
    5S rRNA, 23S rRNA
  118. The sedimentaiton coefficient of a bacterial ribosomal assembled ribosome is...
    70S
  119. The number of proteins in a bacterial ribosomal assembled ribosome is...
    55
  120. The rRNA of a bacterial ribosomal assembled ribosome is...
    16S rRNA, 5S rRNA, 23S rRNA
  121. S (Svedberg) units are not....
    additive
  122. The sedimentation coefficient of a eukaryotic ribosomal small subunit is...
    40S
  123. The number of proteins in a eukaryotic ribosomal small subunit is...
    33
  124. The rRNA of a eukaryotic ribosomal small subunit is...
    18S rRNA
  125. The sedimentation coefficient of a eukaryotic ribosomal large subunit is ....
    60S
  126. The number of proteins in a eukaryotic ribosomal large subunit is...
    49
  127. The rRNA of a eukaryotic ribosomal large subunit is...
    5S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, 28S rRNA
  128. The sedimentaiton coefficient of a eukaryotic ribosomal assembled ribosome is...
    80S
  129. The number of proteins in a eukaryotic ribosomal assembled ribosome is...
    82
  130. The rRNA of a eukaryotic ribosomal assembled ribosome is...
    18S rRNA, 5S rRNA, 5.8S rRNA, 28S rRNA
  131. What are the three stages of translation?
    • Initiation
    • Enlongation
    • Termination
  132. Amino acids are _____ cells carried to other forms of life Except mammalian mitochondria and protozoa
    progenitor
  133. Amino acids are progenitor cells carried to other forms of life Except for...
    mammalian mitochondria and protozoa
  134. What does peptidyl transferase do?
    takes two amino acids and makes a peptide bond between them
  135. What did Harry Noller discover?
    That not only are ribosomes made or protein, but that they are made of catalytic RNA too.
  136. Because of Harry Noller discovery, a Ribosome can also be called a....
    ribozyme
  137. What is the fucntion of riboenzymes?
    catalyzes bond formation
  138. concerning peptidyl transferase, what is the job of protein?
    Allow RNA to fold properly
  139. What is the start codon on mRNA?
    AUG
  140. In addition to AUG, what can aslo be a start codon on mRNA?
    GUG
  141. In terms of a start codon, there may be many AUG codon but there is only one...
    start codon
  142. The decopin function of the ribosomes maintains what?
    high fidelity
  143. What is fidelity?
    the accuracy of DNA replication
  144. What can 16S rRNA detect?
    when an incorrect tRNA is bound at the A site
  145. The ribosome-binding site can also be called the...
    Shine-Dalgarno sequence
  146. The Ribosome-binding site or Shine-Dalgarno sequence is _______ to a sequence in the 3' end of the 16S rRNA of the 30S small ribosomal subunit.
    complememntary
  147. What helps the codon get placed properly in trnaslation?
    the 16S rRNA of the 30S small ribosomal subunit
  148. The Ribosome-binding site or Shine-Dalgarno sequence is complementary to a sequence in the ___ end of the 16S rRNA of the 30S small ribosomal subunit.
    3'
  149. The Ribosome-binding site or Shine-Dalgarno sequence is complementary to a sequence in the 3' end of the ___ rRNA of the 30S small ribosomal subunit.
    16S
  150. The Ribosome-binding site or Shine-Dalgarno sequence is complementary to a sequence in the 3' end of the 16S rRNA of the ____ small ribosomal subunit.
    30S
  151. What is the consensous sequence in translation
    5'- [AGGAGGU]-[7-12 bases]-[AUG] - 3' (mRNA)
  152. How long is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
    usually 9 nucletoides long
  153. Do eukaryotes use the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
    NO!!!!!!
  154. the eukaryotic equivalent of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is...
    The Kozak consensus sequence
  155. Where is the 7-methylG cap located?
    on the 5' end of RNA
  156. What happens when a ribosome recognizes the 7-methylG cap?
    runs down mRNA to find AUG to start transcription
  157. What are the three steps of the initiation step of translation?
    • 1) IF3 promotes binding of mRNA to 30S subunit. The SD sequence is complememntary to portion of 16S rRNA of 30S subunit.
    • 2) tRNA f'met binds to P site on 30S subunit via IF2. will be removed from final product by post translation modification after translation is over.
    • 3) IF2 and IF3 are released, 50S subunit associates and form 70s
  158. the tRNA f'met is only used to do what in trnaslation?
    inititate transcription
  159. the tRNA f'met is an
    initiator tRNA/methionine modified w/ formyl group.
  160. in translation, when is tRNA f'met removed from the final product?
    after translation is over
  161. in translation, how is tRNA f'met removed from the final product?
    by post translational modifcations
  162. In the last step of translation initiation, the 50S subunit associates and forms...
    70S
  163. In the last step of translation initiation, the ____ subunit associates and forms 70S.
    50S
  164. Only the _____ enters through the P site in the initiation of translation.
    tRNA f'met
  165. All tRNA other then tRNA f'met eneter through the ___ site in the initiaiton of translation
    A
  166. What marks the end of the initiaiton step in trnaslation?
    formation of 70S
  167. What are the six steps of the enlongation step of translation
    • 1) A correctly charged tRNA binds to the A site based on the pairings w/ codon.
    • 2) Peptidyl transferase catalyzes bon formation between polypeptide and amino acid in the A site
    • 3) Polypeptide is transferred to the A site
    • 4) Ribosome translocates one codon to the right (tRNAs at the P and A sites, move to the E and P sites respectively
    • 5) uncharged tRNA released from the E site
    • 6) Process repeats until stop codon is reached
  168. What are the four steps of the termination step in translation?
    • 1) once STOP codon reaches the A site, a RELEASE FACTOR will bind to the A site
    • 2) polypeptide is released from the tRNA in the P site and the tRNA is released
    • 3) Ribosomal subunits, mRNA and release factor dissociate
    • 4) ribosomal subunits and mRNA are recylced by the time translation is over; enzymes may be degraded
  169. EF-Tu stands for...
    Elongation factor
  170. What is EF-Tu role in peptide bond formation (elongation in trnaslation)?
    Brings amino-acyl tRNA to the ribosome
  171. What does the EF-Tu hydrolyze to get energy to bring the amino-acyl tRNA to the ribosome?
    Hydrolyzes GTP into GDP and inorganic phosphate.
  172. How many release factors do bacteria have?
    3 release factors
  173. RF1 recognizes....
    UAA and UAG
  174. RF2 recognizes...
    UAA and UGA
  175. RF3 recognizes...
    none of the three codons
  176. what does the RF3 do?
    Binds to GTP and helps facilitate the termination process.
  177. What binds to GTP and helps facilitate the termination process?
    RF3
  178. RF3 Binds to ____ and helps facilitate the termination process.
    GTP
  179. RF3 Binds to GTP and helps facilitate the ________ process.
    termination
  180. how many release factors does eukaryotes have?
    1
  181. What is the release factor for eukaryotes?
    eRF
  182. eRF recognizes which stop codons?
    all three
  183. What is a polysome?
    mRNA transcript that has many bound ribosomes in act of translation
  184. Every one of the ribosomes of polysomes start at the...
    SD sequence
  185. During translation ______ can be degraded at the 5' end.
    mRNA
  186. During translation, mRNA can be degraded at the ___ end.
    5'
  187. What two things can work simultaneously at the same place and the same time in a bacterial cell?
    Transcription and translation
  188. Transcription and translation can work simultaneously at the same place and the same in a ______ cell.
    bacterial
  189. What is puromycin?
    an antibiotic that kill bacteria
  190. How does puromycin work?
    Looks like an Amino acid on tRNA, but it's not. Fools bacterial ribosome to use peptidyl and cause premature termination.
  191. What can cause premature termination in bacterial cells?
    puromycin
  192. What does it mean when we say that the genetic code is degenerate?
    It means that more then one codon can code for the same amino acid
  193. Explain the universality of the genetic code?
    The genetic code is nearly unviersal because it is used in the same way by viruses, prokaryotes, fungi, plants and animals
  194. what are the two things that are an exception to the "universiality" of the genetic code?
    protists, yeasts and mammalian mitochondria
  195. Phenylalanine's (Phe) 2 codons are...
    • UUU
    • UUC
  196. Leucine's (Leu) 6 codons are...
    • UUA
    • UUG
    • CUU
    • CUC
    • CUA
    • CUG
  197. Isoleucine's (Ile) 3 codons are..
    • AUU
    • AUC
    • AUA
  198. Methionine's (Met) codon is...
    AUG (also start codon)
  199. Valine's (val) 4 codons are...
    • GUU
    • GUC
    • GUA
    • GUG
  200. Serine's (SER) 6 codons are..
    • UCU
    • UCC
    • UCA
    • UCG
    • AGU
    • AGC
  201. Proline's (Pro) 4 codons are...
    • CCU
    • CCC
    • CCA
    • CCG
  202. Threonine's (Thr) 4 codons are...
    • ACU
    • ACC
    • ACA
    • ACG
  203. Alanine's 4 codons are..
    • GCU
    • GCC
    • GCA
    • GCG
  204. Tyrosine's (Tyr) 2 codon are...
    • UAU
    • UAC
  205. Histidine's (His) 2 codons are...
    • CAU
    • CAC
  206. Glutamine's (Gln) 2 codons are..
    • CAA
    • CAG
  207. Asparagine's (Asn) 2 codons are
    • AAU
    • AAC
  208. Lysine's (Lys) 2 codons are...
    • AAA
    • AAG
  209. Aspartic Acid's (Asp) 2 codons are..
    • GAU
    • GAC
  210. Glutamic acid's (Glu) 2 codons are...
    • GAA
    • GAG
  211. Cysteine's (Cys) 2 codons are..
    • UGU
    • UGC
  212. Tryptophan's (Trp) codon is..
    UGG
  213. Arginine's (ARG) 6 codons are...
    • CGU
    • CGC
    • CGA
    • CGG
    • AGA
    • AGG
  214. Glycine's (Gly) 4 codons are..
    • GGU
    • GGC
    • GGA
    • GGA
  215. If a tRNA molecule carries a glutamic acid, what are the two possibleanticodon sequences that it could contain? Be specific aboutthe 5ʹ and 3ʹ ends.
    • 3'-CUU-5'
    • 3'-CUC-5'
  216. Why has the function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase been described as the "second genetic code"?
    This ability is sometimes described as the second genetic code becausethe specificity of the attachment is a critical step in deciphering thegenetic code.
  217. Where does mRNA-tRNA recognition happen in translation.
    on the surface of the 30S subunit and at the interface between the two subunits
  218. Where does peptidyl transfer reaction occur?
    within the 50S Subunit
  219. Where does the exit of the polypeptide chain from the ribosome take place?
    from the 50S subunit
  220. Where does the binding of intiation factors IF1, IF2 and IF3 is located?
    To the 30S subunit
  221. Describe the sequence in bacterial mRNA that promotes recognition by the 30S subunit.
    Most bacterial mRNAs contain a Shine-Dalgarno sequence, which is necessary for the binding of the mRNA to the small ribosomal subunit.
  222. How does a eukaryotic ribosome select its start codon?
    The ribosome binds at the 5' end of the mRNA and then scans in the 3' direction in search of an AUG start codon.
  223. Describethe sequences in eukaryotic mRNA that provide an optimal context for a start codon.
    Aside from an AUG start codon, two other important features are a guanosine at the +4 position and a purine at the −3 position.
  224. Explain the functional roles of the A site during translation.
    The A (aminoacyl) site is the location where a tRNA carrying a single amino acid initially binds.
  225. Explain the functional roles of the P site during translation.
    The growing polypeptide chainis removed from the tRNA in the P site and transferred to the amino acid attached to the tRNA in the A site.
  226. Explain the functional roles of the E site during translation.
    The ribosome translocates in the 3' direction, with the result that the two tRNAs in the P and A sites are moved to the E (exit) and P sites, and the uncharged tRNA in the E site is released.
Author:
cooxcooxbananas
ID:
179155
Card Set:
TranslatFINAL
Updated:
2012-10-24 01:31:11
Tags:
translation
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Translation
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