1153 Exam 2

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Nelikya
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179508
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1153 Exam 2
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2012-10-23 23:11:24
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Patient Care Questions
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  1. 1. To avoid vena cava hypotension in pregnant patients, the sonographer should place the patient in the ___ position:
    -D: modified Fowler's
  2. 2. What is the difference between a TEE and a TEE cardiac study?
    -C: Patient is intubated
  3. 3. QA testing of sonographic equipment tests all of the following items EXCEPT.
    -A: transducer frequency
  4. 4. A sonographer's preliminary report should NOT include:
    -B: tissue diagnosis
  5. 5. Which of the following conditions is NOT a blood disorder?
    -A: mononucleosis
  6. 6. The use of a transvaginal transducer is contraindicated in all o the following EXCEPT:
    -E: embryonic demise
  7. 7. The use of dobutamine is indicated in patients with:
    -E: All of the above OR musculoskeletal diseases, pulmonary disease, neurologic disorders, peripheral vascular disease
  8. 8. Which of the following procedures are NOT used in interventional biopsy/aspiration techniques?
    -C: leading edge
  9. 9. TVS is indicated in obtaining all but one of the following objectives:
    -D: to visualize the ovaries in obese patients
  10. 10. Which of the following conditions make it more difficult to obtain satisfactory images of the abdominal and pelvic organs?
    -C: barium contrast material
  11. 11. Which of the following laboratory tests is NOT associated with digestive tract?
    -D: BUN
  12. 12. Which of the following drugs is used to treat menopausal symptoms?
    -C: combined estrogen and progestin
  13. 13. which of the following tasks is NOT associated with QA testing?
    -B: cross-beam harmonics
  14. 14. The main lobar fissure is located in the :
    -B: gallbladder
  15. 15. The preferred method of documenting the placenta cord insertion site is:
    -E: A & C OR color doppler and Power Doppler
  16. 16. The sonographic modalities most often used in echocardiography are:
    -E: all of the the above OR doppler flow studies, tissue doppler, m-mode tracing s and 2-D imaging
  17. 17. Which of the following instructions is NOT useful in a third trimester exam to determine cervical length?
    -D: select the shortest cervical measurement
  18. 18. During TEE and TTE studies, an index mark should be placed on:
    -C: every 2D transducer
  19. 19. Flank pain is most commonly associated with:
    -B: renal calculi
  20. 20. During a third trimester follow-up exam, all of the following measurement should be taken EXCEPT:
    -A: CVS
  21. 21. Stress echocardiography is performed with the patient in the:
    -B: left lateral decubitus position
  22. 22. For the patients with severe abdominal acites, the treatment may be:
    -C: paracentesis
  23. 23. Contract echocardiography is employed to evaluate:
    -A: mitral regurgitation
  24. 24. The brief physical examination of some echocardiography patients should include:
    -A: blood pressure reading from both arms
  25. 1. A patient in a persistent vegetative state is really in a coma:
    -False: all higher brain function is lost
  26. 2. A patient in a minimally conscious state has no higher brain function.
    -False: a patient in a minimally conscious state has severely altered consciousness that is minimal but definite.
  27. 3. Patients in a persistent vegetative state and those in a minimally conscious state should be treated the same:
    -False: prognosis and treatment choices may be different.
  28. 4. A DNI (do no intubate) order is different from a DNA (do not resuscitate) order:
    -True: when a patient is having trouble breathing but is not in cardiac or respiratory arrest, intubating the patient may avert a cardiac or respiratory arrest. The DNA order states that the patient does not want this to happen.
  29. 5. Imaging professionals do not need to concern themselves with DNR or DNI orders because they will never be involved:
    -False: situations commonly arise in which the imaging professional finds a patient in distress and may not be able to find a nurse in time to decide whether or not to call a code. In this situation the imaging professional should know, or know how to find, the information regarding the patient's resuscitation and intubation wishes.
  30. 1. Quality-of-life issues for imaging patients do not involve:
    -D: rights of the imaging professional
  31. 2. A patient is motivated to enter the health care environment when:
    -C: the patient's capabilities and potentialities are affected.
  32. 3. What attribute of life may be judged by the decisions a person makes regarding actions and responses to others and the environment?
    -B: the goodness of life
  33. 4. A person who may seem to be awake but has no awareness of self or the environment because the brainstem continues to function is a(n):
    -A: persistent vegetative state
  34. 5. The act of knowingly ending one's own life is:
    -D: a & c OR passive suicide and active suicide
  35. 6. Proponents of patient-chosen euthanasia consider it an act of:
    -A: self-determination.
  36. 7. Only after going through what phases would a patient be considered ready to make the decision regarding he commission of euthanasia of himself or herself?
    -B: stages of death
  37. 8. Active euthanasia currently is generally performed by:
    -D: a family member
  38. 9. Factors influencing quality of life may include:
    -D: all of the above or capability of performing normal biologic functions, stability of intellect and creativity, emotional contact with others.
  39. 10. Problem solving for quality-of-life issues can be aided by the use of these points:
    -C: A & D OR what is normal for the patient and what deficits the patient may experience
  40. 11. Judicial decisions in any jurisdiction:
    -D: all of the above: are binding in that jurisdiction, maybe be considered by courts in that jurisdiction, are not binding in other jurisdictions
  41. 12. Liability with regard to cardiopulmonary resuscitation can exist if:
    -B: the patient's wishes are not followed.
  42. 13. Durable power of attorney for health care decisions:
    -C: appoints a particular decision maker for health care decisions
  43. 14. Living wills:
    -A generally apply only in cases of terminal illness
  44. 15. Durable powers of attorney for health care decisions:
    -D: all of the above—do not require patients to anticipate what treatments will be required in the event of incapacitation, appoint a particular decision maker instead of a particular decision, can require the decision maker to consult with others before making any decisions
  45. 1. Lack of eye contact is associated with all of the following EXCEPT:
    -B: self-actualization
  46. 2. Sonographer reports should contain all of the following EXCEPT:
    -D: tissue diagnoses
  47. 3. Patients who are hearing impaired may:
    -E: avoid social situations,, control conversations, become suspicious, interrupt others while speaking
  48. 4. Which basic human need is the most essential?
    -A: physical
  49. 5. To effectively communicate, you should do all of the following EXCEPT:
    -C: use terms that have more than one meaning
  50. 6. When patients have a speech problem, you should:
    -B: ask the sonographer to repeat or rephrase
  51. 7. Which of the following descriptions of body language is (are) incorrect?
    -C: maintaining silence
  52. 8. Which statement will encourage communication?
    -B: Why are you crying?
  53. 9. To communicate with a depressed patient, you should:
    -B: remain silent when the patient is quiet.
  54. 10. To facilitate communication, it may be helpful to employ (a):
    -C: communication triad
  55. 11. The highest level of Maslow's hierarchy of needs pyramid is called:
    -C: self-actualization
  56. 12. What is the proper way to communicate with non-English speaking patients?
    -E: a & b OR through an interpreter and through an English-speaking family member
  57. 13. Which of the following stages of dying describes the realization that there will NOT be enough time to do everything that had been planned?
    -B: acceptance
  58. 14. All of the following are examples of non-verbal communication EXCEPT:
    -D: inquiring when they last ate solid food
  59. 15. Why is it important to make eye contact with patients when they are describing their pain?
    -B: to make the patient feel that what he or she is saying is important
  60. 16. The primary means of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient is through:
    -E: writing
  61. 17. It is important to treat geriatric patients as mature adults because it:
    -E: a & b OR preserves their self-image and increases their cooperation
  62. 18. What is the proper way for a sonographer to interact with a patient who is in denial about his or her serious health problem?
    -B: explain the procedure to avoid patient fear or suspicion
  63. 19. Which of the following patient-sonographer interactions is UNTRUE?
    -D: Reassurance and encouragement are extremely helpful to patients suffering from depression
  64. 20. Checking a patient's statements or any patient cues you have observed is called:
    -A: clarifying
  65. 21. A communication triad is contraindicated in employer/employee situation if:
    -D: A & B OR it would breach confidentiality and employee anxiety level is too high
  66. 22. Which of the following statements about the stage of acceptance is UNTRUE?
    -A: it can be a joyful stage
  67. 23. Which of the following statements concerning the non-diagnostic use of ultrasound is INCORRECT?
    -C: the Federal Drug Administration is not empowered to confiscate ultrasound equipment
  68. 24. Depending on department policies and procedures, a sonographer's report should be:
    -B: limited to measurements and observations on the ultrasonic reflection characteristics of the patient's body
  69. 25. the use of reality orientation is a technique indicated in dealing with:
    -C: confused patients
  70. 26. Telling patients they should not feel angry or afraid is an example of:
    -D:judgmental response
  71. 27. According to Maslow, the highest of the secondary needs is:
    -A:self-actualization
  72. 28. Communicating professionally and effectively with coworkers requires all of the following EXCEPT:
    -C: keeping a low profile at departmental meetings
  73. 29. Mrs. Penelope Bailey is your 89-year-old patient, rescheduled for a pelvic ultrasound exam. She appears to be a little confused. To get her to respond appropriately to you, you should address her as:
    -B: Mrs. Bailey
  74. 30. You are presented with a stressful situation in which two coworkers are arguing in front of a patient. You decide that the most professional way to handle things is to:
    -E: all of the above OR lower you voice and speak to them slowly and clearly, be nonjudgemental both verbally and nonverbal, assure yourself that they understand you by asking a question and requesting an answer, not allow these individuals' anger to goad you into similar behavior.
  75. 1. Choose the statement that is true:
    C: Infection results from invasion and growth of microbes in the body
  76. 2. When arteries lose their elasticity and become narrow, the following change can result:
    B: Poor Circulation
  77. 3. The Heimlich maneuver requires:
    B: the hands be positioned just below the sternum
  78. 4. When a patient has an indwelling catheter, which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
    C: Drainage bags should be kept above the level of the bladder
  79. 5. The first sign of an airway obstruction is:
    E: Person clutches throat
  80. 6. Which of the following statements is UNTRUE?
    D: a gait belt is a lifting or transfer device
  81. 7. You notice that the patient's IV is running too fast. You should:
    D: inform the charge nurse
  82. 8. Which of the following statements correctly describes systolic blood pressure?
    A: The point at which the first sound is heard
  83. 9. The average heart rate for children is:
    B: 100-120 bpm
  84. 10. Which of the following statements about urinary catheters or catheterization is UNTRUE?
    D: Catheterization is the preferred method of filling the bladder for pelvic ultrasound studies.
  85. 11. When working with patients connected to mechanical suction machines, sonographers should never:
    E: All of the above OR raise or open the drainage bottles, disconnect the tubing, pull the NG tube out, give the patient food or water
  86. 12. A blood pressure cuff should be:
    B: deflated slowly and steadily
  87. 13. Which of the following statements about oxygen therapy is/are UNTRUE?
    C: Portable oxygen cylinders can be placed next to the patient during stretcher transfers.
  88. 14. Performing the Heimlich maneuver on obese patients requires:
    C: performing chest thrusts
  89. 15. Sensory changes that occur with age can lead to:
    E: all of the above OR inability to respond to the environment, lack of perception of danger signals, eventual confusion, eventual withdrawal
  90. 16. When transferring patients with IVs, sonographers should:
    B: never lower the IV bag below the level of the heart
  91. 17. The most convenient site for taking the pulse is the:
    D: radial artery
  92. 18. Which of the following statements about respiration is/are UNTRUE?
    D: Respiration should be counted for 2 minutes if irregularities are observed
  93. 19. A high-flow oxygen mask that provides the most reliable and consistent oxygen enrichment is the:
    B: Venturi Mask
  94. 20. Continuous Chest Compression CPR is an improvement over traditional CPR because:
    E:a,b,c OR it is easier to learn, it emphasizes chest compressions, it eliminates the need for mouth-to-mouth breathing
  95. 21. Cleansing of the ultrasound equipment and use of sterile transducer covers and sterile scanning media are required when performing exams on:
    A:patients in reverse isolation
  96. 22. Which of the following statements about scanning patients with colostomies or ileostomies is UNTRUE?
    A: Sterile technique is used whenever removing or changing dressings or bags
  97. 23. When using barrier devices to perform CPR:
    C: the barrier device is placed over the victim's mouth and nose.
  98. 1. The number of households where English is not spoken well is increasing:
    -True
  99. 2. English is the official language in the United States:
    -False
  100. 3. Although it would be nice to understand linguistic and cultural issues, no mandates require this:
    -False
  101. 4. If you feel you have been discriminated against, you just file a lawsuit:
    -False
  102. 5. In a quid pro quo sexual harassment suit, only the supervisor doing the harassment is liable:
    -False
  103. 1. An inclusive process of appreciating how different individuals with different backgrounds bring unique contributions to an organization is:
    -B: diversity
  104. 2. Interactions involving a tendency to judge others according to their match or lack of fit with a standard that is considered ideal or presumed to be “normal” are:
    -A: interaction patterns
  105. 3. Including issues of diversity in the curriculum is important for:
    -D: all of the above OR students, patients, and instructors.
  106. 4. The more students know about diversity, the easier it will be for them to:
    -D: all of the above OR solve problems, think critically, relate to patients
  107. 5. Moving beyond the Western tradition and opening minds to new streams of though is:
    -C: multiculturalism
  108. 6. Imagining students would do well to remember that patients are:
    -C: unique
  109. 7. Universal values include orientation toward:
    -D: all of the above OR nature, time, and activity
  110. 8. Issues in diversity may be divided into:
    -A: primary and secondary dimensions
  111. 9. Ethical challenges are affected by:
    -D: all of the above OR age, mental ability, and informed consent process.
  112. 10. A foundation for empathy and truly ethical problem solving includes:
    -B: understanding patients' values and world views
  113. 11. Disparate treatment employment discrimination occurs:
    -B: when an employee is treated differently from other similarly situated employees
  114. 12. Disparate impact employment discrimination occurs when:
    -A: an employment policy has a negative impact on a protected group
  115. 13. Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when:
    -C: continued or advancement of employment depends on the provision of sexual favors.
  116. 14. Hostile work environment sexual harassment:
    -B: occurs when sexually related conduct unreasonably interferes with the employee's work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment.
  117. 15. Imaging professionals must provide care to HIV-positive patients and those with AIDS unless:
    -C: providing series presents a direct threat to the health and safety of others that cannot be eliminated by modifications.

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