Card Set Information
GSEMSS Airway Paramedic EMT
movement of air into and out of the lungs
aka laryngopharynx, lowest portion of pharynx, opens into the larynx anteriorly and the esophagus posteriorly
frontal and maxillary sinsus are known as
CSF leakage from nose, ears
spasmodic closure of the vocal cords
the essential/functional elements of an organ (i.e. lung - bronchioles/alveoli)
collapse of the alveoli
increased CO2 in the blood
what separates the upper and lower airways
larynx (considered part of lower)
bony shelves in the nasal passageway that warm, filter, and humidify air
where are the facial sinuses located
frontal, ethmoid, sphenoid, and maxillary bones
the function of these prevent contaminants from entering the respiratory tract and act as turbinates for fluid to and from eustachian tubes and tear ducts
the gums in the mouth
where is the frenulum
under the tongue
most common airway obstruction in unconscious pt
what structures attach to the hyoid bone
tongue, jaw, epiglottis, and thyroid cartilage
Glossal- and ling- refer to what structure
the ______ is an extension of the soft palate
the lower airway starts at approx. what level of the cervical vertebrae
the adam's apple is a prominence of what structure
the ______ cartilage is the first ring of the trachea and the lowest portion of the larynx
where is the glottic opening
space between the vocal cords
where is the epiglottis
superior portion of the glottis
between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis is a space or pocket called the ________
the trachea extends to which vertebrae in the adult
what is the function of the goblet cells
what habit can damage the cilia of the airway
beta-2 stimulation causes what effect in the bronchial tubes
the point of entry of blood vessels, nerves, and bronchi into each lung
what phospho-lipid keeps alveoli expanded
the ________ tighten or slack to give pitch to the voice
what structure wraps around the alveoli
actual exchange of O2 and CO2 in the alveoli and tissues of the body
physical act of moving air into/out of the lungs
process of loading O2 molecules onto hemoglobin molecules in the bloodstream
_______ a passive process in a healthy person
what shape is the larynx in a child?
because of the relatively large occiput, the head of a young child is normally ________ when in the supine position. What would you do?
Flexed, Place towel under the shoulders
because the thoracic cavity can't contribute to lung expansion in infants, they are known as....
what nerve innervates the diaphragm
list two accessory muscles of breathing
the amount of gas in air or fluid, such as blood, measured in mmHg (mercury) or Torr
ventilation with a BVM is called _______ pressure ventilation
portion of tidal volume that doesn't reach alveoli
what is the normal tidal volume for an adult? infants/children?
Adults: 5-7mL/kg (500mL avg.) Infants/Children: 6-8mL/kg
Tidal Volume (TV) x Respiratory Rate (RR) = _________
what is the physiologic dead space
the alveoli that have collapsed (atelectasis) due to disease or by obstructions
how does the apneustic center in the brain receive signals from stretch receptors in the lungs
this reflex terminates inhalation thus preventing over-expansion of lungs
A rise in pCO2 causes the pH to ________
two parts of brain stem that are involved in controling breathing
pons and medulla
where are chemoreceptors located
carotid bodies, aortic arch, central (medulla)
what nerves send the signals received from the chemoreceptors to the respiratory center
nerves 9 (glossopharengeal) and 10 (vagus)
pts with COPD routinely have increased levels of _______
_______ventilation causes acidosis
what is wrong with this pt.? pH= <7.35 PaCO2= >45 HCO3 = 22-26
what type of pts will have the hypoxic drive as the primary motivation to breath
end-stage COPD pts
respiratory rate of a pt with a fever will be _________
meds that depress the CNS cause a _______ in respiratory rate
% of O2 in inhaled air
FIO2, Atmosphere = 21% O2, so... FIO2 = 0.21
List the normal adult H and H values
Male = 14-16g/dL Female = 12-14g/dL
one hemoglobin combines with ____ oxygen molecules
absence of oxygen
shortness of breath
list early s/s of hypoxia
restlessness, irritability, apprehension, tachycardia, anxiety
decrease in arterial O2 level
tissues/cells dont receive enough O2
toxin produced in cell when O2 is not present
what "cycle" produces ATP
aka pulmonary respiration, exchange of O2/CO2 between alveoli and blood in pulmonary capillaries
aka cellular respiration, exchange of O2/CO2 between systemic circulation and cells in the BODY
byproduct of aerobic cellular metabolism
amount of O2 dissolved in blood plasma
t or f: SpO2 and SaO2 are the same thing
oxygen saturation abbreviation if measured by a pulse ox
oxygen saturation abbreviation if measured by ABGs
_________ factors that cause airway obstruction from allergy, infection, tongue blockage
__________ factors that cause airway obstruction from trauma, foreign body airway obstruction
T or F: all factors affecting pulmonary ventilation are caused by problems with the A and P of the respiratory system
FALSE - some are CNS or PNS
pt with numerous rib fractures breathes more shallow on purpose to alleviate pain caused by the injury. this is called.....
splinting (of the chest)
____________ usually causes an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH
does CO2 have a greater or lesser affinity for hemoglobin in comparison to oxygen
GREATER - 250x more
how does the renal system combat a change in pH
filters out H+ and retain bicarbonate or vise versa
rales and crackles are ______ breath sounds
aka positional dyspnea
T or F: intrapulmonary shunting causes hypoxemia
portion of chest retracts during inhalation instead of out
one or two word speech
systolic bp drops >10mmHg during inhalation, with possible pulse change
when might you see someone with pulsus paradoxus
decompensated COPD, pericardial tamponade, tension pneumothorax, severe asthma
increase in severity
Make (a disease or its symptoms) less severe or unpleasant without removing the cause.
Make (suffering, deficiency, or a problem) less severe
who is at high risk for aspiration
any pt w/o gag or cough reflex
increase respiratory rate, then decreases slowly to a period of apnea (brainstem injury)
deep, rapid, hunger-style respirations (diabetic ketoacidosis)
sudden inhalation due to spasm of the diaphragm, cut short by closure of the epiglottis
T or F: active EXHALATION is pathologic
TRUE - exhalation should be passive
T or F: inhalation is usually longer than exhalation
FALSE - inhalation is shorter, I/E ratio = 1/2
define adventitious breath sounds
T or F: wheezing denotes constricted airway
TRUE - heard mostly during exhalation
T or F: crackles can be heard as collapsed alveoli pop open
T or F: rhonchi tell the provider that the airway is not clear of secretions
is stridor an upper or lower airway sound
a _______ _______ rub may be heard over an inflamed area of lung tissue
T or F: the pCO2 is one indicator of ventilator status
what is the normal pCO2
what color means CO2 is present on the colormetric capnography
YELLOW - (YES) or Gold (GOOD)
Purple (POOR - BAD)
most reliable method of confirming initial and ongoing advanced airway placement
continuous QUANTITATIVE WAVEFORM capnography
gurgling indicates the need for what
aka tonsil-tip (large diameter rigid catheter)
aka french catheter - soft
T or F: aspiration increases the mortality rate
T or F: suctioning causes hypoxemia and bradycardia
amount of time to limit to when suctioning
adults - 15s, children - 10s, infants - 5s
T or F: suctioning can cause laryngospasm and/or vomitting
when do you apply suction
as you are withdrawing suction what motion do you make
what class is benzocaine
other names for benzocaine
hurricaine, cetocaine, endocaine
T or F? An OP airway is appropriate for a patient with a gag reflex.
T or F? A NP or OP airway is a proper substitute for adequate head positioning.
T or F? OP and NP airways make ventilating with a BVM easier and more effective.
The NP and OP airway are intended to keep the tongue off of what structure?
Posterior Pharyngeal Wall
How is an OP airway sized? NP?
OP- Earlobe to corner of mouth NP – earlobe to tip of nose
Contrast techniques for insertion of an OP airway in an adult and in an infant
Use a TONGUE DEPRESSOR in a child because airway is not as developed
List contraindications for NP airway usage
Pt. Intolerance, Facial/Skull fracture
T or F? ____ The bevel of the NP airway should face the septum during insertion.
developing new teeth
T or F? ____ Most patients that are snoring have a partial airway obstruction due to the tongue blocking the pharynx
What does the prefix dys- mean?
ability to speak
a speech disorder
List common causes of laryngeal edema
epiglottitis, anaphylaxis, inhaled injuries (burns)
What does aspiration of blood or vomit do to mortality rate?
Significantly Increases it
Is the Heimlich maneuver usually effective and indicated for partial airway obstruction?
How would you note poor lung compliance when “bagging” a patient?
Increased resistance during ventilation
Are blind finger sweeps indicated in foreign body airway obstruction circumstances?
Define direct laryngoscopy
Visualization of the airway with a laryngoscope blade
What are Magill forceps used for in the field?
removing foreign bodies in a pts upper airway
What is the danger in carrying an oxygen cylinder?
has the properties of a rocket
A patient is on oxygen at home and his relatives are smoking in proximity to the patient. What would you do?
O2 supports combustion process so don’t smoke near it
When would you replace an O2 tank (psi)?
200psi or lower
Describe two common types of flow meters
Bourdon-Gauge: not affected by gravity (cylinder-mounted) Pressure-compensated: incorporates a float ball to measure flow-rate (wall-mounted)
orifice that connects trachea to outside air
larynx is removed
surgical opening in trachea
T or F? When a patient with a tracheostomy becomes dyspneic, airway patency should be assessed
T or F? In-line technique should be considered when intubating patients with facial injuries
List the two main reasons (categories) for advanced airway management
failure to maintain a patent airway or failure to adequately oxygenate and ventilate
What is a Mallampati classification?
ability to see posterior pharynx in an open mouth (Class I = fully open | Class IV = Can’t see at all)
T or F? LEMON is an acronym used to predict difficult intubations.
FALSE - helps start intubation process
List at least 4 complications of intubation, in addition to improper placement
Bleeding, hypoxia, laryngeal swelling, and laryngospasm
T or F? ____ Intubation is a definitive means of achieving complete control of the airway.
What are the usual size ET tubes for an adult man and a woman?
women = 7.0 – 8.0 Men = 7.5 – 8.5
You have begun to ventilate a patient that is not intubated. The chest is not rising as much as you would like. What actions might you take to improve chest rise?
reposition head, intubate or OPA/NPA
increase in intrathoracic pressure
What is a tension pneumothorax?
air in the pleural space that can’t escape causing increased pressure
What is an ATV? Per our SOPs, should they be used on peds patients? Trauma patients?
Automatic Transport Ventilator – Contact Medical Control for Peds – NEVER for TRAUMA pt
What is the general formula for estimating TV in an adult?
What does our SOP (ATV) say to use as a formula to set tidal volume? Rate?
10ml/kg – when in doubt round downRate = 8-10/min, may increase to 12-20 if perfusing rhythm returns
T or F? The EC clamp should be used when ventilating pediatric patients.
T or F? A good seal is important for CPAP.
Why might a patient have CPAP at home?
CHF, COPD, Asthma, Sleep Apnea
List the actions of CPAP (why it’s beneficial and for whom)
Increases pressure in lungs, opens collapsed alveoli, forces interstitial fluid back into pulmonary circulation
ONLY USED ON alert, oriented, respiratory distress Pts
T or F? A patient must be breathing (and at adequate depth) for CPAP to be utilized.
Positive-End Expiratory Pressure = resistance when pt exhales
List three uses for an NG tube
feeding, administer drugs, emptying stomach
How is an NG tube is measured prior to insertion?
nose to ear to xiphoid process
T or F? CPAP delivers the same concentration of oxygen as a NRB.
T or F? CPAP can cause gastric distention and lowered BP?
How can a provider lessen the incidence of gastric distention during ventilation?
reposition airway, limit to 1 second ventilations
How would you confirm placement of an NG tube?
auscultate epigastric region while injecting 30-50ml/air or observe gastric contents in the tube by aspirating
When the diaphragm contracts during breathing, what happens to the size of the thorax?
Compare and contrast O2 delivery devices and the % age of oxygen delivered What liter flow is appropriate for each?
NC 1-6L = 24-44%, NRB 15L = 90-100%, BVM 15L = nearly 100%, Mouth-to-Mask 15L = nearly 55%
Who might a Venturi mask help in particular?
Long range transport of COPD pts
What is the formula for cardiac output?
CO = SV x HR (amount of blood ejected from left ventricle in one minute)
Why is two-person “bagging” preferred over one-person?
One maintains seal while other ventilates
Effectiveness of ventilation is best determined by
Watching chest rise and fall and feeling for resistance
T or F? Hyperventilation with a BVM increases the risk of aspiration
How much gas does an adult-sized BVM hold?
Describe the EC clamp
C-shape with thumb and pointer finger – E-shape with other three fingers under the boney portion of pts chin pulling pt face into the mask
Where should your fingers NOT rest during the EC clamp?Why?
Soft space under chin – chokes pt
T or F? Ventilation rates should be determined by the patient’s age.
If a healthcare provider is assisting ventilation in a breathing patient, he/she should compress the bag when the patient inhales/exhales.
T or F? Goggles and or a face mask should be used during suctioning and intubation attempts.
T or F? A small amount of sterile saline may be placed down a stoma prior to suctioning attempts to liquefy secretions.
T or F? When bagging a patient with well-fitting dentures, it is best to leave them in place during ventilations.
T or F? With airway management, it is best to quickly perform ALS maneuvers instead of wasting time with BLS maneuvers.
FALSE – start with BLS then work up to ALS
Where is Murphy’s eye on an ET tube?
Distal end of the tube after the cuff
Where is the narrowest portion of the pediatric airway?
Funnel-shaped cricoid ring
How would you estimate the proper ET tube size in a pediatric patient?
Internal diameter of nostril or diameter of the little finger or size of the thumbnail
Discuss types of laryngoscope blades, including where they are placed in the airway
Straight = Miller/Wisconsin –lifts up the epiglottis, Curved = Macintosh – fits in the vellecula to lift up the epiglottis indirectly
What is the value of a stylet?
Enables you to guide the ET tube into the glottis opening even if you can’t see it
Into what shape should you mold an ET tube prior to insertion?
According to the words of wisdom, for how many minutes should a provider ventilate prior to intubation?
During intubation, why must you move the patient’s tongue from right to left?
so you can see past it
How does, “walking the blade down the airway” help during the intubation process?
so you don’t accidently go to deep
T or F? During intubation attempts, you must see the ET tube tip pass the vocal cords in all cases.
T or F? The laryngoscope is designed so that the tube runs down the barrel of the laryngoscope during insertion.
Backwards, Upward, Rightward Pressure of lower third of the thyroid cartilage (Sellick’s Maneuver)
What is the proper ventilation rate for an apneic adult? Child? Infant?
Adult = 10-12 breaths/min (5-6 seconds), Child/Infant = 12-20 breaths/min (3-5 seconds), Cardiac Arrest = 8-10 breaths/min (6-8 seconds)
T or F? Once the cuff is inflated on a placed ET tube, the provider’s hand can be removed from the tube safely.
T or F? Nasotracheal intubation must be performed on a spontaneously breathing patient.
List contraindications to nasotracheal intubation
Respiratory or Cardiac Arrest, Head/Face Trauma
What is trismus and how does it complicate intubation attempts?
___________ is the most common complication of NT intubation.
A NT tube is advanced when the patient inhales/exhales.
Why would you want to be sure to follow the floor of the nasal passage closely when inserting a NT or NG tube?
Can damage turbinates
Trans-illumination intubation is….
Placing a light in the trachea
needle is placed through the skin into trachea fed up through mouth and hooked to et tube to guide into the trachea
A __________ style blade would be used for face-to-face intubation…
Blind or tactile intubation is also called _____ intubation.
What tool will be helpful in Digital intubation?
Bite block since fingers will be in mouth
T or F? Tracheobronchial suctioning should be a sterile procedure.
T or F? Extubation in the field is rarely if ever done due to potential complications.
T or F? Extubation should be performed as the patient inhales.
T or F? Small children up to 5 years of age have larger occiputs.
T or F? A cuff is necessary on pediatric endotracheal tubes.
T or F? The epiglottis is smaller in young children so a curved blade is best.
T or F? A Broselow tape or similar device is highly necessary during peds resuscitation attempts.
T or F? It is important to document the ET tube number at the teeth after determining proper placement.
What is the formula that is used to determine proper ET tube size in the young child?
(Age divided by 4) plus 4 or (AGE + 16) Divided by 4
At what age is a cuffed ET tube generally necessary?
Adolescent (8-10 y/o)
Stimulation of which nervous system causes bradycardia during intubation attempts.
What is the best way to prevent serious bradycardia during intubation attempts?
Monitor pulse ox
What medication might be used as premedication to prevent bradycardia?
T or F? Tube placement must be reassessed after any patient movement.
What does DOPE stand for?
Displacement, Obstruction, Pneumothorax, Equipment Failure
After the tube passes the vocal cords, how much farther should it be inserted?
Why is a suction device needed at the head during all intubation attempts?
An attempt at pediatric intubation should not take over ________ seconds.
Describe the problems of over and under sedation
Over – respiratory distress, hypotension, complete airway collapse or Under – gagging and incomplete amnesia
T or F? Etomidate is a benzodiazepine.
relief of anxiety
What is the name of a benzodiazepine antagonist?
What is the risk of using barbiturates to intubate?
Respiratory depression and (profound) hypotension
T or F? Fentanyl is an opioid that is sometimes used for intubation purposes.
The negative effects of opiates can be reversed with ____________.
Paralytics are ________________-blocking agents. What chemical do they block?
neuromuscular – block acetylcholine
T or F? Paralytics depress the CNS system and cause sedation.
FALSE – block neuromuscular junction
T or F? -uronium would alert you to a neuromuscular blocking agent.
T or F? Paralytics should be administered with sedation.
T or F? Amnesia is a desired side effect.
brief muscle twitches
Succinylcholine Chloride (Depolarizing Neuromuscular blocking agent)
Rapid Sequence Intubation – aka Pharmocologically assited intubation
T or F? All equipment must be gathered prior to beginning RSI
T or F? The patient should be coached prior to RSI procedures.
T or F? Patients should be on cardiac monitors during intubation attempts.
Why might atropine and/or lidocaine be used prior to intubation attempts?
Atropine – used to decrease incidence of bradycardia or Lidocaine – used to help closed head injury pt
What three signs are suggested as indication of adequate paralysis?
Apnea, Laxity of mandible, loss of eyelash reflex
You are trying to intubate. It has been thirty seconds and you cannot get the tube in. What should you do?
Stop, reoxygenate 30-60s, attempt again
What medication is used for post-intubation sedation in Region 8?
T or F? Combitubes are usually placed into the esophagus.
List contraindications to use of a Combitube
Children <16 y/o, pts <5’ tall, esophageal trauma, hx of alcoholism
List three complications of Combitube placement
unrecognized placement in trachea/esophagus, laryngospasm, ballon can obstruct epiglottis
T or F? There are two balloons that must be inflated on a Combitube after insertion.
What is an LMA? Where is the balloon placed/located?
Laryngeal Mask Airway – placed in the hypopharynx
Does an LMA, properly placed, protect the airway from aspiration?
T or F? The King airway is a multi-lumen airway device similar to the Combitube.
T or F? There are two cuffs or balloons on a King airway.
T or F? The Cobra device lies below the vocal cords if properly placed.
What muscles and vessels are to be considered when performing cricothyrotomies?
EJ, Carotids, Sternocleidomastoid muscle
How would you control bleeding during a cricothyrotomy procedure?
When might a surgical cricothyrotomy be done? Is it a first choice in airway management?
Pt older than 12? and needs airway cleared (intubation failed)
T or F? A needle cricothyrotomy is safer than surgical cric for young children under 8 y.o.
Describe subcutaneous emphysema
Air under the skin
T or F? A hemostat is helpful during a cricothyrotomy.
What is translaryngeal catheter ventilation?
a method w/needle cric to ventilate pts, requires a high pressure jet ventilator
T or F? The needle should be inserted caudally during a needle cricothyrotomy procedure.
T or F? Lungs must be auscultated after a cricothyrotomy procedure.
T or F? A needle cricothyrotomy, if properly performed, can sustain a patient for long periods of time.
T or F? It is important for a paramedic to observe the chest for overinflation when ventilating through a needle or surgical cricothyrotomy airway.
T or F? All EMS systems allow paramedics to perform needle and surgical cricothyrotomies.
make less severe
general discomfort, out of sorts, being unwell
sensitivity to light
waking up at night to pee
sudden, severe confusion or AMS
(Instrumental) activities of daily living
a tympanic sound would most likely be heard on percussion over a ______ organ
what shape is the bell and diaphragm on a stethoscope and what sounds do they listen for
bell = cup - deep, low pitch sounds (heart) *place lightly or diaphragm = flat - high pitch (breath, bowel) *firmly placed
coronary arteries fill during ______
BP cuff that is too tight/small will give an artificially _____ reading
what does a pulse ox measure
arterial O2 saturation (%hemoglobin sat)
reasons for inaccurate pulse ox reading
hypotensive, hypothermic, sickle cell, anemia, CO poison, fingernail polish
on what is the focus exam often based
where to check for tenting(turgor) in the elderly pt
skin of upper chest
most reliable and consistent method of assessing mental status and neuro function
broken bone sound or subcutaneous emphysema
pt with clubbing of the fingertips indicates
chronic respiratory disease
sign of a pt working to exhale
gives the eye its color
located at the back of the eye
center of the retina that contains the fovea
what is used to check visual acuity
snell chart - "E" chart
T or F: when you shine a pen light into a pt's left eye, the right eye should react like the left
what does the third cranial nerve have to do with the pupil
regulates pupil size in opposite eye (oculomotor nerve)
asymmetric pupils in healthy individuals
how do you check a pts six eye musles
Tracking - H or Z pattern
what is an injected sclera
red - blood shot eyes
three bones of the ear
malleus, incus, stapes
what structure does the eustachian tube connect
where would you note the abnormal subcostal retractions in children
bruising and tenderness on mastoid process (below ear)
too much cerumen can cause
single most reliable indicator of a spine/spinal cord injury
where is the odontoid process located
DENS, C-2, superior protuberance
whoose-like sound heard over a narrowed artery
whoosh-like sound heard over heart
humming vibrations (indicates aneurysm or hemodialysis)
stridor is an ______ airway obstruction
atelectasis in one area
hyper and hypo resonance indicate what
hyper = air or hypo = blood
what organs when damaged give diffuse pain (widespread)
what does a silent chest indicate
normal OR status asthmaticus
if wheezing is unilateral what would be suspected
aspirated foreign body or infection
when should you make a transport decision on the pt during the assessment process
after the E of initial assessment
knowing the protocol but not thinking about what you are doing or whether its working or not
processing the info means
the four cornerstones of paramedic practice are
gathering, evaluating, synthesizing, developing/implementing pt care plan
what is an emotional state reflected in physical behavior
Six Rs of critical thinking
Read scene Read pt React Reevaluate Revise plan Review performance
T or F: S3 and S4 may be present in heart failure
what is abnormal for anyone over 35 y/o
what is always abnormal if found in anyone
what is a good position for the pt when you are listening to heart sounds
sitting up slightly forward
how would you instruct the pt to breath when checking heart sounds
hold breath on inhalation
the "lub" sound of the mitral and tricuspid valves closing starting systolic
the "dub" sound of the pulmonic and aortic valves closing ending systolic
how are murmurs graded
1 (softest) --> 6 (loudest)
3 causes of JVD
right side heart failure, penetrating left chest trauma, cardio shock
what would a bruit over the carotid arteries indicate to you
turbulent blood flow
where is the PMI
Point of Maximal Impulse, 5th intercostal space
if pt has an irregular rhythm how long do you assess pulse for
cyanosis of the extremities
hollow organ, widespread pain
what is a tilt test
what would indicate a positive finding on a tilt test
systolic drops 20, diastolic increases 10, HR increases 20
T or F: you should auscultate bowel sounds before palpating ABD
bluish discoloration around the umbilicus
bluish discoloration around the flanks
what is a scaphoid abdomen
a sunken abdomen
what problems cause pain described as colicky
hernia, adhesion, bowel obstruction
localized weakening of the abd wall musculature and where are they found
hernia - found on ventral wall or groin
who has umbilical hernias
prolonged erection indication spinal cord injury
what causes pathologic fractures
decreased bone density (osteopenia or osteoporosis)
where are mesenteric vessels found
pain felt when pressure is applied in a certain area
describe how extremities affected by venous stasis would appear
cramp-like pain in lower legs due to poor circulation or low potassium levels
4 diseases that increase the rate of peripheral vascular disease
diabetes, HTN, obesity, tobacco use
5 P's of arterial blockage or insufficiency
Pain Pallor Paresis Pulselessness Poikilothermia (inability to maintain a constant core temp
how is pitting edema rated
+1 ---> +4 point scale
sideways curve of spine
inward curve at lumbar
outward curve of thoracic spine
sheet-like material covering PERIPHERAL nerves that promotes rapid transmission of impulses
CT that surrounds muscle
what is the cranial nerve that innervates the abd
two primitive reflexes that can be observed in a neonate or infant
T or F: the brain is usually involved in reflexive movements
normal adult response when checking the babinski reflex
big toe will flex
what is the COASTMAP mnemonic used for
assessing mental status
ability to perceive position and movement of ones body or limbs
T or F: testing rapid alternating movements can assess a pts coordination
distinct areas of skin that correspond to a specific nerve
T or F: a 2+ deep tendon reflex is considered normal
which is more acute, delirium or dementia
pt right to make own decisions about their medical care
performing an exam without consent can lead to what
assault and battery
absence of a sign/symptom that usually helps ID a pt condition with other s/s
loss of control of bodily movements
sustained muscle contractions and abnormal posturing
no language ability
ST elevated MI
a BNP level may be elevated in what type of pts
substances released into blood when heart is damaged or stressed
TREAT the _____ and not the ______
patient and not the Monitor