SA Sx, Q2, II

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SA Sx, Q2, II
2012-10-29 10:15:00

SA Sx, Q2, II
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  1. In total ear canal ablation with lateral bulla osteotomy, what is the surgical technique?
    begin with vertical ear canal resection, continue by removing horizontal canal, use rongeurs to remove medial bony portion
  2. In Total ear canal ablation with lateral bulla osteotomy(TECA. LBO), what is no longer considered to be necessar?
    drains and bandages, only use unless large dead space
  3. In TECA/LBO when should you remove the sutures?
    14 days
  4. For aural hematomas, why do you need to place a drain, even though it will heal by itself?
    creates cauliflour appearance
  5. When should you remove cannula drainage?
    7-21 days
  6. What are surgical diseases of the middle ear?
    otitis media, nasopharyngeal polyp, neoplasia
  7. In the dog, otitis media is usually secondary to what?
    otitis externa - examine tympanic membrane
  8. What are clinical signs of otitis media?
    head tilt, facial nerve deficits, nausea, vomiting, horners syndrome
  9. How is otitis media diagnosed?
    clinical signs, examination of tympanic bulla, skull rads, evaluation of oral cavity and external ear for polyps
  10. What are indications for bulla osteotomy?
    otitis media, nasopharyngeal polyp, neoplasm of epithelium of bulla
  11. What is inflamed and hyperplastic epithelium of bulla, projects into pharynx through auditory tube, may cause dysphagia, and dyspnea?
    nasopharyngeal polyp
  12. In ventral bulla osteotomy of the cat, the bulla is divided into craniolateral and caudomedial compartments, what must be done to both compartments?
    both compartments must be opened
  13. In ventral bulla osteotomy, what fibers on promontory near septum are often traumatized?
    sympathetic fibers
  14. What are complications of ventral bulla osteotomy?
    horners syndrome, facial nerve paralysis, vestibular dysfunction, superficial wound infection
  15. What is the additional major salivary gland that the cat has?
    molar salivary gland
  16. what are the salivary duct openings?
    sublingual caruncle, parotid papilla, major and minor zygomatic ducts
  17. what are the minor salivary glands?
    lingual, labial, buccal, palatine
  18. where do the minor salivary glands open?
    directly into the oral cavity
  19. What are differential diagnosis for swelling of the salivary glands?
    abscess, neoplasia
  20. what diagnostic technique is rarely used, but may confirm sialolith?
    plain radiography
  21. What is a SQ accumulation of saliva with non-epithelial, non-secretory lining, and it's the most common disease of the salivary glands in dogs and cats?
    salivary mucocele
  22. what is the most commonly affected salivary duct?
    sublingual salivary duct, monostomatic portion
  23. What is the most common accumulation site of saliva?
    intermandibular or cervical accumulation (cervical accumulation)
  24. What are dog breeds that are over represented with salivary mucocele?
    GSD, mini poodle, Pekingese, dachshund
  25. What is periorbital accumulation of saliva?
    zygomatic gland mucocele
  26. What mucocele causes respiratory distress?
    pharyngeal mucocele
  27. What is definitive treatment of salivary mucocele?
    surgical removal of involved gland
  28. Why do you have to excise both if the mandibular and sublingual salivary glands?
    because they are too close together to excise only the sublingual
  29. What is the recurrence rate for sublingual/mandibular salivary mucocele after resection?
  30. which gland is most commonly affected with sialoliths?
    parotid gland
  31. What is a rare primary disease, or secondary to trauma or systemic infection, most commonly affects the zygomatic salivary gland, and may lead to retro bulbar abscess?
  32. What is thought to occur as a result of trauma to the parotid duct?
    parotid fistula
  33. What breed of cat is more commonly affected by salivary neoplasia?
  34. What breed of dog is more commonly affected with salivary neoplasia?
    no breed predilection
  35. What is the treatment of the parotid fistula?
    ligation of the parotid duct results in atrophy of the gland by the 5th day
  36. What is mandibular salivary gland necrosis, clinical signs include phyalism, lip smacking, gulping, dysphagia, and pain?
    canine necrotizing sialometaplasia
  37. What breeds are more affected with canine necrotizing sialometaplasia
    terrier breeds
  38. What is failure of laryngeal cartilages to abduct on inspiration as a result of degeneration of recurrent laryngeal nerve and paralysis of cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle?
    laryngeal paralysis
  39. What endocrine disease is associated in laryngeal paralysis in dogs?
  40. Most geriatric dogs that are diagnosed with laryngeal paralysis are intact and present with what?
    geriatric onset laryngeal paralysis pleuroneuropathy
  41. What are surgical treatments of laryngeal paralysis?
    partial arytenoidectomy, arytenoid cartilage lateralization, laryngoplasty
  42. In arytenoid cartilage lateralization, what should you use as a land mark?
    jugular vein
  43. What are complications of arytenoid cartilage lateralization?
    aspiration pneumonia and failure to correct condition
  44. How can aspiration pneumonia, in arytenoid cartilage lateralization be avoided?
    perform procedure on one side only
  45. What are the components of brachycephalic syndrome?
    primary: stenotic nares, elongated soft palate, hypoplastic trachea. secondary: everted laryngeal saccules and laryngeal collapse
  46. What are surgical procedures to fix stenotic nares?
    alaplasty, alaplexy
  47. What is the procedure of choice to fix laryngeal collapse?
    permanent tracheostomy
  48. What is it called when an otoscope is used for visualization and biopsy of the rostral 1/3 of nasal cavity or an endoscope used to visualize the aboral aspect of the nasal cavity?
  49. What are exploratory rhinotomys often used for?
    to establish drainage and sometimes to remove foreign bodies