Biology 13, 14, 21

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  1. Griffith's experiments showing the transformation of R strain pnemococcus bacteria to S strain pnemococcus bacteria in the presence of heat-killed S strain bacteria provided evidence that

    A. an external factor was affecing the R strain bacteria
    B. DNA was definitely the transforming factor
    C. S strain bacteria could be reactivated after heat killing
    D. S strain bacteria required special genes to be pathogenic
    E. All of the above
  2. Experiments by Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty supported DNA as the genetic material by showing that

    A. both protein and DNA samples provided the transforming factor
    B. DNA has to be destroyed by DNase in order to transform the R bacteria
    C. DNA is not complex enough to be the genetic material
    D. only samples with DNA provided transforming activity
    E. even though DNA is molecularly simple, it provides adequate variation to act as the genetic material
  3. Hershey and Chase used radioactive 35S and 32 P in experiments to provide eveidence that DNA is the genetic material. These experiments pointed to DNA because

    A. progeny viruses retained 32 P but not 35S
    B. the presence of 32P in progeny viruses indicated that DNA was passed on
    C. absence of 35S in progeny viruses indicated that proteins were not passed on
    D. 32P indicated where the DNA label was localized
    E. all of the above
  4. Chargaff observed that the amount of __________ was roughly equal to the amount of ________ in all tested organisms

    A. pruines; pyrimidines
    B. A;T
    C. A + T; G + C
    D. A + G; T + C
    E. a, b, and d
  5. Watson and Crick's model allowed them to visualize
    A. the molecular bonds of DNA
    B. the sugar and phosphate component of the DNA molecule's surface
    C. how the purines nad pyrimidines fit together in a double helix
    D. the antiparallel design of two strands of the DNA double helix
    E. all of the above
  6. A fundamental requirement for the functioning of genetic material is that it must be

    A. conserved among all organisms with very little variation
    B. passed intact from one species to another
    C. accurately replicated
    D. found outside the nucleus
    E. replicated accurately over many milllions of years of evolution
  7. Evidence of the semiconservative nature of DNA replication came from

    A. DNA staining techniques
    B. X-ray crystallography
    C. DNA sequencing
    D. density gradient studies using "heavy" nucleotides
    E. none of the avove
  8. The primary function of DNA polymerase is to

    A. add nucleotides to the growing daughter strand
    B. seal nicks along the sugar-phosphate backbone of the daughter strand
    C. unwind the parent DNA double helix
    D. generate primers to initiate DNA synthesis
    E. prevent reassociation of the denatured parental DNA strands
  9. When the lagging daughter strand of DNA is synthesized, unreplicated gaps are formed on teh parental DNA. Lagging strand synthesis fills these gaps by

    A. synthesizing short Okazaki gragments in a 5'-to-3' direction
    B. synthesizing multiple short RNA primers to initiate DNA replication
    C. using DNA polymerase I to remove RNA primers from Okazaki fragments
    D. filling in those gaps with new strands of complementary DNA as the replication fork proceeds
    E. All of the above
  10. RNA primers are necessary in DNA synthesis because

    A. DNA polymerase is unable to initiate replication without an origin
    B. the DNA polymerase enzyme can catalyze the addition of DNAs only onto the 3'(-OH) end of an existing strand
    C. RNA primase is the first enzyme in the replication complex
    D. primers mark the sites wher helicase has to unwind the DNA
    E. All of the above
  11. Proofreading and repair occur

    A. at any time during or after synthesis of DNA
    B. only before DNA methylation
    C. only in the presence of DNA polymerase
    D. only in the presence of an excision repair mechanism
    E. only during replication
  12. 30% of the bases in a sample of DNA extracted from eukaryotic cells are adenine. What percentage of cytosine is present in this DNA?
    A. 10
    B. 20
    C. 30
    D. 40
    E. 50
  13. Which of the following represents a bond between a purine and a pyrimidine (in the correct order)?

    A. C-T
    B. G-A
    C. G-C
    D. T-A
    E. A-G
  14. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is false?

    A. Okazaki fragments are synthesized as part of the leading strand
    B. Replication forks represent areas of active DNA synthesis on the chromosomes
    C. Error rates for DNA replication are reduced by proofreading of the DNA polymerase
    D. Ligases and polymerases function in the vicinity of replication forks
    E. the sliding clamp protein increases the rate of DNA synthesis
  15. The PCR technique

    A. can amplify only very small samples of DNA
    B. amplifies several random DNA sequences within a genome
    C. requires synthetic primers to flank the regions of interest
    D. is accomplished in three sequential steps: annealing, denaturation, and replication
    E. generates DNA molecules that all have variable sequences
  16. Which of the following would not be found in a DNA molecule?
    A. Purines
    B. Ribose sugars
    C. Phosphates
    D. Sulfur
    E. Nitrogenous bases
  17. If a high concentration of a particular nucleotide lackign a hydroxyl group at the 3' end is added to a PCR reaction,

    A. no additional nucleotides will be added to a growing strand containing that nucleotide
    B. strand elongation will proceed as normal
    C. nucleotides will be added only as the 5' end
    D. T. aquaticus DNA polymerase will become non-functional
    E. the primer will be unable to anneal with teh DNA template
  18. Meselson and Stahl were trying to determine if DNA replication was semiconservation, conservative, or dispersive by labeling E. coli DNA with a regimen of heavy nitrogen (H) for one round of replication and then transferring these cells to light nitrogen (L) for two more rounds of replication. Which of the following statements would not be true within the context of this experiment?

    A. if DNA replication were conserative, no DNA molecules of intermediate density (H-L) would have been seen
    B. if DNA replication were dispersive, no DNA molecules of intermediate density (H-L) would have been seen
    C. if DNA replication were semiconserative, the DNA molecules that were made would all continue to be heavy density (H-H)
    D. if DNA replication were semiconserative, the DNA molecules would consist of one parental strand base-paired to one newly replicated strand
    E. if DNA replication were semiconserative, a higher proportion of DNA molecules from future divisions would have been low density (L-L)
  19. The telomeres at the ends of linear chromosomes allow

    A. the 5' ends fo the chromosomes to undergo recombination
    B. the gaps left by primer removal of lagging strands to be repaired by telomerase
    C. DNA repair enzymes to recognize those ends and remove them
    D. normal cells to divide continuously
    E. DNA breaks to be examined at cell division check-points
  20. Transcription in prokaryotic cells

    A. occurs in the nucleus, whereas translation occurs in the cytoplasm
    B. is initiated at a start codon with the help of initiation factors and the small subunit of the ribosome
    C. in initiated at a promoter and uses only one strand of DNA (the template strand) to synthesize a complementary RNA strand
    D. is terminated at stop codons
    E. in initiated at an ori site on the chromosome
  21. Which of the following statements about RNA polymerase is false?

    A. it synthesizes mRNA in a 5'-to-3' direction, reading the DNA strand 3'-to-5'
    B.  it synthesizes mRNA in a 3'-to-5' direction, reading the DNA strand 5'-to-3'
    C. it binds at the promoter and unwinds the DNA
    D. it doesn't require a primer to initiate transcription
    E. it uses only 1 strand of DNA as a template for synthesizing RNA
  22. Translation of mRNA into protein occurs in a _______ direction, and from ________ terminus to _________ terminus

    A. 3'-to-5' ; N; C
    B. 5'-to-3' ; N; C
    C. 3'-to-5' ; C; N
    D. 5'-to-3' ; C; N
    E. 3'-to-5' ; C; C
  23. If codons were read two bases at a time instead of 3 bases at a time, how many different possible amino acids could be specified?

    A. 16
    B. 64
    C. 8
    D. 32
    E. 128
  24. Translate the following mRNA:

    A. NH2 met-lys-phe-leu-stop COOH
    B. NH2 met-lys-phe-trp-stop COOH
    C. NH2 asp-gly-phe-lys-val COOH
    D. NH2 met-gly-phe-lys-val COOH
    E. NH2 asp-gly-phe-lys-stop COOH
  25. What would happen if a mutation occurred in DNA such that the second codon of the resulting mRNA was changed from UGG to UAG?

    A. translation would continue and the second amino acid would be the same
    B. Nothing. The ribosome would skip that codon and translation would continue
    C. Translation would continue, but the reading frame of the ribosome would be shifted
    D. Translation would stop at the second codon, and no functional protein would be made
    E. Translation would continue, but the second amino acid in the protein would be different
  26. If the follwoing synthetic RNA were added to a test tube containing all the components necessary for protein translation to occur, what would the amino acid sequence be?


    A. polyphenylalaninesine
    B. Isoleucine-tyrosine-isoleucine-tyrosine
    C. Isoleucine-isoleucine-isoleucine-isoleucine
    D. Tyrsosine-tyrosine-tyrosine-tyrosine
    E. Aspargine-aspargine-aspargine-aspargine
  27. What part of the tRNA base-pairs with the codon in the mRNA?

    A. the 3' end, where the amino acid is covalently attached
    B. the 5' end
    C. the anticodon
    D. start codon
    E. promoter
  28. Peptidyl transferase is an

    A. enzyme found in nucleus of the cell taht assists in the transfer of mRNA to the cytoplasm
    B. enzyme that adds the amino acid to the 3' end of tRNA
    C. enzyme found in the large subunit of the ribosome that catalyzes the formation of the peptide bond in the growing polypeptide
    D. RNA molecule that is catalytic
    E. both c and d
  29. Termination of translation requires...

    A. a termination signal, RNA polymerase, and a release factor
    B. a release factor, initiator tRNA, and ribosomes
    C. initiation factors, the small subuint of the ribosome, and mRNA
    D. elongation factors and charged tRNAs
    E. a stop codon positioned at the A site of the ribosome, peptidyl transferase, adn a release factor
  30. If the DNA encoding a nuclear signal sequence were placed in the gene for a cytoplasmic protein, the protein would

    A. be modified in the Golgi
    B. be directed to the lysosomes
    C. be directed to the nucleus
    D. Be directed to the cytoplasm
    E. stay in the endoplasmic reticulum
  31. Auxotrophs are mutant strains that

    A. can grow on a minimal medium
    B. require the addition of an essential nutrient to grow on a minimal medium
    C. cannot make any enzymes
    D. behave like wild-type strains
    E. can grow only if arginine is added to the growth medium
  32. The central dogma of molecular biology states that _______ is transcribed into _______, which is (are) translated into ______.

    A. a gene; polypeptides; a gene product
    B. protein; DNA; RNA
    C. DNA; mRNA; tRNA
    D. DNA; RNA; protein
    E. RNA; DNA; protein
  33. A gene product can be

    A. an enzyme
    B. a polypeptide
    C. RNA
    D. microRNA
    E. All of the above
  34. The enzyme that catalyzes the synthesis of RNA is

    A. peptidyl transferase
    B. DNA polymerase
    C. tRNA synthase
    D. ribosomal RNA
    E. RNA polymerase
  35. A mutation occurs such that a spliceosome cannot remove one of the introns in a gene. What effect will this have on that gene?

    A. It will have no effect; the gene will be transcribed and translated into protein
    B. Transcription will terminate early and the protein will not be made
    C. Transcription will proceed, but translation will stop at the site where the intron remains
    D. Translation will continue, but a nonfunctinal protein will be made
    E. Translation will continue and will skip the intron sequence
  36. Evolution occurs at the level of

    A. individual genotype
    B. individual phenotype
    C. environmentally based phenotypic variation
    D. population
    E. species
  37. Natural selection acts on

    A. the gene pool of the species
    B. genotype
    C. phenotype
    D. multiple gene inheritance systems
    E. environment
  38. Which of the following statements about Mendelian populations is false?

    A. it must consist of members of the same species
    B. it must have members that are capable of interbreeding
    C. it must show genetic variation
    D. it must have a gene pool
    E. all of the above
  39. In comparing several populations of the same species, the population with the greatest genetic variation would have the

    A. greatest number of genes
    B. greatest number of alleles per gene
    C. greatest number of population members
    D. largest gene pool
    E. none of the above
  40. The ability to taste the chemical PTC is determined in humans by a dominant allele T, with tasters having the genotypes Tt or TT and nontasters having tt. If 36% of the members of a population can't taste PTC, then according to the Hardy-Weinberg rule, the frequency of the T allele should be

    A. 0.36
    B. 0.4
    C. 0.6
    D. 0.64
    E. 0.8
  41. A gene in humans has 2 alleles, M and N, that code for different surface proteins on red blood cells. If you know that the frequency of allele M is 0.2, according to the H-W rule, the frequency of the genotype MN in the population should be

    A. 0.16
    B. 0.2
    C. 0.32
    D. 0.64
    E. 0.8
  42. If the frequency of allele b in a gene pool is 0.2 , and the population is in H-W equilibrium, the expected frequency of the genotype bbbb in a tetraploid (4n) plant species would be

    A. 0.0016
    B. 0.04
    C. 0.08
    D. 0.2
    E. the answer cannot be determined from the info
  43. Random genetic drift would probably have its greatest effect on

    A. small, isolated population
    B. large population in which mating is nonrandom
    C. large population in which mating is random
    D. large population with regular immigration from a neighboring population
    E. large population with a high mutation rate
  44. Allele frequencies for a gene locus are least likely to be significantly changed by

    A. mutation
    B. founder effect
    C. self-fertilization
    D. gene flow
    E. natural selection
  45. Which of the following evolutionary agents would produce nonrandom changes in the genetic structure of a population?

    A. self-fertilization
    B. population bottlenecks
    C. mutation
    D. natural selection
    E. both a and d
  46. Suppose that a particular species of flowering plant that lives only one year can produce red, white, or pink blossoms, depending on its genotype. Biologists studying a population of this species count 300 red, 500 white, and 800 pink plants in a population. When a census of the population is taken the following year, 600 red, 900 white, and 1000 pink plants are observed. Which color has the highest fitness?

    A. Red
    B. White
    C. Pink
    D. all colors are equally fit
    E. the answer can't be determined from this info
  47. In areas of Africa in which malaria is prevalent, many human populations exist in which the allele that produces sickle-cell disease and the allele for normal red blood cells occur at constant frequencies, despite the fact that sickle-cell diseaes frequently causes death at an early age. This phenomenon is an example of

    A. founder effect
    B. stable polymorphism
    C. mutation
    D. nonrandom mating
    E. both b and c
  48. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sexual reproduction?

    A. when it involves separate genders, it reduces the overall reproductive rate
    B. it breaks up adaptive combinations of genes
    C. it reduces the rate at which females pass genes on to their offspring
    D. it reduces the difficulty of eliminating harmful mutations from the population
    E. All of the above are disadvantages of sexual reproduction
  49. Genetic variation within a population may be maintained by

    A. frequency-dependent selection
    B. accumulation of neutral alleles
    C. sexual recombination
    D. heterozygote advantage
    E. all of the above
  50. Which of the following can act as a constraint on teh evolutionary process?

    A. the trade-off between the cost and benefit of an adaptation
    B. the occurrence of rare catastrophic events, such as meteorite impacts
    C. the fact that all evolutionary innovations are modifications of previously existing structures
    D. both a and c
    E. all of the above
Card Set:
Biology 13, 14, 21
2012-11-12 04:38:56

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