2ax7x vol 2

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smith0623
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2ax7x vol 2
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2012-11-13 16:15:53
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vol 2 ure
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  1. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
    A. Air Combat Command (ACC).
    B. Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
    C. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
    D. Air Training Command (ATC).
    C. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The block trainingmethod is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
    A. Any 7-level course.
    B. Weight and Balance.
    C. Maintenance Orientation.
    D. General Technical Order System.
    C. Maintenance Orientation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
    a. Annually.
    b. Semi-annually.
    c. Quarterly.
    d. Monthly.
  4. In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
    A. TSgt.
    B. MSgt.
    C. SMSgt.
    D. CMSgt.
    B. master sergeant (MSgt)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    a. access to Distance Learning courseware.
    b. access to special certification roster criteria listings.
    c. visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
    d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
  6. In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
    a. Open suspenses.
    b. System upgrades.
    c. Application problems.
    d. Changes to your user roles.
  7. What training phase has these four sub-phases:multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
    A. III.
    B. I.
    C. II.
    D. IV.
    C. II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
    A. Ancillary.
    B. On-the-job.
    C. Maintenance qualification.
    D. Maintenance refresher.
    C. Maintenance qualification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
    A. Quarterly.
    B. Monthly.
    C. Annually.
    D. Semiannually.
    B. Monthly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
    A. 15
    B. 45
    C. 30
    D. 60
    C. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
    A. Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
    B. Group commander.
    C. Operations officer.
    D. Unit training manager.
    D. Unit training manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Manpower authorizations are
    A. unfunded.
    B. funded.
    C. unvalidated.
    D. both funded and unfunded.
    B. funded
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
    A. weekly.
    B. quarterly.
    C. monthly.
    D. semiannually.
    C. monthly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
    a. 12 hours.
    b. 13 hours.
    c. 14 hours.
    d. 15 hours.
  15. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
    a. 14 hours.
    b. 15 hours.
    c. 16 hours.
    d. 18 hours.
  16. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
    a. Maintenance supply liaison.
    b. Maintenance supply support.
    c. Maintenance operations center.
    d. Maintenance data system analysis.
  17. Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
    a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS).
    b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
    c. Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).
    d. Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).
  18. Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
    a. Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
    b. Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
    c. Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
    d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
  19. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
    A. 30
    B. 60
    C. 15
    D. 45
    A. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
    A. XD1.
    B. XF3.
    C. XB3.
    D. XD2.
    C. XB3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
    a. 30.
    b. 60.
    c. 90.
    d. 120.
  22. Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?
    a. I
    b. II
    c. III
    d. VI
    II
  23. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
    a. MXG Commander.
    b. MXG Superintendent.
    c. MXG Deputy Commander.
    d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
  24. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
    a. Audio Visual Center.
    b. Engineering Data Service Center.
    c. AF Primary Standards Laboratory.
    d. Communication and Information System.
  25. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
    a. Oil sheen on standing water.
    b. Stressed vegetation.
    c. Stains on ground.
    d. Cloudy water.
    Cloudy water
  26. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communivation (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
    A. Squadron safety monitor.
    B. Section supervisor.
    C. Squadron commander.
    D. Operations officer.
    B. Section supervisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
    a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
    b. DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.
    c. DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.
    d. DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
  28. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
    A. Squadron Commander.
    B. Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
    C. Section supervisor.
    D. Flight Commander/Chief.
    A. Squadron Commander
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
    A. III.
    B. IIB.
    C. I.
    D. IIA.
    B. IIB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
    a. AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.
    b. AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.
    c. DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
    d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
  31. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?
    A
  32. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?
    C
  33. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
    D04, Daily Document Register
  34. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
    D18, Priority Monitor Report
  35. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
    M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report
  36. Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
    Equipment Liaison Office(ELO)
  37. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for stand-alone spares?
    D
  38. What is the special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) flag code for fault isolation spares?
    F
  39. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    Logistics Readiness Squadron(LRS) Chief Inspector
  40. Which of the following is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring locally performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    Maintenance Group commander
  41. Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft?
    Aircraft commander
  42. Who is responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on an aircraft after it makes an emergency landing?
    Aircraft commander
  43. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with their aircraft, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
    3 hours
  44. What supply delievery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing?
    3
  45. What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock requirements?
    5
  46. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
    AR or BR
  47. Before a supply point cant be establishd and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?
    LRS material management element
  48. What is the accountability document used for supply points that shows the quantity authorized, on-hand, and due-out?
    Supply Point Listing
  49. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
    Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
  50. When a back-ordered item issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
    Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU’s) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) section
  51. When items are placed in an aircraft’s tail number bin (TNB), which entry is not normally needed?
    Security Classification
  52. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
    Supply Discrepancy Report
  53. Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency report program managemet for the submitting organization or group?
    Originating Point
  54. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
    Action Point
  55. Units cannot make local modifications to which AF publication
    Technical Orders
  56. Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group missions and activities?
    MXG Commander (MXG/CC)
  57. Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
    Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
  58. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) cetion?
    Quality Assurance
  59. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
    Standard
  60. An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone depleting substance would be submitted as what technical order (TO) change priority?
    Urgent
  61. Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order (TO) system policies and procedures?
    HQ USAF/A4MM
  62. Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved technical order (TO) waivers or deviations?
    Telephone
  63. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?
    Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)
  64. For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle, the standard time frame for having an aircraft down is
    45-60 days
  65. How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the Non Destructive Inspection Laboratory classified?
    Unshielded
  66. When calibrating navigational equipment, an external power unit is attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation?
    Compass rose
  67. “Red Ball” maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except
    an approved maintenance group (MXG) technical order (TO) compliance waiver
  68. During “Red Ball” maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list (QRL) available in order to
    reduce the time needed to research parts
  69. Which of the following is not a member of the Joint Council on Aging Aircraft (JCAA)?
    National Transportation Safety Board
  70. Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group (MXG) Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) project officer?
    MXG Commander
  71. What Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) section is required to ensure Aircraft Structural Integrity Program (ASIP) equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules?
    Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
  72. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aeerospce maintenance industrial areas?
    Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
  73. In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment?
    Annually
  74. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
    9
  75. In the equipment identification designator (EID) code U6JG00001, what does the third character “J” identify?
    Unit
  76. Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found?
    Operations officer or maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)
  77. Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
    Quality Assurance (QA) Officer in Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)
  78. Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected as Quality Assurance (QA) inspectors?
    6
  79. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    Quality Verification Inspection
  80. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normmaly located within the
    Quality Assurance section
  81. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitore must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of FOD incident?
    24
  82. What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for foreign object damage (FOD) incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for the unit?
    20,000
  83. What time-frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object?
    Engine state to engine shut down
  84. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
    AFI 10-206, Operational Reporting
  85. Which AF publications provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
    AFI 21-101, Aicraft and Equipment Maintenance Management
  86. The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance revoery team member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is
    16 hours
  87. Which maintenance squadron (MXS) flight is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for the maintenance group’s (MXG’s) Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program operating instructions?
    Maintenance Flight
  88. How often must the Team Chief for the Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Program conduct a CDDAR exercise?
    Annually
  89. After initial training, how often must Crashed, Damaged, or Disabled Aircraft Recovery (CDDAR) Team members receive additional academic and hands-on training?
    Annually
  90. Which AF Portal link provides access to recurring AF periodicals like Airman Magazine and the Air and Space Journal?
    AF Electronic Publishing (AF e-Publishing)
  91. Which AF Portal link can be used to access user manuals for various AF computer systems?
    AF Center for Electronic Distribution of Systems (AFCEDS)
  92. Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load crew team members in support of aircraft generation planning?
    Wing Weapons Manager
  93. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: “What steps need to be taken?” during which aircraft generation planning area?
    Aircraft generation actions
  94. You are primarily concerned with answering the question: “How long does each step or group of steps take?” during which aircraft generation planning area?
    Aircraft generation action timing.

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