2ax7x_vol_2.txt

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2ax7x_vol_2.txt
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vol 2 ure
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  1. Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?
    A. Air Combat Command (ACC).
    B. Air Reserve Command (AFRC).
    C. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
    D. Air Training Command (ATC).
    C. Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. The block trainingmethod is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?
    A. Any 7-level course.
    B. Weight and Balance.
    C. Maintenance Orientation.
    D. General Technical Order System.
    C. Maintenance Orientation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?
    a. Annually.
    b. Semi-annually.
    c. Quarterly.
    d. Monthly.
  4. In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of
    A. TSgt.
    B. MSgt.
    C. SMSgt.
    D. CMSgt.
    B. master sergeant (MSgt)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time
    a. access to Distance Learning courseware.
    b. access to special certification roster criteria listings.
    c. visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide.
    d. visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel.
  6. In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?
    a. Open suspenses.
    b. System upgrades.
    c. Application problems.
    d. Changes to your user roles.
  7. What training phase has these four sub-phases:multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?
    A. III.
    B. I.
    C. II.
    D. IV.
    C. II
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?
    A. Ancillary.
    B. On-the-job.
    C. Maintenance qualification.
    D. Maintenance refresher.
    C. Maintenance qualification
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?
    A. Quarterly.
    B. Monthly.
    C. Annually.
    D. Semiannually.
    B. Monthly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?
    A. 15
    B. 45
    C. 30
    D. 60
    C. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?
    A. Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief.
    B. Group commander.
    C. Operations officer.
    D. Unit training manager.
    D. Unit training manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. Manpower authorizations are
    A. unfunded.
    B. funded.
    C. unvalidated.
    D. both funded and unfunded.
    B. funded
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held
    A. weekly.
    B. quarterly.
    C. monthly.
    D. semiannually.
    C. monthly
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is
    a. 12 hours.
    b. 13 hours.
    c. 14 hours.
    d. 15 hours.
  15. Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to
    a. 14 hours.
    b. 15 hours.
    c. 16 hours.
    d. 18 hours.
  16. Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?
    a. Maintenance supply liaison.
    b. Maintenance supply support.
    c. Maintenance operations center.
    d. Maintenance data system analysis.
  17. Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the
    a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS).
    b. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
    c. Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).
    d. Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).
  18. Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?
    a. Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions.
    b. Advising supervisors on supply management documents.
    c. Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list.
    d. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets.
  19. The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?
    A. 30
    B. 60
    C. 15
    D. 45
    A. 30
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock?
    A. XD1.
    B. XF3.
    C. XB3.
    D. XD2.
    C. XB3
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?
    a. 30.
    b. 60.
    c. 90.
    d. 120.
  22. Provided it is still serviceable, you are allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date which type of shelf life item?
    a. I
    b. II
    c. III
    d. VI
    II
  23. Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?
    a. MXG Commander.
    b. MXG Superintendent.
    c. MXG Deputy Commander.
    d. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
  24. What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?
    a. Audio Visual Center.
    b. Engineering Data Service Center.
    c. AF Primary Standards Laboratory.
    d. Communication and Information System.
  25. Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?
    a. Oil sheen on standing water.
    b. Stressed vegetation.
    c. Stains on ground.
    d. Cloudy water.
    Cloudy water
  26. Who is responsible for developing a hazard communivation (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?
    A. Squadron safety monitor.
    B. Section supervisor.
    C. Squadron commander.
    D. Operations officer.
    B. Section supervisor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?
    a. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag.
    b. DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material.
    c. DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material.
    d. DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag.
  28. Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?
    A. Squadron Commander.
    B. Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
    C. Section supervisor.
    D. Flight Commander/Chief.
    A. Squadron Commander
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. An individual must receive what specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?
    A. III.
    B. IIB.
    C. I.
    D. IIA.
    B. IIB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?
    a. AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register.
    b. AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data.
    c. DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher.
    d. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss.
  31. Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?
    a. Flight Service Center (FSC).
    b. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
    c. Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).
    d. Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).
  32. Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?
    a. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander.
    b. Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander.
    c. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander.
    d. Maintenance Group (MXG) commander.
  33. Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal?
    A. C
    B. P
    C. A
    D. G
    C. A
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?
    A. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
    B. D04, Daily Document Register.
    C. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
    D. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    B. D04, Daily Document Register
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?
    A. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    B. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
    C. D04, Daily Document Register.
    D. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
    B. D18, Priority Monitor Report
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report.
    B. D04, Daily Document Register.
    C. D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List.
    D. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report.
    D. M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?
    a. Aircraft commander.
    b. Host installation commander.
    c. Operations Group Commander.
    d. Mission Support Group commander.
  38. When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
    a. hour.
    b. 2 hours.
    c. 3 hours.
    d. 4 hours.
  39. Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector.
    B. Flight commander/Chief.
    C. MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT).
    D. Maintenance Group commander.
    A. Logistics Readiness Squadron(LRS) Chief Inspector
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a partsrequest?
    a. Customer.
    b. Maintenance Supply support.
    c. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
    d. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service.
  41. Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?
    A. AR or BR.
    B. AA or AM.
    C. 1A or JA.
    D. BM or CM.
    A. AR or BR
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. Before a supply point cant be establishd and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?
    A. MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis.
    B. Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance.
    C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center.
    D. LRS material management element.
    D. LRS material management element
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?
    a. Annually.
    b. Semiannually.
    c. Quarterly.
    d. Monthly.
  44. When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the
    A. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC).
    B. Aircraft Section flight chief.
    C. Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicatedscheduler.
    D. Operations Officer.
    A. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?
    a. Deficiency Report (DR).
    b. Supply Discrepancy Report.
    c. Maintenance cross-tell report.
    d. Product Quality Deficiency Report.
    Supply Discrepancy Report
  46. Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency report program managemet for the submitting organization or group?
    a. Originator.
    b. Action Point.
    c. Screening Point.
    d. Originating Point.
    Originating Point
  47. Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?
    a. Originator.
    b. Action Point.
    c. Screening Point.
    d. Originating Point.
    Action Point
  48. Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within
    a. 8 hours.
    b. 16 hours.
    c. 24 hours.
    d. 32 hours.
  49. Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required.
    B. Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts.
    C. Resolving TO availability problems.
    D. Advising MXG/CC on TO availability.
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?
    a. Maintenance Supply Liaison.
    b. Maintenance Operations Center.
    c. Maintenance Management Analysis.
    d. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
  51. The Product Improvement Manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group (MXG) section?
    A. Engine Management.
    B. Maintenance Operations Center.
    C. Maintenance Data System Analysis.
    D. Quality Assurance.
    D. Quality Assurance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. Which of the following is not a technical order (TO) change priority category?
    a. Urgent.
    b. Routine.
    c. Standard.
    d. Emergency.
    Standard
  53. Who has the overall responsibility for AF policy governing the TO system?
    a. A4MT.
    b. A4YE.
    c. A4U.
    d. A4BM.
  54. Who designates cannibalization authorities?
    a. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT).
    b. Maintenance Group (MXG) Commander.
    c. MXG Vice Commander.
    d. MXG Superintendent.
  55. Which of the following does not institute a restricted maintenance area?
    a. Weapons loading operations.
    b. Radiographic inspections.
    c. Fuel system repair.
    d. Aircraft on jacks.
  56. Red Ball maintenance is not designed to prevent
    a. air aborts.
    b. late takeoffs.
    c. ground aborts.
    d. aircraft status changes.
  57. Who designates the Impoundment Official for a particular impoundment situation?
    a. Maintenance Group (MXG) Vice Commander.
    b. MXG Impoundment Release Authority.
    c. Applicable Impoundment Authority.
    d. Applicable Squadron commander.
  58. If a serially controlled item is cannibalized (CANN), who is the CANN authority required to notify?
    A. Programs and Resources Flight.
    B. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
    C. Maintenance Management analysis (MMA).
    D. Quality Assurance.
    B. Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/equipment used on the flight line and in aeerospce maintenance industrial areas?
    A. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC).
    B. Wing Vice Commander (WG/CV).
    C. Wing Commander (WG/CC).
    D. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
    A. Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. How many digits make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment?
    A. 10
    B. 9
    C. 11
    D. 8
    B. 9
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. The Wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor is normally located within the
    a. Maintenance Flight.
    b. Quality Assurance section.
    c. Engine Management section.
    d. Maintenance Operations Center.
  62. The wing foreign object damage (FOD) monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident?
    a. 8.
    b. 12.
    c. 24.
    d. 48.
  63. Which of the following, if inadvertently dropped during aircrew operations, is not considered a dropped object under the Dropped Object Prevention Program?
    A. Explosive munitions.
    B. Bolt.
    C. Panel.
    D. Safety pin.
    A. Explosive munitions.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported IAW
    a. AFI 10–206, Operational Reporting.
    b. AFI 10–2510, USAF Emergency Notification Signals.
    c. AFI 91–224, Ground Safety Investigations and Reports.
    d. AFI 91–221, Weapons Safety Investigations and Reports.
  65. Which AF publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation?
    a. AFTTP 3–21.1, Aircraft Maintenance.
    b. AFI 10–403, Deployment Planning and Execution.
    c. AFI 33–103, Requirements Development and Processing.
    d. AFI 21–101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management.
  66. Who is the Quality Assurance (QA) Chief Inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) functions are performed?
    A. MAJCOM Inspector General.
    B. Maintenance Group Deputy Commander (MXG/CD).
    C. Wing Inspector General.
    D. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer In Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT).
    D. Quality Assurance (QA) Officer in Charge (OIC)/Superintendent (SUPT)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. When a unit has received an unsatisfactory Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) rating, the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) directs Quality Assurance (QA) to perform a follow-up inspection on the unit within how many days?
    a. 30.
    b. 60.
    c. 90.
    d. 120.
  68. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    A. Personnel Evaluation.
    B. Quality Verification Inspection.
    C. Management Inspection.
    D. Special Inspection.
    A. Personnel Evaluation.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. What Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Team (MSET) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task?
    a. Special Inspection.
    b. Personnel Evaluation.
    c. Management Inspection.
    d. Quality Verification Inspection.
  70. In regards to the modification management program, which agency serves as the operator’s interface with the single point manager for a weapons system?
    a. Air Force Mobility Command.
    b. Quality Assurance.
    c. Inspector General.
    d. Lead command.

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