Lec 1 Heme/Onc

Card Set Information

Author:
ch.tyrrell
ID:
183527
Filename:
Lec 1 Heme/Onc
Updated:
2012-11-14 11:52:09
Tags:
Heme Onc Lecture
Folders:

Description:
Lec 1: Intro to Oncology
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user ch.tyrrell on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. What are the 4 steps of carcinogenesis?
    • 1. Initiation
    • 2. Promotion
    • 3. Conversion or transformation
    • 4. Progression
  2. Normal cells are exposed to carcinogenc substances, leading to genetic damage, leading to irreversible cellular mutations.
    Initiation
  3. Carcinogens of other factors create an environment that favors growth of mutated cells over normal cells.  This process is reversible.
    Promotion
  4. Cell become cancerous.  Could be years before diagnosis occurs.
    Conversion or transformation
  5. Tumor invasion into local and distal sites (metastasis).
    Progression 
  6. What are the risk factors for development of cancer?
    • 1. chemical: aniline dye exposure, benzene, smoking, drugs
    • 2. physcial agents: radiation, UV lights
    • 3. biologic: Epstein-Barr virus, HPV
    • 4. age: > 50-60
    • 5. gender: hormonal patterns
    • 6. diet
    • 7. chronic irritation: persistent cell damage & repair
    • 8. family history: genetics
  7. Which drugs are known to cause cancer?
    • 1. alkylating agents
    • 2. anabolic steroids
    • 3. analgesics containing phenacetin
    • 4. anthracyclines (doxorubicin)
    • 5. antiestrogens (tamoxifen)
    • 6. coal tar (topical)
    • 7. estrogens
    • 8. nonsteroidal (diethyl stilbestrol)
    • 9. steroidal (estrogen replacement therapy, OC)
    • 10. epipodophyllotoxins (etoposide, teniposide)
    • 11. immunosuppressives (cyclosporine, azathioprine)
    • 12. oxazaphosphorines (cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide)
  8. What is an oncogene?
    • develop from normal genes called protooncogenes
    • protooncogenes --> oncogenes
  9. What is a protooncogene?
    • present in all cells
    • regulate normal cell cycle & function
    • alterations lead to oncogenes by means of point mutations, insertions, deletions & translocations
  10. What are some examples of oncogenes?
    • EFGR
    • HER-2/neu
    • RET
    • BCL-2
    • BCR-ABL
    • N-MYC
  11. What is the function of a tumor suppressor gene?
    • regulate & inhibit inappropriate cell growth & cell proliferation
    • mutation or loss of the gene leads to uncontrolled, unregulated, unchecked, unimpeded cell growth
    • ex: p53, BRCA1, BRCA2, Rb1
  12. What are the steps of the normal cell cycle?
    • 1. cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)
    • 2. apoptosis
    • 3. cellular senescence
  13. What is the function of CDKs and how do they relate to cancer?
    • Function: regulate checkpoints in the cell cycle
    • dysfunctional or non-existent in cancer cells --> cells continue to proliferate unregulated
  14. What is the function of apoptosis and how does it relate to cancer?
    • Function: backup defense mechanism
    • dysfunctional or non-existent in cancer cells --> increases risk for malignancy
  15. What is the function of ellular senescence and how does it relate to cancer?
    • Function: telomeres regulate the life-span of the cell (pre-set # of divisions); caps at the end of the chromosome
    • protects DNA from damage
    • shortened w/ each cell cycle
    • telomerase is over-produced in cancer cells
  16. If a tissue is identified as ending in -oma, what can be said about the state of that tissue?
    benign
  17. If a tissue is identified as a carcinoma or a sarcoma, what can be said about the state of that tissue?
    malignant
  18. What are the mechanisms of tumorigenesis exhibited by most cancers?
    • 1. self-sufficient in growth signals: activation of H-Ras oncogene
    • 2. insensitive to anti-growth signals: loss of tumor suppressor genes
    • 3. evades apoptosis: produces growth factor survival factors
    • 4. limitless replicative potential: turns on telomerase
    • 5. sustained angiogenesis: express vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inducers
    • 6. tissue invasion & metastasis: inactivation of E-cadherin
  19. Identify the components of tumr staging, TNM.
    • T = tumor (size & invasion)
    • N = lymph node involvement
    • M = metastasis (0= no; 1= yes)
  20. Define the stages of cancer (1-4)
    • Stage 1: localized cancer
    • Stage 2-3: regional invasion (N > 1)
    • Stage 4: metastatic cancer (M at least = 1)
  21. What are the 4 modalities of treatment?
    • 1. surgery (local)
    • 2. radiation (local)
    • 3. chemotherapy (systemic)
    • 4. biologic therapy (systemic)
  22. What is the treatment of choice for most solid tumors when possible?
    surgery
  23. Which modality of treatment destroys cancer cells in the early & some more advanced stages, helps eradicate cancer cells left behind by surgery and aids in tumor size reduction prior to other therapies?
    radiation
  24. Which modality of treatment is used for management & treatment of primary tumor & any metastatic disease?
    chemotherapy
  25. What are the adverse effects of surgery for cancer treatment?
    surgical complications, damage to surrounding tissue, possible metastasis
  26. What are the adverse effects of radiation for cancer treatment?
    irritation of the skin & tissue underneath, fatigue, infertility & secondary cancers are a possibility
  27. What are the adverse effects of chemotherapy for cancer treatment?
    N/V, alopecia, fatigue, myelosuppression (anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), mucositis, infertility, extravasation, cutaneous reactions, secondary malignancies
  28. Which form of biologic therapy is broad? More specific?
    • immunotherapy = broad
    • targeted therapy = more specific
  29. What is neoadjuvant therapy?
    chemo administered before surgery or radiation (primary treatment)
  30. What is adunctive therapy?
    used concomitantly with primary treatment
  31. What is adjuvant therapy?
    given after the primary therapy to enhance possibility of a cure
  32. What is palliative therapy?
    to palliate or decrease symptoms of the cancer or its therapy
  33. What is salvage therapy?
    administered after primary therapy has failed (usually different regimen)
  34. What is induction therapy?
    1st step of therapy (loading dose or 1st chemo treatment)
  35. What is consolidation therapy?
    intensive chemo given after the inital induction therapy
  36. What is maintenance therapy?
    use of low dose chemo to promote lifelong remission
  37. What year was Tamoxifen discovered?
    1967
  38. What year did Tamoxifen prevential trials occur?
    1989
  39. What year did proof of principle that chemoprevention works occur?
    1990
  40. What year was BCG shown to prevent bladder cancer?
    1991
  41. What year were antiestrogen drugs found to prevent DCIS?
    1995
  42. What year was it discovered that Tamoxifen reduces breast cancer incidence?
    1998
  43. What year was it discovered that finasteride reduces prostate cancer incidence?
    2003
  44. What year was it found that aspirin prevents colon cancer?
    2003
  45. What is the purpose of a performance scale (i.e., Karnofsky, ECOG)?
    determines if a patient is healthy enough to tolerate chemotherapy
  46. What does a patient's Karnofsky perfomance scale need to be for them to be eligible for chemotherapy?
    • usually > 60%
    • < 40% = significantly disabled and needs a lot of care & attention
  47. What does a patient's ECOG score need to be in order to be considered elibile to receive chemotherapy?
    • usually < 2
    • 0= fully active
    • 2= ambulatory & capable of self care but not able to carry out work activities
    • 5= near death

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview