Pharm ANS

Card Set Information

Author:
dtminhthu
ID:
18391
Filename:
Pharm ANS
Updated:
2010-05-14 20:53:44
Tags:
Pharmacology autonomics sympathetic parasympathetic alpha receptors beta receptors nicotinic receptors muscarinic receptors
Folders:

Description:
Pharm ANS
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user dtminhthu on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. Smooth muscle contraction. It causes vasoconstion in vessels (skin, GI, kidney, brain). Contraction of erector pili muscles, uterus (when pregnant), urethral sphincter. Glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis from adipocytes & liver, secretion from sweat glands & Na+ reabsorp from kidney.

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    E. M2
    A
  2. inhibition of insulin release induction of glucagon release, contraction of sphincters of GI, slows HR

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    E. M2
    B
  3. incr HR, Renin release JG cells. Lipolysis in adipose tissue

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    E. M2
    C
  4. Relaxes smooth muscle of Bronchioles, Arterioles, GI, Urinary bladder. Liver glycogenolysis, Skeletal Muscle potassium uptake

    A. beta-1
    B. beta-2
    C. M3
    D. Nm
    E. Nn
    B
  5. Increase Adenylyl cyclase, increase ­cAMP. Activates Ca2+ channels, increase PKA, inhibit MLC

    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    A
  6. Beta receptors activated via coupling with...


    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    A
  7. Glucagon and histamine receptors activated via coupling with ...


    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    A
  8. Decrease Adenylyl cyclase, decrease cAMP. Activates cardiac K+ channels, causing hyperpolarization.

    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    B
  9. Alpha 2 receptors activated via coupling with ...

    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    B
  10. M2 receptors activated via coupling with ...

    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    B
  11. Opioids (morphine) receptors activated via coupling with ...

    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    B
  12. Increase Phospholipase C, increase inositol triphosphate (IP3), diacylglycerol (DAG) and cytoplasmic Ca2+. MLC activated.

    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    C
  13. Alpha 1 receptors activated via coupling with ...

    A. Gs
    B. Gi
    C. Gq
    D. Gt1, Gt2
    E. M2
    C
  14. Presynaptic Alpha-2 receptor responds to...

    A. Epi
    B. ACh
    C. Na
    D. NE
    E. Ca
    D
  15. Presynaptic alpha 2 receptors respond to NE, leading to ...

    A. Increase in NE release
    B. Decrease in NE release
    C. No change in NE release
    D. Increase in Epi release
    E. Decrease in Epi release
    B
  16. Clonidine is a ...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. M3 agonist
    C
  17. Antagonism of this receptor decreases post-ganglionic activity -->Lowers BP

    A. beta-1
    B. beta-2
    C. M3
    D. Nm
    E. Nn
    E
  18. Mecamylamine is a non-selective antagonist meant to block which receptor to treat hypertension?

    A. beta-1
    B. beta-2
    C. M3
    D. Nm
    E. Nn
    E
  19. Alpha-methyl tyrosine blocks the action of ...

    A. Tyrosine kinase
    B. Tyrosine decarboxylase
    C. Tyrosine carboxylase
    D. Tyrosine hydroxylase
    E. Tyrosine phosphorylase
    D
  20. Alpha-methyl tyrosine will not affect synthesis of

    A. NE
    B. Epi
    C. Dopamine
    D. ACh
    D
  21. Reserpine ...

    A. Blocks Epi storage
    B. Blocks ACh storage
    C. Blocks NE storage
    D. Displaces Epi
    E. Displaces NE
    C
  22. Which of the following drugs acts as an agonist first before it displaces and depletes its target?

    A. Amphetamine
    B. Edrophonium
    C. Clonidine
    D. Reserpine
    E. Guanethidine
    E
  23. Botuliusm...

    A. Reversibly binds to vesicles & neurons --> stops ACh release
    B. Irreversibly binds to vesicles & neurons --> stops ACh release
    C. Reversibly binds to vesicles & neurons --> stops NE release
    D. Irreversibly binds to vesicles & neurons --> stops NE release
    E. Reversibly binds to vesicles & neurons --> stops Epi release
    B
  24. Black widow spider toxin causes excessive ACh release via...

    A. Inhibiting uptake of ACh
    B. Inhibiting cholinesterase
    C. Upregulating post-synaptic ACh receptors
    D. Upregulating pre-synaptic ACh receptors
    E. Destabilizing ACh vesicles
    E
  25. Amphetamine enhances activity of monoamine transporters --> greater release of ...

    A. Epi
    B. ACh
    C. Na
    D. NE
    E. Ca
    D
  26. Amphetamine enhances activity of monoamine transporters ---> greater release of ...

    A. Epi
    B. ACh
    C. Na
    D. Dopamine
    E. Ca
    D
  27. Amphetamine enhances activity of monoamine transporters --> greater release of ...

    A. Serotonin
    B. ACh
    C. Na
    D. Epi
    E. Ca
    A
  28. Which one is not an NE & other amine reuptake inhibitors (uptake 1)?

    A. Tricyclics
    B. SSRIs
    C. Cocaine
    D. Clonidine
    E. Prozac
    D
  29. bethanechol is a...

    A. alpha agonist
    B. alpha antagonist
    C. beta agonist
    D. muscarinic agonist
    E. muscarinic antagonist
    D
  30. Mecamylamine is a nonselective...

    A. beta agonist
    B. beta antagonist
    C. nicotinic agonist
    D. nicotinic antagonist
    E. muscarinic agonist
    D
  31. Curare is a competitive ...

    A. nicotinic agonist
    B. nicotinic antagonist
    C. alpha agonist
    D. muscarinic agonist
    E. muscarinic antagonist
    B
  32. Physostigmine is a(n)... & crosses BBB

    A. direct cholinesterase agonist
    B. indirect cholinesterase agonist
    C. direct anticholinesterase agonist
    D. indirect anticholinesterase agonist
    E. direct cholinesterase antagonist
    D
  33. Neostigmine is a(n)...

    A. direct cholinesterase agonist
    B. indirect cholinesterase agonist
    C. direct anticholinesterase agonist
    D. indirect anticholinesterase agonist
    E. direct cholinesterase antagonist
    C
  34. Pyridostigmine is a(n)...

    A. direct cholinesterase agonist
    B. indirect cholinesterase agonist
    C. direct anticholinesterase agonist
    D. indirect anticholinesterase agonist
    E. direct cholinesterase antagonist
    C
  35. Edrophonium is a(n)...

    A. Short acting cholinesterase
    B. Long acting cholinesterase
    C. Short acting anticholinesterase
    D. Long acting anticholinesterase
    C
  36. Organophosphorus toxins (Sarin) are...

    A. Short acting cholinesterase
    B. Long acting cholinesterase
    C. Short acting anticholinesterase
    D. Long acting anticholinesterase
    D
  37. Which receptor does NOT respond to NE?

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    D
  38. Which receptor responds to NE?

    A. beta-1
    B. beta-2
    C. M3
    D. Nm
    E. Nn
    A
  39. Alpha-1 when stimulated causes...

    A. Arteriole dilation
    B. Arteriole constriction
    B
  40. Eccrine sweat glands act via...

    A. beta-1
    B. beta-2
    C. M3
    D. Nm
    E. Nn
    C
  41. NO-mediated dilation can be induced by...

    A. beta-1
    B. beta-2
    C. M3
    D. Nm
    E. Nn
    C
  42. End product of NE & E metabolism is...

    A. S-adenosylmethionine
    B. tyramine
    C. acetylcholine
    D. tyrosine
    E. vanillyl-mandelic acid
    E
  43. MAO oxidation rxn is a...

    A. CYP phase I rxn
    B. non-CYP phase I rxn
    C. phase II rxn that uses SAM
    D. phase II rxn that uses CYP
    B
  44. COMT is metabolized by...

    A. CYP phase I rxn
    B. non-CYP phase I rxn
    C. phase II rxn that uses SAM
    D. phase II rxn that uses CYP
    C
  45. Resistant to metabolism by MAO

    A. Amphetamine
    B. Edrophonium
    C. Clonidine
    D. Reserpine
    E. Guanethidine
    A
  46. Free NE is displaced by these drugs. These drugs are metabolized in place of NE. Which one does not belong in such group?

    A. Amphetamine
    B. Tyramine
    C. Clonidine
    C
  47. Nicotine is an...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    C
  48. Carbachol is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    C
  49. Hexamethonium is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    D
  50. Trimethaphan is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    D
  51. Mecamylamine is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    D
  52. Succinylcholine & curare are ...

    A. Nn agonist
    B. Nn antagonist
    C. Nm agonist
    D. Nm antagonist
    E. M agonist
    D
  53. Hemicholinium...

    A. Increases reuptake of NE/E
    B. Inhibits reuptake of NE/E
    C. Increases reuptake of ACh
    D. Inhibits reuptake of ACh
    D
  54. Pilocarpine is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    E
  55. Bethanechol is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    E
  56. Carbachol is a direct...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    E
  57. Methacholine is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. N agonist
    D. N antagonist
    E. M agonist
    E
  58. a-methyl tyrosine...

    A. Induces tyrosine decarboxylase
    B. Inhibits tyrosine decarboxylase
    C. Induces tyrosine carboxylase
    D. Induces tyrosine hydroxylase
    E. Inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase
    E
  59. Tyrosine hydroxylase not is rate limiting step in synthesis of ...

    A. ACh
    B. Dopamine
    C. NE
    D. Epi
    E. L-Dopa
    A
  60. Epi binding to beta-2 receptors does not induce...

    A. Bronchodilation
    B. Vasodilation
    C. Relaxation of gut & uterine smooth muscle
    D. Vasoconstriction
    E. Glucose release
    D
  61. Clonidine is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. M3 agonist
    C
  62. alpha methyl dopa is a(n)...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. M3 agonist
    C
  63. Most of NE is rapidly removed via...

    A. Uptake 1
    B. Uptake 2
    C. Diffusion to COMT/MAO in liver & plasma
    D. Hydrolysis
    E. Tyrosine hydroxylase
    A
  64. Uptake 2 delivers NE to COMT...

    A. Pre synaptically
    B. In synapse
    C. Post synaptically
    C
  65. Prazosin is a selective...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A1 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. B1 antagonist
    B
  66. phentolamine is short acting...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A1 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. B1 antagonist
    B
  67. phenoxybenzamine is a(n)...

    A. alpha agonist
    B. alpha antagonist
    C. beta agonist
    D. muscarinic agonist
    E. muscarinic antagonist
    B
  68. Methoxamine is a pure...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A1 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. B1 antagonist
    A
  69. Yohimbine is a(n)...

    A. alpha agonist
    B. alpha antagonist
    C. beta agonist
    D. muscarinic agonist
    E. muscarinic antagonist
    B
  70. Ephedrine & Epi are NOT agonists for...

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    B
  71. Which drug has good oral bioavailability because resistant to MAO/COMT since it is a NON-catechol?

    A. Epi
    B. NE
    C. Ephedrine
    D. Physostigmine
    E. Amphetamine
    C
  72. Selectively blocks alpha-1 only, less reflex tachycardia

    A. Clonidine
    B. Prazosin
    C. Ephedrine
    D. Phycostigmine
    E. Yohimbine
    B
  73. Selectively blocks alpha-1 only, less reflex tachycardia

    A. Terazosin
    B. Dobutamine
    C. Phenylephrine
    D. Dopamine
    E. Salmeterol
    A
  74. Selectively blocks alpha-1 only, less reflex tachycardia

    A. Guanethidine
    B. Tranylcypromine
    C. Doxazosin
    D. Phenelzine
    E. Isoproterenol
    C
  75. Selectively blocks alpha-1 only, less reflex tachycardia\

    A. Carvedilol
    B. Pseudoephedrine
    C. Neostigmine
    D. Tamsulosin
    E. Metaraminol
    D
  76. Phentolamine is non selective a ...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A1 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. B1 antagonist
    B
  77. Phenoxybenzamine is non selective...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A1 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. B1 antagonist
    B
  78. Inhibits SANS or EPI action at both a1 and B1 receptors

    A. albuterol
    B. propranolol
    C. salmeterol
    D. Labetalol
    E. Carvedilol
    D
  79. Blocks all beta and alpha-1 receptors

    A. albuterol
    B. propranolol
    C. salmeterol
    D. Labetalol
    E. Carvedilol
    E
  80. MAO-B (dopamine) inhibitor; parkinson’s & dementia

    A. SSRI
    B. Phenelzine
    C. Selegiline
    D. Tranylcypromine
    C
  81. reversible inhibitor for all MAO; treat mood & anxiety disorders

    A. SSRI
    B. Phenelzine
    C. Selegiline
    D. Tranylcypromine
    D
  82. irreversible inhibitor of MAO-A (NE, 5-HT and some DA) and B (Dopamine); treats anxiety

    A. SSRI
    B. Phenelzine
    C. Selegiline
    D. Tranylcypromine
    B
  83. Which one is NOT an a2 antagonist?

    A. Physostigmine
    B. Phenoxybenzamine
    C. Phentolamine
    D.Yohimbine
    A
  84. Pindolol is a...

    A. Selective B1 antagonist
    B. Non selective B1 antagonist
    C. Selective B1 partial antagonist
    D. Non selective B1 partial antagonist
    D
  85. Acebutolol is a...

    A. Selective B1 antagonist
    B. Non selective B1 antagonist
    C. Selective B1 partial antagonist
    D. Non selective B1 partial antagonist
    C
  86. Blocks Aromatic L-amino acid decarboxylase in peripheral tissue, does not cross BBB.

    A. L Dopa
    B. Carbidopa
    C. Guanethidine
    D. Mecamylamine
    E. None of the above
    B
  87. Metaproterenol acts as

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. B1 agonist
    D. B1 antagonist
    E. M3 agonist
    A
  88. Causes persistent sodium influx in motor neurons --> paralysis

    A. Botulinum toxin
    B. Succinylcholine
    C. Black widow spider
    D. Cocaine
    B
  89. Prevents anchoring of vesicles to release ACh

    A. Botulinum toxin
    B. Succinylcholine
    C. Black widow spider
    D. Cocaine
    A
  90. Causes persistent Na inflex into motor neuron similar to succinylcholine --> paralysis. Due to excessive ACh release

    A. Botulinum toxin
    B. Batrachotoxin
    C. Black widow spider (latrotoxin)
    D. Cocaine
    B
  91. hexamethonium is a ...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    D
  92. Pentolinium is a ...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    D
  93. Mecamylamine is a ...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    D
  94. Trimetaphan is a ...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    D
  95. Pempidine is a...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    D
  96. Benzohexonium is a...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    D
  97. Pentamine is a....

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    D
  98. NMJ blocker that causes highest level of histamine release & autonomic ganglia blockage

    A. Tubocurarine
    B. Succinylcholine
    C. Rocuronium
    D. Vecuronium
    E. Mivacurium
    A
  99. Mivacurium is a ...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    B
  100. Vecuronium is a ...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    B
  101. Rocuronium is a ...

    A. Nm agonist
    B. Nm antagonist
    C. Nn agonist
    D. Nn antagonist
    E. M antagonist
    B
  102. Which drug is best in treating symptoms of hypertension & pheochromocytoma?

    A. Alpha methyl tyrosine
    B. Labetalol
    C. Acebutolol
    D. Propanolol
    E. Phenoxybenzamine
    B
  103. Salmeterol is a long acting...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. B1 agonist
    D. B1 antagonist
    E. M3 agonist
    A
  104. Metaraminol is not a ...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A2 agonist
    C. B1 agonist
    D. B2 agonist
    B
  105. Dobutamine is a selective...

    A. B2 agonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. B1 agonist
    D. B1 antagonist
    E. M3 agonist
    C
  106. Phenylephrine is a selective...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A1 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. B1 antagonist
    A
  107. Methoxamine is a selective...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A1 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. B1 antagonist
    A
  108. Pseudoephedrine is a selective ...

    A. A1 agonist
    B. A1 antagonist
    C. A2 agonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    E. B1 antagonist
    A
  109. Dopamine improves cardiac performance in shock states at which receptor?

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    E. M2
    C
  110. Dopamine improves renal blood flow via which receptor?

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    E. D1
    E
  111. Low dose dopamine activates ___ receptors in renal vascular beds

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    E. D-1
    E
  112. Intermediate dopamine doses stimulates which receptors?

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    E. D-1
    C
  113. High doses of dopamine stimulates all of these receptors except...

    A. alpha-1
    B. alpha-2
    C. beta-1
    D. beta-2
    E. D-1
    D
  114. Metoprolol is a ...

    A. B1 antagonist
    B. B2 antagonist
    C. A1 antagonist
    D. A2 antagonist
    A
  115. NE works at which receptors?
    A1, A2, B1
  116. Epi works at which receptors?
    A1, B1, B2
  117. Ephedrine is an...
    A1, B1, B2 agonist
  118. Pseudoephedrine is a
    A1, B1 agonist
  119. Phenylephrine is a ...
    A1 agonist
  120. Methoxamine is a
    A1 agonist
  121. Which receptors are involved in vasomotor center?
    A2, B2
  122. A-methyl dopa is a
    A2 agonist
  123. Guanabenz is a
    A2 agonist
  124. Dopamine is a
    B1, D1, D2 agonist
  125. Metaproterenol is a
    B2 agonist
  126. Terbutaline is a
    B2 agonist
  127. Pirbuterol is a
    B2 agonist
  128. Salmeterol is a
    B2 agonist
  129. Formotorol is a
    B2 agonist
  130. Timolol is a
    B1, B2 antagonist
  131. Nadolol is a
    B1, B2 antagonist
  132. Atenolol is a
    b1 antagonist
  133. Acebutolol is a
    B1 antagonist
  134. Pindolol is a
    partial agonist/antagonist at b1, b2
  135. Acebutolol is a
    partial agonist/antagonist at B1
  136. Curare is a
    Nm non depolarzing blocker
  137. Succinylcholine is a ...
    Nm depolarizing blocker
  138. Ecothiophate is a
    M2, M3 agonist
  139. Tropicamide is a ...
    M3 antagonist
  140. Cyclopentolate is a
    M3 antagonist
  141. Scopolamine is a
    M3 antagonist
  142. Ipratropium is a
    M3 antagonist
  143. Ritodrine is a
    B2 agonist
  144. Bretylium
    deplates NE (same as reserpine & guanethidine)
  145. Imipramine is a
    reuptake inhibitor
  146. Amitriptyline is a
    reuptake inhibitor
  147. Alpha 2 does what to insulin release?
    Decreases secretino of insulin from beta cells
  148. A2 does what to vasomotor control?
    Decreases transmission --> less NE released (negative feedback)
  149. Decamethonium is a
    Nm antagonist
  150. Homatropine is a
    M antagonist
  151. Tubocurarine is a
    Non - depolarizing Nm antagonist
  152. Pancuronium is a
    Non depolarzing Nm blocker, analogue of tubocurarine & no histamine release
  153. Atracurium is a
    non depolarzing Nm blocker, less potent than tubocurarine & no histamine release
  154. Vecuronium is a
    Non depolarzing Nm blocker not as potent as tubocurarine & no histamine release
  155. Gallamine is a
    non depolarzing Nm blocker less potent than tubocurarine & no histamine release
  156. Decamethonium is a
    Nm depolarzing blocker similar to succinylcholine
  157. Saxitoxin
    blocks Na channels like tetrodotoxin
  158. Batrachotoxin causes
    sodium inflex persistent depolarization (like succinylcholine)
  159. alpha bungarotoxin
    Nm blocker like curare
  160. What are effects of M3 stimulation on lung, gut, urinary bladder, and arterioles?
    • Bronchoconstriction
    • Increased glandular secretions
    • Increased GI motility & relaxation of sphincters
    • Detrusor muscle contraction & sphincter/trigone relaxation
    • Vasodilation of arterioles (but no influence on veins) - via NO
  161. Trimethaphan is a
    Nn blocker
  162. Liver and skeletal glycogenolysis is stimulated via
    B2 receptors
  163. Metyrosine
    Inhibits tyrosine hydroxylase, preventing synthesis of catecholamines

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview