Micro Test 3: Vibrio, Campylobacter

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BrookeNH10
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184006
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Micro Test 3: Vibrio, Campylobacter
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2012-11-16 16:10:23
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Vibrio Campylobacter
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Vibrio, Campylobacter, Helicobacter
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  1. Name 3 species of Vibrio.
    • V. cholerae
    • V. parahaemolyticus
    • V. vulnificus
  2. Grow on simple media at wide temperature and pH ranges, but susceptible to stomach acid.
    Vibrio
  3. Which form of Vibrio can grow without salt?
    V. cholerae
  4. Vibrio:
    1)  Shape?
    2)  Flagella?
    Curved rods with a single polar flagellum
  5. Which part of Vibrio;s LPS is used to divide it into serogroups?
    O-polysaccharide
  6. Which forms of Vibrio cholerae produce cholera toxin?
    O1 & O139

    Note:  Serogroup 1 can be further subdivided into serotypes.
  7. Name the two biotypes of V. cholerae O1. 
    Which one caused the first 6 pandemics?
    Which one caused the 7th?
    • Classical (first 6)
    • El tor (7th)
  8. What does Vibrio's capsule do?
    Helps disseminate the infection
  9. What forms of Vibrio produce a capsule?
    V. vulnificus and non-O1 V. cholerae (NOT produced by V. cholerae O1- bacteria don't spread beyond intestine)
  10. What is unique about V. cholerae and V. vulnificus?
    They have two circular chromosomes.  Each chromosome is essential.
  11. Vc Pathogenesis:  Biological effect of cholera toxin.
    Hypersecretionof electrolytes and water.
  12. Vc Pathogenesis:  Biological effect of toxin co-regulated pilus.
    Adherence to intestinal mucosal cells; binding site fo r CTXp
  13. Vc Pathogenesis:  Biological effect of accessory cholera enterotoxin.
    Increases intestinal fluid secretion
  14. Vc Pathogenesis:  Biological effect of Zonnula occludens toxin.
    Increases intestinal permeatibility
  15. Vc Pathogenesis:  Biological effect of neuraminidase.
    Modifies cell surface by cleaving sialic acid to increase GM1 binding sites for cholera toxin.
  16. What encodes genes for the 2 subunits of cholera toxin (ctxA and ctxB) in V. cholerae?
    Bacteriophage CTXφ
  17. CTXφ binds _____ and moves into the bacterium where it becomes integrated into the bacterial genome.
    toxin co-regulated pilus
  18. Name 2 toxins Bacteriophage CTXφ encodes other than the cholera toxin.
    • Accessory cholera enterotoxin gene (ace)
    • Zonnula occludens toxin gene (zot)
  19. What coordinates the Bacteriophage CTXφ virulence genes?
    ToxR regulator
  20. Cholera toxin is an _____ toxin.  This is similar to the ___ toxin of ____
    • A-B
    • Heat-labile (LT) of E. coli
  21. What do the five B subunits of V. cholerae bind to?
    Ganglioside GM1 on intestinal epithelial cells
  22. What does the A subunit of V. cholerae toxin do?
    Becomes internalized (only A subunit, NOT B) and activates adenylyl cyclase -> ATP is catalyzed to cAMP and hypersecretion of electrolytes
  23. Thermostable direct hemolysin is a virulence factor of
    V. parahaemolyticus
  24. Antiphagocytic polysaccharide capsule, siderophores and cytolysis are a virulence factor of
    V. vulnificus
  25. V. parahaemolyticus induces chloride ion secretion in epithelial cells by increasing ______
    intracellular calcium
  26. Which strand of Vibrio is useful in classifying virulent strains?  What type of hemolysis does this show on blood agar?
    Vibrio parahaemolyticus, Beta-hemolysis
  27. Virulent strains of V. parahaemolyticus are called?
    Kanagawa positive
  28. Where are Vibrio species commonly found.
    Water (especially salinious water with chitinous shellfish)
  29. How is cholera spread?
    Contaminated water and food (oysters), usually in places with poor sanitation
  30. Most common cause of GI disease in Japan and SE Asia.
    V. parahaemolyticus
  31. Most common Vibrio species causing GI disease in US?
    V. parahaemolyticus
  32. Vibrio species that produces severe, often fateal, wound infections.
    V. vulnificus
  33. V. cholerae
    1)  Source of infection:
    2)  Disease:
    • 1)  Water, food
    • 2)  Gastroenterititis
  34. V. parahaemolyticus
    1)  Source of infection:
    2)  Disease
    • 1)  Shellfish, seawater
    • 2)  Gastroenteritis, wound infection, bacteremia
  35. V. vulnificus
    1) Source of Infection:
    2)  Disease:
    • 1)  Shellfish, seawater
    • 2)  Bacteremia, wound infection, cellulitis
  36. Two main serotypes of V. cholerae
    O1 and O139
  37. What bacteria produces "rice water stool"?  What is rice water stool?
    V. cholerae

    Colorless, odorless, and speckled with mucus
  38. V. cholerae mortality:
    Untreated:
    Treated:
    • 60%
    • < 1%
  39. How many days after ingestion do symptoms of cholera appear?
    2-3 days (get watery diarrhea and vomiting)
  40. How long after ingestion, does it take for V. parahaemolyticus symptoms to occur?  What are these symptoms?
    • 5-72 hours
    • Explosive, watery diarrhea
  41. How do you treat V. parahaemolyticus?
    Self-limited diarrhea, No treatment
  42. What bacteria is responsible for 1) wound infections after exposure to contaminated seawater and 2) septicemia after consumption of contaminated oysters.
    V. vulnificus
  43. Vibrio diagnosis must be collected early in the disease and if not, the specimen should be mixed in _____ and refrigerated.
    Cary-Blair transport medium
  44. Can Vibrio grow on blood or MacConkey agar?
    Both
  45. Name a selected agar for Vibrio.
    Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose (TCBS)
  46. How do you treat V. cholerae?
    Prompt tx with fluid and electrolyte replacement before the fluid loss leads to shock. (Antibiotic therapy can help reduce bacteria and thus toxin production, but it is secondary to fluid replacement.)
  47. Which antibiotics would you use as secondary tx in cholera patients:
    1)  Adults:
    2)  Pregnant Women:
    3)  Children:
    • 1)  Adults:  Doxycycline or tetracycline
    • 2)  Pregnant Women:  Furazolidone
    • 3)  Children:  Sulfa-trimethoprim
  48. Which strain of cholera is often resistant to furazolidone and sulfa-trimethoprim?
    O139
  49. How do you treat V. parahaemolyticus GI disease?
    Fluids and electrolytes; antibiotics in severe cases
  50. How do you treat V. vulnificus wound infections and septicemia?
    Minocycline + fluoroquinolone or cefotaxime
  51. Campylobactor
    1)  Gram-P or Gram-N
    2)  Shape
    3)  Flagellum
    4)  Aerobic/Anaerobic
    5)  Able to oxidize or ferment carbohydrates?
    6)  Oxidase-P or Oxidase-N
    • 1)  Gram-N
    • 2) Comma or S-shaped
    • 3)  Single polar flagellum
    • 4)  Microaerophile
    • 5)  Unable to oxidize or ferment carbs
    • 6)  Oxidase-P
  52. What are the two most frequent bacterial causes of gastroenteritis in the USA?
    • C. jejuni
    • Salmonella
  53. What is the most common cause of C. jejuni infection?
    Poultry via fecal-oral route

    Does NOT spread via water or person-to-person
  54. Name 3 species of Campylobacter
    • C. jejuni
    • C. fetus
    • C. coli
  55. Which species of Campylobacter has a propensity to spread to the bloodstream?
    C. fetus
  56. What capsule proteins makes Campylobacter resistant to complement- and antibody- mediated lysis?
    S protein
  57. What two types of lysis are Campylobacter resistant to?
    Complement- & Antibody- mediated lysis
  58. Which type of Campylobacter can cause Guillian-Barre?
    C. jejuni
  59. C. jejuni can present with what type of diarrhea?
    Bloody diarrhea
  60. What bacteria can cause spontaneous abortion in pregnant women?
    Campylobacter
  61. What type of bacteria does Campylobacter produce?
    Greenish-watery foul-smelling diarrhea (maybe followed by bloody diarrhea)
  62. What bacteria produces a greenish watery foul-smelling diarrhea?
    Campylobacter
  63. How do you treat Campylobacter?
    Self-limiting

    Severe cases can be given Erythromycin or azithromycin , tetracylines or fluoroquinolones.
  64. Campylobacter definitive diagnosis can only be made by detecting the bacteria in ______.
    Stool Cultures
  65. Autoimmune disorder of the peripheral nervous system that is characterized by symmetrical weakness.
    Guillian Barre
  66. Antibodies directed against ________ LPS can damage neural tissue and cause _______
    Campylobacter jejuni, Guillian Barre
  67. What serotype of Campylobacter is Guillian-Barre associated with?
    O:19
  68. Does Campylobacter grow on MacConkey?
    No, it only growths on Campylobacter selective agar microaerophilically at 42 C.
  69. What antibiotics are Campylobacter resistant to?
    Penicillins, cephalosporins, sulfonamides
  70. Name 3 diseases for H. Pylori
    • Gastritis
    • Peptic Ulcers
    • Risk factor for gastric carcinoma
  71. Gastritis:
    Gastroenteritis:
    • Gastritis:  Inflammation of stomach mucosa
    • Gastroenteritis:  Inflammation of stomach and intestines
  72. H. pylori:
    1)  Gram-P or Gram-N
    2)  Shape
    3)  Motile
    4)  Location
    5)  Oxidase-P/N
    6)  Urease-P/N
    • 1)  Gram-N
    • 2)  Rod
    • 3)  Highly motile
    • 4)  Found in gastric mucous layer/ epithelial lining of the stomach
    • 5)  Oxidase-P
    • 6)  Urease P
  73. H. pylori:
    _______ deficient mutants do NOT colonize the stomach and do NOT cause pathology.
    Urease
  74. H. pylori:
    Urease can bind to _______ bearing cells and cause apoptosis.
    MHC class II
  75. Dyspepsia (upset stomach), bloating, indigestion, nausea, upper abdominal pain,  weight loss and heartburn are indications of?
    Helicobacter
  76. How do you treat Helicobacter?
    • Antibiotics for 1-2 wks:
    • Tetracycline, metronidazole, and omeprazole
    • Bismuth Salts (Pepto-Bismol)
  77. How is Helicobacter trasmitted?
    50% of patients w/ H. pylori are + for the bug in their ___
    • Person-to-person transmission
    • dental plaque (gross)
  78. Name 3 ways to diagnose H. pylori.
    • Gastric biopsy
    • Non-invasive Urease Test (C14-based urea breath test)
    • Anti-H. pylori antibodies in serum
  79. Aeromonas hydrophila
    1)  Found in?
    2)  Oxidase-P/N
    3)  Aerobic/Anaerobic
    • 1)  Aquatic environments --> hydrophila, duh
    • 2)  Oxidase-P
    • 3)  Facultative anaerobe
  80. Aeromonas hydrophila Treatment:
    1)  Acute diarrhea
    2)  Chronic diarrheal disease or systemic infection
    3)  Resistant to?
    • 1)  Self-limiting
    • 2)  Ciprofloxacin;  aminoglycosides and sulfa-trimethoprim are also active
    • 3)  B-lactam antibiotics and erythromycin

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