Critical Care Nursing

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Author:
plbernal
ID:
185123
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Critical Care Nursing
Updated:
2012-11-24 15:13:46
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Acute Renal Failure
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Acute Renal Failure quiz
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  1. The patient's creatinine clearance is 5 mL/min. This value signifies:

    A. hyperactive kidneys
    B. normal renal fuction
    C. renal dysfunction
    D. inaccurate lab results
    C. renal dysfunction
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. Acute renal failure is potentially reversible in the:

    A. convalescent phase.
    B. initiation phase.
    C. maintenance phase.
    D. recovery phase.
    B. initiation phase.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. Hyponatremia in renal dysfunction is the result of:

    A. water overload
    B. sodium excess.
    C. dehydration.
    D. potassium deficit.
    A. water overload
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. Signs and symptoms of acute renal failure include:

    A. bradycardia, with decreased respiration, low serum bicarbonate, and elevated pH.
    B. lethargy, tachypnea, and elevated serum bicarbonate.
    C. slowed respirations and low pH.
    D. tachypnea, low pH, and low serum bicarbonate.
    D. tachypnea, low pH, and low serum bicarbonate.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. Which of the following is a common complication of hemodialysis?

    A. oliguria
    B. ascities
    C. hypotension
    D. peritonitis
    C. hypotension
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A medication that has the dual effect of creating a solute diuresis  (increased flow of tubular cellular debris) and augmenting renal blood  flow is:

    A.dopamine.
    B.mannitol.
    C.acetylcysteine.
    D.furosemide.
    D.furosemide.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. In general, maintenance of cardiovascular function and _________ are the two key goals in the prevention of acute tubular necrosis (ATN).

    A.normal potassium level
    B.adequate intravascular volume
    C.intake of a renal diet
    D.normal sodium level
    B.adequate intravascular volume
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. One of the most useful noninvasive diagnostic tools available for clinicians to monitor fluid volume status is:

    A.monitoring daily weight.
    B.kayexalate instillations.
    C.daily creatinine measurements.
    D.hourly urine output measurement.
    A.monitoring daily weight.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. A study that delineates the size, shape, and position of the kidneys, and also demonstrates abnormalities, such as calculi, hydronephrosis (enlargement of the renal pelvis), cysts, or tumors is the:

    A.kidney, ureters, bladder (KUB) x-ray.
    B.intravenous pyelogram (IVP).
    C.ultrasound.
    D.renal biopsy.
    A.kidney, ureters, bladder (KUB) x-ray.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. While undergoing his first ever hemodialysis treatment, the patient suddenly becomes confused, complains of a headache, begins to twitch, and proceeds to have a seizure. The nurse realizes that this most likely is
    due to:

    A.cerebral edema.
    B.low serum potassium levels.
    C.hypotension.
    D.volume depletion.
    A.cerebral edema.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. Which of the following are indications for hemodialysis? (Choose all that apply.)

    A.Acid-base imbalances
    B.Cardiovascular instability
    C.Electrolyte imbalances
    D.Fluid overload
    • A.Acid-base imbalances
    • C.Electrolyte imbalances
    • D.Fluid overload
  12. The principles that are the basis for dialysis are: (Choose all that apply.)

    A.grafting.
    B.diffusion.
    C.shunting.
    D.ultrafiltration.
    • B.diffusion.
    • D.ultrafiltration.
  13. The patient has returned to the unit after having an arteriovenous fistula placed in his right arm. The nurse knows that: (Choose all that apply.)

    A.as a result, the vein will dilate.
    B.no blood pressures will be allowed in that arm until morning.
    C.the fistula site will be ready to use by morning.
    D.the pulse distal to the fistula needs to be evaluated.
    • A.as a result, the vein will dilate.
    • D.the pulse distal to the fistula needs to be evaluated.
  14. Which of the following are common complications of hemodialysis? (Choose all that apply.)

    A.Dysrhythmias
    B.Hypotension
    C.Infection
    D.Muscle cramps
    E.All of the above
    E.All of the above
  15. The patient is undergoing peritoneal dialysis. The nurse must be alert for signs and symptoms of peritonitis, which include: (Choose all that apply.)

    A.abdominal pain and fever.
    B.cloudy return fluid.
    C.loss of bruit or thrill.
    D.poor drainage from the abdominal cavity.
    • A.abdominal pain and fever.
    • B.cloudy return fluid.
    • D.poor drainage from the abdominal cavity.
  16. Exposure to aminoglycoside antibiotics, such as gentamicin, might result in _____ ______ _______.
    acute tubular necrosis
  17. It is recommended that _______ medications be withheld for 4 to 6 hours before hemodialysis to reduce the likelihood of hypotension during the procedure.
    antihypertensives
  18. The most common intrarenal condition resulting from prolonged ischemia is
    acute tubular necrosis
  19. An aminoglycoside peak level is usually drawn _____ to ____ hours after the drug is administered.
    1; 2
  20. _____ refers to nitrogenous waste in the blood.
    Azotemia
  21. Hypovolemia and cardiogenic shock are the contributors to ______ failure.
    prerenal
  22. Oliguria refers to a urine output of less than _____ mL in 24 hours.
    400
  23. ______ _____ _____ is the sudden deterioration of renal function,
    resulting in retention of nitrogenous waste products (azotemia).
    Acute renal failure
  24. Conditions that produce acute renal failure by interfering with renal perfusion are classified as _______.
    prerenal
  25. Acute renal failure resulting from obstruction of the flow of urine is classified as _________, or obstructive renal failure.
    postrenal
  26. Conditions that produce acute renal failure by directly acting on functioning kidney tissue (either the glomerulus or the renal tubules) are classified as _________.
    intrarenal
  27. _______ ______ _____ ____ is particularly useful for patients in the critical care unit whose cardiovascular status is too unstable to tolerate rapid fluid removal.
    Continuous renal replacement therapy
  28. _____________ is manifested by abdominal pain, cloudy peritoneal fluid, fever and chills, nausea and vomiting, and difficulty in draining fluid from the peritoneal cavity.
    Peritonitis
  29. A major goal of nutritional management of acute renal failure is to reduce catabolism of the body's fat sources.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  30. Complications of hemodialysis include hypotension, dysrhythmias, and muscle cramps.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  31. CRRT is frequently used therapy in acute renal failure because it provides continuous ultrafiltration of fluids and clearance of toxins.

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  32. Hypocalcemia is the most life-threatening electrolyte imbalance of acute renal failure because it can cause seizures.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  33. Patients with acute renal failure who are oliguric have an increased susceptibility to life-threatening infection and therefore should have a catheter inserted immediately using strict aseptic technique.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  34. Peak and trough drug levels of antibiotics are monitored in patients with acute renal failure to prevent suboptimal drug levels because many drugs are removed by dialysis.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  35. The best measure of renal function is urinary creatinine clearance.

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  36. The cause of renal anemia is iron deficiency, for which most patients receive oral iron supplements.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  37. The nursing assessment of a patient with an A-V fistula includes auscultation of the site (for a bruit) and palpation (for the presence of a thrill) every 8 hours.

    A. True
    B. False
    A. True
  38. Some patients with acute renal failure are patients with acute renal failure are nonoliguric and may excrete 2 to 4 L of normal urine in 24 hours.

    A. True
    B. False
    B. False
  39. Commonly used to treat the anemia of chronic renal failure

    1.10:1 to 20:1
    2.Acute tubular necrosis
    3.Dialysis
    4.Dopamine
    5.Epogen
    6.Hypovolemia
    7.Ultrafiltration
    5.Epogen
  40. Controversial treatment of acute renal failure

    1.10:1 to 20:1
    2.Acute tubular necrosis
    3.Dialysis
    4.Dopamine
    5.Epogen
    6.Hypovolemia
    7.Ultrafiltration
    4.Dopamine
  41. Prerenal condition

    1.10:1 to 20:1
    2.Acute tubular necrosis
    3.Dialysis
    4.Dopamine
    5.Epogen
    6.Hypovolemia
    7.Ultrafiltration
    6.Hypovolemia
  42. Primarily used for controlling fluid volume

    1.10:1 to 20:1
    2.Acute tubular necrosis
    3.Dialysis
    4.Dopamine
    5.Epogen
    6.Hypovolemia
    7.Ultrafiltration
    7.Ultrafiltration
  43. Separation of solutes by differential diffusion

    1.10:1 to 20:1
    2.Acute tubular necrosis
    3.Dialysis
    4.Dopamine
    5.Epogen
    6.Hypovolemia
    7.Ultrafiltration
    3.Dialysis
  44. The most common intrarenal condition

    1.10:1 to 20:1
    2.Acute tubular necrosis
    3.Dialysis
    4.Dopamine
    5.Epogen
    6.Hypovolemia
    7.Ultrafiltration
    2.Acute tubular necrosis
  45. The normal BUN/creatinine ratio

    1.10:1 to 20:1
    2.Acute tubular necrosis
    3.Dialysis
    4.Dopamine
    5.Epogen
    6.Hypovolemia
    7.Ultrafiltration
    1.10:1 to 20:1

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