Practice Quiz 3

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rcpantoni
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186190
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Practice Quiz 3
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2012-11-29 23:11:19
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ITN 200
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Practice Quiz 3
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  1. ____ provides more flexibility than basic disks so there is
    virtually no restriction on the number of volumes that can be on one disk.
    A.  Virtual disk architecture
    B.  Flexible disk architecture
    C.  Extensible disk architecture
    D.  Dynamic disk architecture
    A.  Virtual disk architecture
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. ____ creates a root directory (folder) and a volume label.
    A.  Formatting
    B.  Partitioning
    C.  Labeling
    D.  Initializing
    A.  Formatting
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. A(n) ____ is created from space that is not yet partitioned.
    A.  secondary partition
    B.  extended partition
    C.  primary partition
    D.  active partition
    B.  extended partition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The ____ is the partition that contains the operating system files
    located in the Windows folder.
    A.  boot partition
    B.  primary partition
    C.  extended partition
    D.  active partition
    A.  boot partition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. A ____ consists of two or more partitions that are combined to
    look like one volume with a single drive letter.
    A.  volume group
    B.  logical volume
    C.  volume set
    D.  disk set
    C.  volume set
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. A ____ is two or more disks that are combined like a volume set, but that are striped for RAID level 0 or RAID level 5.
    A.  volume set
    B.  stripe set
    C.  RAID set
    D.  partition set
    B.  stripe set
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. A ____ is a portion of a disk or an entire disk that is set up as
    a dynamic disk.
    a.  dynamic volume
    b.  basic volume
    c.  simple volume
    d.  primary volume
    c.  simple volume
  8. A ____ is stored on 2 to 32 dynamic disks that are treated as one volume.
    A.  mirrored volume
    B.  spanned volume
    C.  striped volume
    D.  concatenated volume
    B.  spanned volume
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. When you partition a disk, leave ____ or more of the disk space free.
    A.  4 MB
    B.  3 MB
    C.  1 MB
    D.  2 MB
    C.  1 MB
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. A ____ is one that appears as a folder and is accessed through a path like any other folder.
    A.  mounted drive
    B.  mounted folder
    C.  linked folder
    D.  dynamic folder
    A.  mounted drive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. A ____ is a server folder that is associated with a user’s account and that is a designated workspace for the user to store files.
    A.  primary folder
    B.  personal directory
    C.  profile directory
    D.  home directory
    D.  home directory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. The ____ tool allows you to scan your disk for bad sectors and
    file system errors.
    A.  Volume Manager
    B.  Disk Check
    C.  Disk Utility
    D.  Device Manager
    B.  Disk Check
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. ____ is the ability of a system to gracefully recover from
    hardware or software failure.
    A.  High availability
    B.  Risk tolerance
    C.  Fault tolerance
    D.  Network load balancing
    C.  Fault tolerance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. Disk mirroring involves creating a shadow copy of data on a backup disk and is RAID level ____.
    A.  0
    B.  2
    C.  1
    D.  5
    C.  1
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  15. A ____ is a grouping of storage devices that forms a subnet.
    A.  System Area Network (SAN)
    B.  Storage Area Network (SAN)
    C.  Local Area Network (LAN)
    D.  Wide Area Network (WAN)
    B.  Storage Area Network (SAN)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. ____ is a subnetwork technology originally developed for
    mainframes but now is used primarily for SANs and enables gigabit high-speed data transfers.
    A.  InfiniBand®
    B.  Fibre Channel
    C.  Disk Channel
    D.  Ethernet Channel
    B.  Fibre Channel
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. ____ is used to enable management of disk volumes in SANs through one interface at a server.
    A.  Virtual Disk Service (VDS)
    B.  Virtual Disk Manager (VDM)
    C.  Dynamic Disk Service (DDS)
    D.  Dynamic Disk Manager (DDM)
    C.  Dynamic Disk Service (DDS)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. When you install Multipath I/O, you also install the ____.
    A.  Device Filter Module (DFM)
    B.  Device Path Module (DPM)
    C.  Device Enabling Module (DEM)
    D.  Device Specific Module (DSM)
    D.  Device Specific Module (DSM)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. To use the Windows Server Backup tool that comes with Windows Server 2008, you need to install it using ____.
    A.  Computer Manager
    B.  System Manager
    C.  Disk Manager
    D.  Server Manager
    D.  Server Manager
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. You can install wbadmin.exe in Server Core using the command: ____.
    A.  Ocsetup FailoverCluser-FullServer
    B.  Ocsetup DesktopExperience
    C.  Ocsetup WindowsBackup
    D.  Ocsetup WindowsServerBackup
    D.  Ocsetup WindowsServerBackup
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. A(n) ____ is in a dotted decimal format that contains four fields
    of decimal values representing 8-bit binary octets.
    A.  IPX address
    B.  IPv6 address
    C.  IPv4 address
    D.  MAC address
    C.  IPv4 address
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. ____ is a measurement specification of the transmission quality,
    throughput, and reliability of a network system.
    A.  Bandwidth management
    B.  Quality of Service
    C.  Information on Service
    D.  Differentiated service
    B.  Quality of Service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. A(n) ____ packet (unique to IPv6) contains a destination address that is associated with multiple interfaces, usually on different nodes.
    A.  multicast
    B.  anycast
    C.  broadcast
    D.  unicast
    B.  anycast
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. A(n) ____ packet has a destination address that is associated with multiple interfaces and is directed to each of the interfaces with that address group.
    A.  unicast
    B.  multicast
    C.  broadcast
    D.  anycast
    B.  multicast
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. The ____ zone holds the pointer (PTR) resource record, which contains the IP-address-to-host name.
    A.  name lookup
    B.  forward lookup
    C.  reverse lookup
    D.  host lookup
    C.  reverse lookup
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. The ____ enables information in a name server to be automatically updated in coordination with DHCP.
    A.  DNS dynamic update protocol
    B.  SMTP dynamic update protocol
    C.  WINS dynamic update protocol
    D.  NetBIOS dynamic update protocol
    A.  DNS dynamic update protocol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. A ____ is the DNS server that is the main administrative server
    for a zone.
    A.  stub DNS server
    B.  secondary DNS server
    C.  host DNS server
    D.  primary DNS server
    D.  primary DNS server
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. A primary DNS server is the ____ server for a zone.
    A.  secondary
    B.  slave
    C.  authoritative
    D.  replica
    C.  authoritative
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. A ____ contains a copy of the primary DNS server’s zone database, but is not used for administration (is not authoritative).
    A.  master DNS server
    B.  secondary DNS server
    C.  child DNS server
    D.  replica DNS server
    B.  secondary DNS server
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. DNS forwarding can be set up so that if the DNS server that
    receives the forwarded request cannot resolve the name, then the server that originally forwarded the request attempts to resolve it, which is called ____.
    A.  selective forwarding
    B.  nonexclusive forwarding
    C.  exclusive forwarding
    D.  restricted forwarding
    B.  nonexclusive forwarding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. When DNS forwarding is set so that only the DNS server receiving the request attempts resolution (and not the server that forwarded the request), this is called ____.
    A.  nonexclusive forwarding
    B. exclusive forwarding
    C.  selective forwarding
    D.  restricted forwarding
    B. exclusive forwarding
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. When a DNS server receives a query for a domain it does not
    recognize, it can use a ____ to find that domain on the Internet.
    A.  tld zone
    B.  root zone
    C.  master zone
    D.  root hint
    D.  root hint
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. In ____, resource records are created for two or more servers that have different IP addresses but are associated with the same host name.
    A.  DNS name clustering
    B.  DNS round robin
    C.  DNS name rotation
    D.  server clustering
    B.  DNS round robin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. ____ means that a DNS server that has a large number of entries in its zones can load those entries as a background process.
    A.  Dynamic zone loading
    B.  Secondary zone loading
    C.  Demand zone loading
    D.  Background zone loading
    D.  Background zone loading
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. Being able to make ____ means that the DNS server can provide a complete answer to a query or an error message when it cannot.
    A.  external queries
    B.  forward queries
    C.  recursive queries
    D.  reverse queries
    C.  recursive queries
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. If you have multiple servers used for one application, such as for Web access or accounting software, use ____ to distribute the load.
    A.  Server clustering
    B.  fault tolerance
    C.   DNS round robin
    D.  DNS name routing
    C.  DNS round robin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. The ____ registers the IP addresses and names of its client
    computers by writing them to the WINS database.
    A.  DHCP server
    B.  BOOTP server
    C.  DNS server
    D.  WINS server
    D.  WINS server
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The ____ stores the IP addresses, names, and mapping information for name-to-IP address lookups.
    A.  NetBIOS database
    B.  DNS database
    C.  IPX database
    D.  WINS database
    D.  WINS database
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. A Windows Server 2008 server can be configured in the role of a DHCP server using Microsoft ____ services.
    A.  Configuration
    B.  DHCP
    C.  boot
    D.  System
    B.  DHCP
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. As you plan server implementation, consider placing DNS and DHCP services on ____ servers to reduce hardware, energy, and support costs.
    A.  network
    B.  virtual
    C.  secondary
    D.  physical
    B.  virtual
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. A ____ is really a physical folder or a redirection to a Uniform Resource Locator (URL) that points to a folder, so that it can be accessed over the Internet, an intranet, or VPN.
    A.  subordinate directory
    B.  virtual directory
    C.  secondary directory
    D.  Web directory
    B.  virtual directory
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. A ____ is a special addressing format used to find, for example, particular Web locations or FTP sites.
    A.  directory
    B.  URP
    C.  URL
    D.  UML
    C.  URL
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. The virtual directory share permission ____ enables groups and
    users to read, execute, and add files, but can only modify and delete files provided by them.
    A.  co-owner
    B.  reader
    C.  owner
    D.  contributor
    D.  contributor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. ____ enable you to group similar Web applications into groups for management.
    A.  Object pools
    B.  Server pools
    C.  Application pools
    D.  Management pools
    C.  Application pools
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. A(n) ____ is an ASP.NET process that runs on its own without using the same memory space as IIS.
    A.  control process
    B.  worker process
    C.  external thread
    D.  master thread
    B.  worker process
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. The ____ is created automatically when you install the Web Server role.
    A.  DefaultAppPool
    B.  DefaultPool
    C.  DefaultApp
    D.  ApplicationPool
    A.  DefaultAppPool
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. The ____ feature is used to manage Internet e-mail via e-mail
    programs that take advantage of the application programming interface, system.net.mail.
    A.  HTTP E-mail Page
    B.  Web E-mail Page
    C.  SMTP E-mail Page
    D.  SMTP Object Page
    C.  SMTP E-mail Page
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. The ____ Web site feature is used to configure the dll files, code files, and other files used to fulfill client requests.
    A.  application mappings
    B.  file mappings
    C.  handler mappings
    D.  object mappings
    C.  handler mappings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. Windows Server 2008 offers the Active Directory ____ Services role as a way to implement a network infrastructure built on trust.
    A.  Client
    B.  Certificate
    C.  Federation
    D.  Domain
    B.  Certificate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. A ____ is linking a public key or a combination of public and
    private keys to a user or network entity to verify that user or entity is trusted.
    A.  public key infrastructure
    B.  public key network
    C.  public key structure
    D.  public key federation
    A.  public key infrastructure
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. A ____ is a network entity or host, typically a server that issues digital certificates of trust verifying the legitimacy of the certificate holders.
    A.  certificate authority
    B.  certificate master
    C.  certificate network
    D.  certificate director
    A.  certificate authority
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. ____ is an encryption method that uses a public key and private key combination.
    A.  Public key
    B.  Shared key
    C.  Universal key
    D.  Symmetric key
    A.  Public key
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Lists of certificates that have been revoked are known as ____.
    A.  URLs
    B.  RRLs
    C.  CRLs
    D.  CAs
    C.  CRLs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. A(n) ____ CA does not have to be integrated with Active Directory and so does not have to use user and security group information derived from Active Directory.
    A.  standalone subordinate
    B.  enterprise subordinate
    C.  standalone root
    D.  enterprise root
    C.  standalone root
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. A(n) ____ CA uses the same hierarchical subordinate structure as for an enterprise subordinate, but does not require integration with Active Directory.
    A.  standalone subordinate
    B.  enterprise root
    C.  unlinked subordinate
    D.  standalone root
    A.  standalone subordinate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. PKI activity can be set up so that no action needs to be taken by users and very little action by CA administrators by using ____.
    A.  autoconfiguration
    B.  DHCP
    C.  autoenrollment
    D.  DNS
    C.  autoenrollment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. ____ means that when a user logs into the network, the digital certificate information stored on the user’s computer is automatically synchronized with the digital certification information for that user stored in Active Directory.
    A.  Credential hopping
    B.  Domain hopping
    C.  Domain roaming
    D.  Credential roaming
    D.  Credential roaming
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Credential roaming is configured as a ____, which enables it to be automatically applied to client computers running Windows operating systems such as Windows Vista and 7.
    A.  network policy
    B.  template
    C.  group policy
    D.  script
    C.  group policy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Through ____, network device administrators are given enrollment passwords.
    A.  Network Device Enrollment Service
    B.  Certificate Enrollment Service
    C.  Certificate Management Service
    D.  Online Certificate Service
    A.  Network Device Enrollment Service
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. CRLs are issued at regular intervals as determined by the ____.
    A.  certificate manager
    B.  client
    C.  certificate requester
    D.  CRL issuer
    D.  CRL issuer
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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