NASM (Mac).txt

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NASM (Mac).txt
2012-12-02 17:16:56

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  1. Optimum stride length at maximum velocity is: 
    2.1 to 2.5 times leg length
  2. The study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within the body:
  3. The movement of a body part away from the middle of the body:
  4. The 3 components of the Kinetic Chain:
    • Nervous system
    • Skeletal system
    • Muscular system 
  5. When excited, which of the following sensory receptors will cause an activated muscle to relax through the process of autogenic inhibition
    A. Muscle spindles
    B. Joint Receptors
    C. Golgi Tendon Organs 
    D. Chemorecptors
    C. Golgi Tendon Organs 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. The anatomical location that refers to a position above a reference point:
  7. Anatomic Locations
    Position below a point of reference
  8. Anatomic Locations
    Position nearest the center of the body, or point of reference
  9. Anatomic Locations
    Positioned farthest from the center of the body, or point of reference
  10. Anatomic Locations
    On the front of the body
    Anterior (ventral)
  11. Anatomic Locations
    On the back of the body
    Posterior (dorsal)
  12. Sensory receptors responsible for sensing distortion in body tissue
  13. 3 planes of motion
    • Frontal
    • Sagittal
    • Transverse 
  14. Examples of Sagittal plane exercises:
    • Biceps curl
    • Triceps pushdown
    • Squat
    • Front lunge
    • Calf raise
    • Walking
    • Running
    • Vertical jumping
    • Climbing stairs
  15. Examples of Frontal plane exercises:
    • Side lunge
    • Side shuffle
    • Side lateral raise
  16. Examples of Transverse plane exercises:
    • Trunk rotation
    • Throwing
    • Golfing
    • Swinging a bat 
  17. Muscles that act as prime movers / most responsible for a particular movement
  18. Muscles that assist prime movers
  19. Support or stabilize the body while the prime movers and synergist perform the movement patterns
  20. Muscles that perform the opposite action of a prime mover
  21. Core Stabilization exercises:
    • Marching
    • Floor bridge
    • Floor prone cobra (fish out of water)
    • Prone iso-ab (plank) 
  22. Core Strength exercises:
    • Ball crunch
    • Back extensions
    • Reverse crunch
    • Cable rotations 
  23. Core Power exercises:
    • Rotation chest pass
    • Ball medicine ball pullover throw
    • Front medcine ball oblique throw
    • Woodchop throw
  24. Exercises that emphasize an agonist immediatley followed by an exercise that emphasize the antagonist are known as:
    Compound set
  25. An environment that is said to be proprioceptively enriched is one that works on challenging what:
    Internal balance & Stabilization
  26. Connective tissue such as tendons & ligaments repair very slowly due to a lack of:
    Blood supply
  27. The plane of motion that divides the body into two halves of front and back, thereby allowing for side to side movement:
    Frontal plane
  28. Hypertension is defined as blood pressure greater than:
    140/90 Hg
  29. Reactive training helps to improve which of the following:
    A. Rate of force production
    B. Pattern overload
    C. Motor unit recruitment
    D. Maximum strength 
    A. Rate of force production
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. How many calories does one fat yield:
  31. Successful people who know what they want from life have been shown to lead lives that are characterized by:
    • Purpose
    • Meaning
    • Passion 
  32. Lifestyle questions that the health & fitness professional should ask in the initial assessment:
    What are your recreational activies or hobbies
  33. A client who exhibits the movement compensation of excessive forward lean during overhead squat assessment should foam the:
    Soleus (calve muscle)
  34. To assess BMI; what is the equation used:
    Divide body weight (kilos) by height (in meters squared)
  35. Severe BMI scores begins with:
    • 35
    • Mild = 25-30
    • Moderate = 30 - 35
    • Severve = >35 
  36. Compensation of the knees caving inward during overhead squat assessment would implicate:
    Adductor complex as being tight
  37. When the structural integrity of the body has been compromised as a result of a disruption in one or more of the components of the kenetic chain, what will develop:
    Postural distortion patterns
  38. What test the upper extremity neuromuscular efficiency:
    Pushing assessment
  39. The type of bloop pressure that signifies the minimum pressure within the arteries through a full cardiac cycle:
    • Diastolic BP
    • Range is 80 to 85Hg 
  40. During an overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back; what stretch would be most appropriate:
    A. Static piriformis (butt foam roll) 
    B. Static kneeling hip flexor stretch 
    C. Static gastrocnemius stretch (standing calve stretch)
    B. Static kneeling hip flexor stretch 
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. What is the correct position of the back leg during the cable rotation exercise:
    Triple extention
  42. The study that uses principle of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within the body:
  43. What nutrient is responsible for acting as transports for vitamins A, D, E, and K:
  44. What percentage of comuunication is based on physiology (stance, eye contact etc.):
  45. After becoming a credentialed personal trainer, how many CEU's are required per two year time period:
  46. 3 example of believe as a powerful predictor of success:
    • Hope
    • Self-efficacy
    • Focus & Control 
  47. Consumption of which are associated with lower incidence of heart disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintaing good intestinal motlity and helps regulate the body's absorption of glucose:
    A. water
    B. carbohydrate 
    C. protien
    D. fiber
    D. fiber
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. What % of communication is based on words:
  49. 3 examples of essential questions to ask a client in the initial appointment:
    • 1. What are you trying to achieve
    • 2. What is most important about achieving that goal
    • 3. How long has it been a goal 
  50. Approximately how many amino acids does the body use:
  51. Individuals who engage in higher level visonary thinking, as well as lower level strategic thinking are known as:
    Flexible thinkers
  52. The three phases of flexibility training:
    • Corrective
    • Active
    • Functional
  53. Active flexibility uses the priciples of:
    a. Reciprocal inhibition
    b. Autogenic inhibition
    a. Reciprocal inhibition
  54. What type(s) of stretching stimulates the Golgi tendon organ and produces autogenic inhibition
    Static stretching & Self-myofascial release
  55. What are the two stretching techniques utilized in corrective flexibility:
    • Self-myofascial realease
    • Static stretching 
  56. What is an indicator that a client is ready to move from Stage One to Stage Two in the cardiorespiratory training program
    Maintaing Zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes 2-3 times a week
  57. What are the benefits of a warm-up:
    • Increases heart & respiratory rate
    • Increases tissue temperature
    • Increases psychological preparation for bouts of exercise 
  58. NASM suggests that the cardiorespiratory portion of a warm-up should last up to how long:
    10 minutes at a low-to-moderate intensity
  59. Sufficient time for a cool-down period is approximately 
    5 to 10 minutes
  60. Warm-up components for the Stabilization level clients:
    • Self-myofascial release
    • Static stretching
    • Cardiorespiratory exercise
  61. Warm-up components for the Strength level clients:
    • Self-myofascial release
    • Active-isolated stretching
    • Cardiorespiratory exercise
  62. Warm-up components for the Power level clients:
    • Self-myofascial release
    • Dynamic stretching 
  63. F.
    • Frequency
    • Intensity
    • Time
    • Type
    • Enjoyment
  64. Trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflamation resulting in muscle spasm and adhesions. If left unchecked these adhesions can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue evident by which law?
    Davis's Law
  65. It has been shown that obesity-related health problems begin to increase when a person's BMI exceeds
    A. 20
    B. 25
    C. 30
    D. 35
    B. 25
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. During a single leg squat assessment a client's knee move inward. This indicates which of the following muscles as being underactive:
    A. Biceps femoris
    B. Gluteus medius
    C. Adductor complex
    D. Vastus lateralis
    B. Gluteus medius
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Ankle sprains have been shown to decrease neural control to which of the following muscles:
    A. Gluteus medius
    B. Lateral gastrocnemius
    C. Anterior tibialis
    D. Tensor fascia latae
    A. Gluteus medius
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. What is the appropriate weight increase, following warm-up when performing a lower extremity strength assessment (squat)?
    A. 10 -20 lbs
    B. 20-30 lbs
    C. 30-40 lbs
    D. 40-50 lbs
    C. 30-40 lbs
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  69. A client who exhibits the arms falling forward during an overhead squat assessment could benifit most from performing which of the following strengthening exercises?
    A. Prone iso-abs
    B. Ball squats
    C. Tube walking
    D. Squat to row
    D. Squat to row
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  70. What are the average resting heart rates for a male and female
    • Male 70
    • Female 75
  71. When performing the 3-minute step test, how much time does the health and fitness professional allow the client to take before measuring recovery rate:
    A. 90 seconds
    B. 30 seconds
    C. 60 seconds
    D. 3 minutes
    C. 60 seconds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  72. An example of an objective assessment would include which of the following:
    A. Dietary intake
    B. Par-Q
    C. Heart rate
    D. General & Medical history
    C. Heart rate
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. When performing circumference measurements, where should the health & fitness professional measure the waist
    The narrowest part of the waist
  74. What assessment best measures lower extremity agility & neuromuscular control
    Shark skill test
  75. If it is noticed that a client's arms fall forward during the descent part of the overhead squat assessment. What would likely be considered weak (underactive)
    Lower trapezius
  76. The core is defined as:
    • Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
    • Thoracic spine
    • Cervical spine
  77. Joint motion is refered to as
  78. Resistance training can become a hindrance if the improper assessment and poor flexibility protocal the anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body
  79. During a squat exercise which muscle serves as the synergist:
    A. Rectus abdominos
    B. Hamstrings
    C. Psoas
    B. Hamstrings
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Balance is what type of process:
    Static & Dynamic
  81. Research has demonstrated higher volume training (3-4 sets @ 9-20 reps) produce what type of training adaptations:
    A. Neural
    B. Endurance
    C. Cellular
    D. Metabolic
    C. Cellular
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. The preferred resistance training system for using the OPT model is:
    a. Vertical loading
    b. Horizontal loading
    a. Vertical loading
  83. What type of exercise would a single-leg balance be considered:
    A. Functional-balance
    B. Balance-strength
    C. Balance-stabilization
    D. Core-stabiization
    C. Balance-stabilization
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. What exercise represents a back-stabilization exercise:
    A. Floor prone Iso-abs
    B. Machine lat pull down
    C. Standing cable row
    D. Low row
    C. Standing cable row
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)