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2012-12-03 12:59:31

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  1. What is a requirement for military explosives?
    Raw materials must be cheap
  2. Volatility is the tendency of a substance to produce;
  3. The rate of transformation for high explosives is between;
         3,200 and 28,000 feet per second.
  4. The tendency of a substance to burn with a rapid and sparkling combustion is called;
  5. What are the detonation products?
        heat, light, gases, and pressure
  6. How do we classify explosive train primers?
    By the way they are initiated
  7. How can you increase the penetration effect of a shaped charge?
    Increase standoff distance.
  8. For what purpose do we use a shaped charge?
    To produce an explosive penetration of a solid object
  9. The four factors that control the visibility of pyrotechnics are candle powder, color, weather, and;
  10. Name two types of effects for signals;
    Light and smoke 
  11. What pyrotechnic effect is produced by the AN-MK13 signal?
    Smoke and fire
  12. How is the A/P25S-5A distress signal ignited?
    Percussion primer
  13. How much light does the M127A1 signal produce?
    50,000 candlepower
  14. What effects do the booby-trap simulators provide?
    flash, illumination, and a whistling sound
  15. What is the largest caliber ammunitions that we classify as “small arms”?
    Caliber .50
  16. What shotgun round is the exception to the gauging principle?
  17. What hazard is involved in using blank ammunition?
     The wad can cause injury
  18. What are the components of a typical small-arms cartridge?
     cartridge case, primer, bullet, and propellant
  19. Name three classifications of Air Force Grenades.
    service, practice, and training.
  20. What type of explosive filler does an M26 fragmentation grenade have?
    • Composition B
  21. What substance is the explosive filler for the M30 practice grenade?
    • Black powder 
  22. Which chemical filler is used in the AN-M8 smoke grenade?
    • Hexachloroethane
  23. Which mine do we commonly call the “claymore”?
  24. How far in front of an M18A1 mine do we consider inside the danger zone?
    • 250 meters
  25. How much force is required to function the M14 anti-personnel mine?
  26. What mortar can be broken down into several smaller loads for easier carrying?
  27. What color is the most common for military safety fuse?
  28. What device is used to initiate time fuse?
  29. What substance is the M112 demo block made of?
  30. The main types of fuse actions are impact, time, and;
  31. Where is a proximity fuse placed on the bomb?
  32. In an electronically timed fuse, what component replaces the arming vanes used in mechanically timed fuses?
  33. The design of which safety feature is to prevent movement of the arming heads, arming stems, and strikers while the fuse is being handled?
  34. How do you set the firing delay times in a mechanically timed M904 nose fuse?
  35. What adapter booster is used with the M904 fuse?
  36. Where in a bomb body is the M905 fuse installed?
  37. The FMU-54-series tail fuses are used in;
  38. With electrical fuses, what device is used in place of arming wire?
  39. How can you tell when an FMU-12A/B fuse is armed?
  40. What setting causes the FMU-139A/B fuse to abort and not arm?
  41. What component provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-139A/B fuse?
  42. What provides the electrical power needed to operate the FMU-143 series fuse?
  43. Where are proximity sensors/fuses installed on a bomb?
  44. Which sensor is a radio-frequency radar ranging system used with the suspension utility unit (SUU)-64/B, SUU-65/B, and SUU-66/B dispensers?
  45. What does HOF stand for on the FZU-39/B proximity sensor?
  46. Which proximity fuse has a height-of-burst (HOB) setting built into the fuse at the time of manufacture?
  47. What component is used to adapt a nose fuse for an M-series bomb?
  48. Which fin provides a high-drag, low-altitude bombing capability for the M117 bomb?
  49. What air inflatable retarder (AIR) is used on the MK84 bomb?
  50. Which bomb is not classified as a penetrator?
  51. What type of bomb is the BLU-113?
  52. What bomb is filled a thermobaric explosive?
  53. What bomb is used as the warhead in the GBU-28C/B?
  54. What is the M129 bomb used for?
  55. What suspension utility unit (SUU) does the PDU-5/B utilize?
  56. The BLU-126/B is identical to the;
  57. What is the net explosive weight (NEW) of the BLU-126/B?
  58. What is the weight of the BDU-33 series practice bomb?
  59. What is the weight of the BDU-48 series practice bomb?
  60. The BDU-48/B resembles the ballistics of the;
  61. Which submunitions are loaded into a CBU-87 cluster bomb?
  62. The major physical difference between the CBU-87/B and the CBU-89/B cluster bomb is the
  63. How many different types of bomblets are loaded into a single CBU-89/B cluster bomb at one time?
  64. Which suspension utility unit (SUU) dispenser does the CBU-97 cluster bomb use?
  65. Against what types of targets is the CBU-97/B primarily used?
  66. According to figure 2-48, the CBU-103/B is converted to a wind-corrected munitions dispenser (WCMD) from what cluster bomb unit (CBU)?
  67. According to figure 2-48, the cluster bomb unit (CBU)-89A/B with a wind-corrected munitions dispenser kit is converted to a;
  68. How do we classify 20 millimeter ammunition?
  69. Which part of the target practice 20mm round is inert?
  70. What is one significant difference in 20mm ammunition compared to other cannon ammunition?
  71. What M505-series fuse safety feature prevents accidental arming during handling?
  72. The identifying information on a 20mm round of ammunition is marked on the;
  73. What will not cause the electric primer in 20mm ammunition to be fire accidentally?
  74. What aircraft cannon fires the 25mm round?
  75. When 25mm ammunition is bulk-packed, how many rounds you expect to find in a CNU-405 container?
  76. What device holds the ball rotor of the 30mm M505A3 impact fuse in an unarmed position until it is fired?
  77.  What is the purpose of the 30mm dummy ammunition?
  78. What material is the 30mm cartridge case made of?
  79.  What fuse is used in 30mm high-explosive incendiary ammunition?
  80. How many lot numbers can you expect to find on a 30mm round of ammunition?
  81. Name the components of a 40mm round;
  82. What is the total number of rounds the MK1 box hold?
  83. What do we mean when we say 105mm is “fixed” ammunition?
  84. What type of explosive is loaded in the projectile of the 105mm high-explosive round?
  85. Approximately how many fragments will the high fragmentation PGU-45/B projectile produce?
  86. What is the factory set height of burst (HOB) for the FMU-160/B fuse to optimize lethality?
  87. What are the components of the 105mm round?
  88. What major aircraft systems carry countermeasure flares?
  89. Which impulse cartridge initiates the MJU-7/B flare?
  90. What does the SD-206 infrared flare do?
  91. Which component is part of the ALE-50 series towed decoy system?
  92. Which impulse cartridge does the RR-170 chaff cartridge use?
  93. The LUU-2 series aircraft flare produces;
  94. What output does the LUU5/B target marker produce?
  95. What impulse cartridge supplies the gas pressure to launch the flares from the SUU-25E/A dispenser?
  96. The gas pressure produced by the impulse in an SUU-25 ejects the flare at a speed of approximately;
  97. What are initiators designed to do?
  98. What are the catapults used for?
  99. What are the removers designed to do?
  100. What are the 2 types of impulse cartridges?