Biology Comp Final 2

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toribloom
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Biology Comp Final 2
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2012-12-07 09:59:28
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  1. Species X reproduces asexually by fission and species Y reproduces sexually. Consider that all other relevant characteristics are similar between these species. When the environment gradually changes, then 
    A. species X and Y will have an equal chance of surviving.
    B. species X should have a better chance of surviving than species Y.
    C. neither species should have an advantage in surviving since organisms often become extinct when the environment changes.
    D. species Y should have a better chance of surviving than species X.
    D. species Y should have a better chance of surviving than species X.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. which statement below lists the correct steps for binary fission? 
    A. 1. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNA replication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. a new cell wall and plamsa membrane divide the cell in half.
    Sorry, that is the correct answer, wasn't gong to type all that out! :)
  3. the overall function of meiosis includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    A. gamete production
    B. reduction of chromosome number (from 2N to N).
    C. providing genetic variation in sexually reproducion organisms.
    D. growth of the overall individual.
    D. growth of the overall individual.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. The region that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the
    A. nucleosome
    B. nucleolus
    C. nucleus
    D. nucleoid
    E nucleoprotein
    D. nucleoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. The function of mitosis is:
    A growth of the organism and tissue repair
    B to ensure that each new cell recieves a complete set of genetic information
    C asexual reproduction in some species
    D all of the above
    D all of the above
  6. The critical checkpoints that control the cell cycle are the:
    A M to G1 stage and G2 to M stage
    B S to G2 stage and G2 to M stage
    C B1 to S stage and G2 to M stage
    D M to G1 stage and S to G2 stage
    C G1 to S stage and G2 to M stage
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. Eukaryotic chromosomes
    A consist of both DNA and protein
    B may occur as chromatin
    C contain histones responsible for packaging DNA to fit into a small space.
    D all the above
    D all the above
  8. which statement below best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?
    A mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm
    B mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm while cytokinesis divides the nuclear material.
    A  mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm
  9. Which stage is most associated with a cell that is unalbe to divide again, such as a muscle or nerve cell?
    A G0 phase
    B G2 phase
    C S phase
    D M phase
    E G1 phase
    A Go phase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. another name for a tetrad is a
    A homologue
    B bivalent
    C oocyte
    D gamete
    E polar body
    B bivalent
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. source of genetic variation in a sexually reproducing population includes which of the following?
    A crossing over in prophase I of meiosis
    B independent assortment in Metaphase I of meiosis
    C fertilization
    D all of the above
    E none
    D all of the above
  12. Which of the following is NOT true about cancer cells?
    A they exhibit uncontrolled growth
    B they undergo metastasis
    C they exhibit contact inhibition
    D they exhibit disorganized growth
    E they never fully differentiate
    C they exhibit contract inhibition
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. Which of the following statements is true about the life cycle of animals?
    A Meiosis is not a necessary component of the animal life cycle.
    B the gametes are the diploid phase of the life cycle
    C the gametes are the haploid phase of the animals life cycle.
    D the products of the haploid phase of the life cycle are larger than those of the diploid phase
    C the gametes are the haploid phase of the animals life cycle
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. All of the following are true concerning Down Syndrom EXCEPT
    A it is caused by autosomal trisomy 21
    B in 23% of cases, the sperm contributes the extra chromosome
    C it is the most common trisomy in humans
    D chances of a woman having a child with Down Syndrom decreases with her age.
    D chances of a woman having a child with Down Syndrom decreases with her age.
  15. During what phase of meiosis does crossing-over occur?
    A prophase I of meiosis I
    B prophase II of meiosis II
    C anaphase I of meiosis II
    A prophase I of meiosis I
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. Which of the following is/are true about sexual reproduction? (biology)?
    1. at the cellular level is the opposite of reproduction since it involves two cells fusing to become one.
    2. it may require the development of organs such as the uterus, which are advantageous to the species
    3. it regularly produces a wider array of adaptations to the external envireonment in a shorter period of time
    4it regularly produces a wider array of adaptations to the internal environment(disease agents, parasites) in a shorter period of time
    5 all of the above
    5 all of the above
  17. In some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokineses. This results in:
    A cell death
    B cells arrested in the G0 phase
    C uncontrolled cell division
    D a multinucleated cell
    E cells with no nucleus
    D a multinucleated cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. What occurs in anaphase?
    A Chromosomes move to opposite poles
    B Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell.
    A Chromosomes move to opposite poles
  19. Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct?
    A prophase, telophase, anaphase, prmetaphase, metaphase
    B prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
    B prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
  20. If a sperm cell contains 8 chromosomes, it comes from an animal that has ___ chromosomes.
    A 16
    B 8
    C 24
    D 4
    E 12
    A 16
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. To what does the term chiasma refer?
    A the life cycle of a fungus
    B the process of fertilization
    C the process of crossing-over
    D the structure that holds together homologues during crossing over
    D the structure that holds together homologues during crossing over
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. Interphase:
    A occupies the majority of the cell cycle
    B includes G1, S, and G2 stages
    C results in an increase in cell size
    D all of the above
    D all of the above
  23. Before the time of gregor Mendel and genetics, sexual reproduction was thought to produce a blending or equal mixing of the parents traits, today we know that...
    A) offspring inherit essentially 50% of their genes from each parent, but 2 sibling offspring may share with eachother from 0-23 chromosomes in common from each parent, and further variation may occur due to crossing over.
    B) offspring inherit copies of the same 23 pair of chromosomes from each of their parents but the rate of crossing-over makes them very dissimiliar. 
    C) there is one chance in 23 of getting identicle sets of chromosomes from one parent, times 2 because there are 2 parents; therefore, 2 siblings out of every 46 are really identicle except for crossing over.
    D) offspring will be identicle to one another and demonstrate traits exactly halfway between the parents traits.
    E) offspring can vary from receiving over 99% of one parents genes to recieving over 99% of the parents genes.
    A) offspring inherit essentially 50% of their genes from each parent, but 2 sibling offspring may share with eachother from 0-23 chromosomes in common from each parent, and further variation may occur due to crossing over.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. Cancer cells require many nutrients, which are supplied by blood vessels. The growth of new blood vessels to cancerous tissue is called:
    A angiogenesis
    B metastasis
    C apotosis
    D carcinogenesis
    A angiogenesis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. During ____ the homologous chromsome pairs separate in a random fashion leading to genetic diversity among the offspring.
    A anaphase II
    B independant assortment
    C mitosis
    D metaphase
    B independent assortment
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Oncogenes are all of the following EXCEPT:
    A cancer causing genes
    B mutated proto-oncogenes
    C tumor suppressor genes
    C tumor suppressor genes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. What is the importance of crossing-over:
    A it provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells.
    B it increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material.
    B it increases the likelihood that daughter cells contain different genetic material.
  28. Which statement is NOT true about mitosis?
    A. Mitosis is a process that duplicates and divides the nuclear contents only. 
    B. Mitosis uses a 2n parent cell to form daughter cells containing n chromosomes. 
    C. Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell.
    D. Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism.
    E. Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
    B. Mitosis uses a 2n parent cell to form daughter cells containing n chromosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. If the diploid number of chromosomes for an organism is 52, what will the haploid number of chromosomes be?
    A 26
    B 112
    C 24
    D 48
    A 26
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. Why do polar bodies form?
    A They allow a reduction in chromosomes while preserving most of the cytoplasm for one egg.
    B This is extra chromosomal material representing the X chromosome in each female cell.
    A They allow a reduction in chromosomes while preserving most of the cytoplasm for one egg.
  31. If a parent cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis occurs?
    A 48 chromosomes
    B 96 chromosomes
    C 24 chromosomes
    D 12 chromosomes
    A 48 chromosomes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Interkinesis is different from interphase in which way?
    A interkinesis occurs after a cell finishes a nuclear division.
    B interkinesis is the stage that precedes a prophase stage.
    C interphase involves DNA replication and interkinesis does not
    D interkinesis can be variable in length
    C interphase involves DNA replication and interkinesis does not
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. The polar body is
    A a precursor cell that becomes an egg cell
    B another name for an egg cell
    C a nonfunctional cell rudiment formed at the same time as an egg cell
    D the cell produced when fertilization occurs
    C a nonfunctional cell rudiment formed at the same time as an egg cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. Which of the following is NOT true concerning mitosis?
    A mitosis allows growth and increase in size in both plants and animals.
    B Animal cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while plant cells do not.
    C both plant and animal cells undergo cytokinesis
    D plant cells lack centrioles while animal cells do not
    B Animal cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while plant cells do not.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. The event that signals the start of anaphase is
    A migration of the centrioles to opposite poles of the nuclear space
    B asters disappear
    C a cleavage furrow starts to form
    D division of the centromeres to separate sister chromatids
    D division of the centromeres to separate sister chromatids
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. Which of the following events occurs during prophase I but does not occur during prophase of mitosis?
    A nuclear envelope dissolves
    B chromatin condenses into chromosomes
    C crossing over
    D centrioles appear in animal cells
    C crossing over
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. What codes for proteins that promote the normal cell cycle and prevents apoptosis?
    A Caspases 
    B proto-oncogenes
    C Oncogenes 
    D Tumor suppressor genes 
    B proto-oncogenes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. The haploid (n) number of chromsomes for a human being is
    A 24
    B 46
    C 44
    D 23
    E 48
    D 23
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. Which does NOT occur in telophase?
    A the centromeres split apart.
    B cytokinesis is under way
    C the nuclear envelope is being reconstructed
    A the centromeres split apart
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. Scientists have created genetically modified organisms (GMOs) by isolating and then transferring the?jellyfish gene for green fluorescent protein into pigs, bacteria, plants and mice. The result was bioluminescent organisms! These experiments demonstrate that:
    A) genes have no difficulty crossing the species barrier
    B) animal genes will not function if transferred into animals
    C) jellyfish genes may be transferred into other aquatic ectotherms, but not mammals
    D) genes can only be transferred to other organisms within the same species
    A) genes have no difficulty crossing the species barrier
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. During DNA replication, the enzyme _____, catalyzes the elongation of new DNA by adding, to the 3' end of the previous nucleotide, new nucleotides that are complementary to a DNA template.
    A helicase
    B ATP synthase
    C DNA polymerase
    D DNA ligase
    C DNA polymerase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. An unknown chemical is analyzed and found to contain the bases thymine and quanine. This chemical is most like?
    a) tRNA
    b) mRNA
    c) DNA
    d) rRNA
    C DNA
  43. In transcriptional control in eukaryotic cells
    A a different combination of DNA binding proteins (transcriptional factors) may regulate the activity of a particular gene.
    B enhancers may be involved in the promotion as well as regulation of gene trascription.
    C the control may be due to the phosphorylation of transcritional factors by a kinase.
    D all of the above
    D all of the above
  44. The F2 offspring of a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross between homozygous dominant andhomozygous recessive parents would produce the genotype(s)
    A. AA, Aa, and aa.
    B. Aa only.
    C. AA only.
    D. AA and Aa.
    E. Aa and aa.
    A. AA, Aa, and aa.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. In a classic Mendelian monohybrid cross between a homozygous dominant parent and ahomozygous recessive parent, which generation is always completely heterozygous?
    A. F1 generation
    B. F2 generation
    C. F3 generation
    D. P generation
    A F1 generation
  46. Which of the following structures is not part of an operon?
    A regulator gene
    B promotoer
    C operator
    D structural gene
    E all of the above
    E all of the above
  47. Codons:
    A are triplets coding for a single amino acid
    B are the alphabet of the genetic language
    C each have only one meaning
    D all of the above
    D all of the above
  48. A (an) ____ is a group of three bases on tRNA that is complementary to a specific mRNA codon.
    A anticodon
    B poly-A tail
    C codon
    D cap
    A anticodon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. the reason why some individuals who inherit polydactyly (having an extra digit on the hand or feet) but do not express the trait is due to ____.
    A gene linkage
    B incomplete dominance
    C incomplete penetrance
    D pleiotropy
    C incomplete penetrance
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband is normal, what aretheir chances that a son will be color-blind?
    A. None since the father is normal.
    B. 25% because the mother is a hybrid.
    C. None since he will also be just acarrier.
    D. 50% since the mother is the only carrier.
    E. 100% because the mother has the gene.
    D. 50% since the mother is the only carrier.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. If the parents are AO and BO genotypes for the ABO blood group, their children could includewhich of the following genotypes?
    A. AO and BO only
    B. AA, BB, and AB only
    C. AO, BO, AB, and OO only
    D. AO, BO, and AB only
    E. AO, BO, and OO only
    C. AO, BO, AB, and OO only
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  52. If individuals exhibiting a dominant phenotype are crossed and produce only offspring with thedominant phenotype, what would be the logical genotype of the parents?
    A. one is heterozygous and one is homozygousdominant
    B. both are homozygous recessive
    C. two of the options may be correct
    D. both are homozygous dominant
    E. both are heterozygous
    C.two of the options may be correct
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct?
    A. The enzyme that catalyzes DNA replication is DNA polymerase.
    B. Complementary base pairs are held together with hydrogen bonds.
    C. The process is known as semiconservative replication because one old strand is conserved inthe new molecule.
    D. Unwinding of the DNA molecule occurs as hydrogen bonds break.
    E. Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it.
    E. Replication occurs as each base is paired with another exactly like it.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. _________ control is the level of genetic control that involves the processing of early RNA transcripts to?mRNA and the rate at which mRNA leaves the nucleus.
    A) Feedback control
    B) Translational control
    C) Transcriptional control
    D) Posttranscriptional control
    E) Posttranslational control
    B translational control
  55. Which of the following crosses would always result in offspring that only display the dominantphenotype?
    A. Tt x Tt
    B. TT x TT
    C. Tt x tt
    D. two of the crosses will always display the dominant phenotype
    E. TT x tt
    D. two of the crosses will always display the dominant phenotype
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. What aspect of Mendel's background gave him the necessary tools to discover the laws ofinheritance?
    A. He was a teacher.
    B. He lived in Austria.
    C. He corresponded with CharlesDarwin.
    D. He was a monk.
    E. He had studied mathematics and probability.
    E. He had studied mathematics and probability.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. What is the blending theory of inheritance?
    A. an old theory that said that offspring show traits intermediate between those of the parents
    B. Mendel's theory of how the traits of parents are passed to offspring through thegametes
    C. Darwin's theory of how traits are passed from all parts of the parent's body into the gamete tobe transmitted to the offspring
    D. the modern theory of how genetic information is passed from parents tooffspring
    A. an old theory that said that offspring show traits intermediate between those of the parents
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. Which characteristic of pea plants were important in their selection as Mendel's researchorganism?
    A. Peas are easy to cultivate.
    B. Pea plants have a short generation time.
    C. Pea plants are self-pollinating but can be cross-fertilizedeasily.
    D. Many true-breeding varieties were available.
    E. All of the above were important characteristics in Mendel'sselection.
    E. All of the above were important characteristics in Mendel'sselection.
  59. If a pea plant shows a recessive phenotype,
    A. the genotype may be TT, Tt, or tt.
    B. the genotype can only be TT.
    C. the genotype may be Tt or tt.
    D. the genotype may be TT or Tt.
    E. the genotype can only be tt.
    E. the genotype can only be tt.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. What are alleles?
    A. dominant forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes
    B. recessive forms of a kind of characteristic carried by genes
    C. the locations of genes on a chromosome
    D. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes
    E. genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color
    D. alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown eyes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. If an individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a recessivephenotype, 4 of their 9 offspring show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of the firstparent?
    A. aa
    B. The answer cannot be determined from thisinformation.
    C. Aa
    D. AA
    C. Aa
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Lethal genes (genes that result in the failure to develop a vital organ or metabolic pathway) arenearly always recessive. Animal breeders who discover a unique trait and selectively breed toincrease the occurrence of that trait often encounter a noticeable increase in lethal genes. Why?
    A. Spreading the gene among offspring of both sexes will increase the likelihood it will be sexlinkedand expressed.
    B. "Epistasis" - selection for the desired trait may result in "uncovering" the lethal gene.
    C. The selective-mating of closely related individuals, or inbreeding, increases chances that two recessive genes will "meet" in offspring.
    D. The lethal recessive gene may be incompletelydominant.
    E. "Pleiotropy" - the gene that is being selected for this trait may have the second effect of beinglethal.
    C. The selective-mating of closely related individuals, or inbreeding, increases chances that two recessive genes will "meet" in offspring.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. In 1940, two researchers named Weiner and Landsteiner discovered that about 85 percent of thehuman population sampled possessed a blood cell protein that had been previously detected inRhesus monkeys. This blood type was labeled Rh positive, and Rh+ was found to be dominantover the absence of the blood factor (Rh). Under normal Mendelian inheritance, which of thefollowing statements is FALSE?
    A. Two Rh+ parents could have an Rh- child.
    B. It is possible with just one pair of parents to have children where some siblings are Rh- and some are Rh+.
    C. An Rh- child would require that both parents be carriers of at least one Rh- gene.
    D. Two Rh- parents could have an Rh+ child.
    E. All of the choices are false.
    D. Two Rh- parents could have an Rh+ child.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  64. In what kind of classic Mendelian cross would you expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1 among the F2offspring?
    A. testcross
    B. monohybrid cross
    C. dihybrid cross
    D. None of the choices is correct.
    C. dihybrid cross
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  65. A testcross involves an individual exhibiting the dominant phenotype but an unknown genotypebeing crossed with an individual that has a(n) ___________ genotype.
    A. homozygousdominant
    B. homozygous recessive
    C. heterozygousdominant
    D. any of the choices
    B. homozygous recessive
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  66. Which section of the pre-mRNA contains the protein coding regions?
    A the entire pre-mRNA contains protein coding regions
    B the pre-mRNA does not code for proteins at all
    C exons
    D introns
    C exons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  67. Which of the following processes does NOT take place during translation?
    A production of mRNA
    B growth of a polypeptide chain
    C Liberation of polypeptide from the ribosome
    D attachment of a ribosome to mRNA
    E binding of two tRNA molecules per ribosome
    A production of mRNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  68. The correct sequence of events in translation is:
    A initiation, termination, elongation
    B initiation, elongation, termination
    B initiation, elongation, termination
  69. Which of the following statements concerning ribosomes are true?
    A. Several ribosomes are often attached to and translating the same mRNA.
    B. Ribosomes join amino acids to form a polypeptide.
    C. Ribosomes have a binding site for mRNA and three binding sites for tRNA molecules.
    D. No protein synthesis within a cell would occur without ribosomes.
    E. All of the above statements are true.
    E. All of the above statements are true.
  70. DNA was shown to be the transforming substance when only the _______ enzymes could inhibit transformation.
    A RNAase
    B DNAase
    C proteinase
    D lipase
    B DNAase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  71. In the lac operon, if lactose is present, which of the following occurs?
    A lactose binds to the repressor, changing its shape so that it can bind to the operator and the structural genes are not expressed.
    B Lactose binds to the repressor, changing its shape so that it does not bind to the operator. RNA polymerase then transcribes the needed genes.
    B Lactose binds to the repressor, changing its shape so that it does not bind to the operator. RNA polymerase then transcribes the needed genes.
  72. A change in a regulatory gene
    A is what happens in the production of sickle cell hemoglobin
    B is always beneficial to the organsim in which it occurs
    C can increase or decrease the expression of a structural gene.
    D must be dominant to be effective
    C can increase or decrease the expression of a structural gene.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  73. DNA replication is considered semiconservative because:
    A it always replicates in the 3 to 5 prime direction
    B it will create three new, identical strands when finished
    C it uses the original strand as a template for replication
    D it never replicates in the 5 to 3 prime direction
    C it uses the original strand as a template for replication
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  74. Transformation of bacteria was shown to occur when _______ bacteria were injected into miceand the mice ______.
    A. live S strain; died
    B. live R strain; didn't die
    C. live S and R strain; died
    D. live R strain and dead S strain; died
    E. live S strain and dead R strain; didn't die
    D live R strain and dead S strain; died
  75. Which statement is NOT correct about the trp operon?
    A) The structural genes make products that are part of an anabolic pathway for the synthesis of tryptophan
    .B) It is normally turned off if tryptophan is present.
    C) Tryptophan acts as the corepressor.
    D) The regulator gene product is inactive by itself.
    E)Tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and inactivates it.
    E)Tryptophan binds to the repressor protein and inactivates it.
  76. The first codon to be deciphered was _____, which codes for _______.
    A. UUU, phenylalanine
    B. CCC, glycine
    C. GGG, alanine
    D. AAA, proline
    E. TTT, arginine
    A. UUU, phenylalanine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  77. If one strand of DNA has the base sequence AAGCAA, the complementary strand has which ofthe following sequences?
    A. AAGCAA
    B. UTCGTU
    C. UUCGUU
    D. TTCGTG
    E. TTCGTT
    E. TTCGTT
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  78. The DNA of a _____ is wrapped around histone molecules to form a "beaded string"
    A eukaryote
    B bacterium
    C prokaryote
    D all of the above
    A eukaryote
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  79. If black fur is produced by a recessive allele, which genotype is most likely to produce a black individual?
    A BB
    B bb
    C Cb
    D Bb
    B bb
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  80. Which is NOT true about the genetic code?
    A most amino acids have only one codon
    B it produces 64 different possiblities of base sequences
    C it was cracked through the use of a cell-free system of enzymes
    D it is composed of a triplet code of three bases per codon
    E it contains start and stop codons as instructions
    A Most amino acids have only one codon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  81. In the Watson and Crick model of DNA, the "step" of the ladder are composed of 
    A a purine and a pyrimidine
    B sugars
    C two purines
    D two pyrimidines
    E a sugar and a phosphate molecule
    A a purine and a pyrimidine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  82. The universal regulatory mechanism in eukaryotes for controlling gene expression includes?
    A) control of the processing of mRNA after it is transcribed from DNA but before it leaves the nucleus, and control of the rate it leaves the nucleus.
    B) control of polypeptides after they have been synthesized but before they are functional.
    C) control of the genes transcribed and the rate they are transcribed.
    D) All of these mechanisms are used; there is no single universal mechanism.
    E) control of mRNA in the cytoplasm after it leaves the nucleus, including changes to mRNA before translation begins.
    D) All of these mechanisms are used; there is no single universal mechanism.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  83. Transcrition is initiated when:
    A RNA polymerase binds to a region of DNA called the promotor
    B initiation factors assemble ribosomal subunits, mRNA, and initiator tRNA
    C RNA polymerase comes to a stop sequence
    D new nucleotides are added to an existing strand of nucleotides
    A RNA polymerase binds to a region of DNA called the promotor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  84. The X-ray diffraction photography of Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins was critical evidence in the study of DNA,Question 34 answers
    A. revealing the structure of the deoxyribose sugar.
    B. showing the bases of DNA were held together by hydrogen bonds
    C. of the location of each adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.
    D. indicating that DNA has a double helix structure.
    E. showing equal numbers of purines and pyrimidines.
    D. indicating that DNA has a double helix structure.
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  85. A barr body
    A is an inactive Y chromosome that produces reduced amount of gene products
    B is an inactive X chromosome that does not produce gene products
    C is only found in male cells
    D all choices are correct
    B is an inactive X chromosome that does not produce gene products
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  86. Active genes in eukaryotic cells are associated with
    A DNA with many methyl groups
    B methylated RNA and histones
    C heterochromatin
    D euchromatin
    D euchromatin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  87. Which level of primary control in eukaryotic gene activity involves the lifespan of the mRNA molecule and the ability of mRNA to bind to ribosomes?
    a. feedback control.
    b. translational control
    c. transcriptional control
    d. posttranscriptional control
    e. posttranslational control
    e posttranslational control

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