BIO 115 FALL 2012 FINAL EXAM

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BIO 115 FALL 2012 FINAL EXAM
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BIO 115 FALL 2012 FINAL EXAM
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  1. Glands that secrete products into ducts are called
    a.       Exocrine
    b.      Endocrine
    c.       Hormonal
    d.      Endocrine and hormonal
    a
  2. Which of the following are examples of body membranes?
    a.       Meninges
    b.      Synovial membranes
    c.       Serous membranes
    d.      All of the choices are correct
    d
  3. Muscle tissue with striations and a single nucleus in each fiber
    a.       Skeletal muscle
    b.      Smooth muscle
    c.       Cardiac muscle
    d.      Skeletal and cardiac muscles
    c
  4. Cardiac muscle is
    a.       Striated and voluntary
    b.      Striated and involuntary
    c.       Smooth and involuntary
    b
  5. Intestinal muscle is
    a.       Striated and voluntary
    b.      Striated and involuntary
    c.       Smooth and involuntary
    c
  6. Skeletal muscle is
    a.       Striated and voluntary
    b.      Striated and involuntary
    c.       Smooth and involuntary
    a
  7. Which type of muscle has intercalated disks?
    a.       Skeletal muscle
    b.      Smooth muscle
    c.       Cardiac muscle
    d.      Both smooth and cardiac muscles
    c
  8. A neuron is a
    a.       Muscle cell
    b.      Nerve cell
    c.       Fiber cell
    d.      Cartilage cell
    b
  9. A neuron consists of
    a.       Dendrites
    b.      A cell body
    c.       An axon
    d.      All of the choices are correct
    d
  10. Which one of these  contains  the nerve cell nucleus?
    a.       Axon
    b.      Dendrite
    c.       Cell body
    d.      Axon and dendrite
    c
  11. Part of neuron that receives a nerve  impulse:
    a.       Axon
    b.      Dendrite
    c.       Reception nerve
    d.      Terminal nerve
    b
  12. Neuroglia are associated with
    a.       Bone cells
    b.      Neurons
    c.       Muscle fibers
    d.      Blood cells
    b
  13. Glands are mostly made of
    a.       Epithelial cells
    b.      Muscle cells
    c.       Nerve cells
    d.      Blood cells
    a
  14. Arrange the following terms from the smallest to the largest:  1) cell, 2) organelle, 3) atom, 4) organ, 5) tissue
    a.       3,2,1,5,4
    b.      1,2,3,4,5
    c.       5,4,3,2,1
    d.      3,1,5,4,2
    e.      4,5,1,2,3
    • a:
    • atom
    • organelle
    • cell
    • tissue
    • organ
  15. Which type of tissue covers surfaces and lines cavities?
    a.       Connective
    b.      Epithelium
    c.       Muscle
    d.      Connective and muscle
    b
  16. What type of epithelium is often found in the kidneys?
    a.       Simple cuboidal
    b.      Simple squamous
    c.       Stratified squamous
    d.      Pseudostratified columnar
    a
  17. What type of epithelium is found where simple diffusion occurs as in the lungs?
    a.       Simple columnar
    b.      Pseudostratified columnar
    c.       Stratified squamous
    d.      Simple squamous
    d
  18. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epithelial tissue?
    a.       It readily divides to produce new cells
    b.      It has a basement membrane to connect to underlying tissue
    c.       It has many blood vessels to support its nutrient needs
    d.      It always has a free surface
    c
  19. Epithelial tissue
    a.       Prevents drying
    b.      Secrets mucus
    c.       Absorbs molecules
    d.      All of the choices are correct
    d
  20. Which type of tissue binds and supports body parts?
    a.       Epithelium
    b.      Nervous
    c.       Connective
    d.      Muscular
    c
  21. What type of epithelium is found in the urinary bladder and allows it to stretch and slide to create a barrier?
    a.       Simple columnar epithelium
    b.      Stratified squamous epithelium
    c.       Stratified cuboidal epithelium
    d.      Transitional epithelium
    d
  22. What type of tissue is found in the intestines?
    a.       Squamous epithelium
    b.      Loose connective
    c.       Simple columnar epithelium
    d.      Simple cuboidal epithelium
    c
  23. Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelial tissue is found in (on) the
    a.       Skin
    b.      Trachea
    c.       Blood vessels
    d.      Digestive tract
    b
  24. This gland consists of a single cell and secrete mucus onto the surface of the intestines:
    a.       Adipose cell
    b.      Surface cell
    c.       Goblet cell
    d.      Pacinian cell
    c
  25. What are found in the lacunae of bone tissue?
    a.       chrondrocytes
    b.      osteocytes
    c.       Nerves
    d.      Blood vessels and nerves
    b
  26. Which of the following is NOT a formed element found in blood?
    a.       Erythrocytes
    b.      Plasma
    c.       Leukocytes
    d.      Thrombocytes
    b
  27. Which of the following connects muscles to bone?
    a.       Tendons
    b.      Cartilage
    c.       Adipose tissue
    d.      Ligaments
    a
  28. Which tissue has lacunae?
    a.       Bone
    b.      Cartilage
    c.       Tendons
    d.      Bone and cartilage
    d
  29. What type of cartilage makes up the frame of the outer ear?
    a.       Fibrocartilage
    b.      Hyaline cartilage
    c.       Elastic cartilage
    c
  30. What type of tissue is made of concentric rings called an osteon of Haversian system?
    a.       Compact bone
    b.      Hyaline cartilage
    c.       Adipose tissue
    d.      Spongy bone
    a
  31. What type of cartilage makes up the intervertebral disks?
    a.       Fibrocartilage
    b.      Hyaline cartilage
    c.       Elastic cartilage
    a
  32. Which of the following is the most common type of cartilage?
    a.       Hyaline cartilage
    b.      Elastic cartilage
    c.       Fibrocartilage
    a
  33. Which of the following refers to the membrane lining the abdominal cavity wall?
    a.       Parietal pericardium
    b.      Visceral peritoneum
    c.       Parietal peritoneum
    d.      Visceral pleura
    c
  34. Which refers to a membrane attached to the surface of a lung?
    a.       Visceral pleura
    b.      Parietal pleura
    c.       Visceral peritoneum
    d.      Parietal peritoneum
    a
  35. Visceral refers to:
    a.       Internal organs
    b.      Tissues
    c.       Cells
    d.      Atoms
    a
  36. In which cavity would you find the stomach?
    a.       Pleural cavity
    b.      Dorsal cavity
    c.       Abdominopelvic cavity
    d.      Mediastinum
    c
  37. The lungs would be found in which cavity?
    a.       Spinal cavity
    b.      Abdominal cavity
    c.       Mediastinum
    d.      Thoracic cavity
    d
  38. Which one of the following structures does NOT belong in the mediastinum?
    a.       Lungs
    b.      Trachea
    c.       Heart
    d.      Esophagus
    e.      Thymus
    a
  39. The thoracic cavity is part of which larger cavity?
    a.       Ventral cavity
    b.      Dorsal cavity
    c.       Abdominopelvic cavity
    a
  40. Integration and coordination are part of the body’s
    a.       Nervous system
    b.      Skin
    c.       Skeleton
    d.      Cardiovascular
    a
  41. Which system of the body plays a major part in support, movement, and protection?
    a.       Nervous system
    b.      Endocrine system
    c.       Skeletal
    d.      Cardiovascular
    c
  42. Homeostasis refers to
    a.       Changing external conditions
    b.      Stable external conditions
    c.       Changing internal conditions
    d.      Stable internal conditions
    d
  43. Which of the following provides the best examples of a negative feedback control mechanism?
    a.       Increased body temperature due to exercises
    b.      Increased uterine contractions in labor
    c.       Putting on a sweater because your cold
    d.      Shivering in order to generate heat due to a drop in body temperature
    d
  44. Which of the following is NOT a component of a homeostatic mechanism?
    a.       A nerve pathway
    b.      A control center
    c.       A sensor
    d.      An effector
    a
  45. Which two body systems are involved in maintenance of the body?
    a.       Integumentary and urinary systems
    b.      Lymphatic and cardiovascular systems
    c.       Muscular and lymphatic systems
    d.      Respiratory and sensory systems
    e.      Cardiovascular and urinary systems
    e
  46. The inflammation of the membranes of the posterior (dorsal) cavity is called
    a.       Serositis
    b.      Pleurisy
    c.       Meningitis
    d.      Pericarditis
    c
  47. Sally is rushed to the hospital with acute appendicitis. Which serous membrane is in danger of infection?
    a.       Peritoneum
    b.      Pleura
    c.       Meninges
    d.      Pericardium
    a
  48. A disease that occurs suddenly and does not last a long time is considered
    a.       Chronic
    b.      Local
    c.       Systemic
    d.      Acute
    d
  49. An ear infection is considered a(n) _____ disease.
    a.       Orbital
    b.      Local
    c.       Systemic
    d.      Pandemic
    b
  50. The random movement of simple substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called
    a.       Osmosis
    b.      Filtration
    c.       Diffusion
    d.      Pumping
    c
  51. What differentiates passive transport from active transport?
    a.       Passive transport moves substances into cells, while active transport move substances out of cells
    b.      Passive transport requires carriers, while active transport does not
    c.       Passive transport does not require cellular energy, while active transport requires 1 cellular energy
    d.      Passive transport only moves water, while active transport only moves proteins
    c
  52. Active transport
    a.       Moves materials from low to high concentration
    b.      Requires energy
    c.       Occurs in cells with no mitochondria
    d.      Both b and c are correct
    e.      Both a and b are correct
    e
  53. The movement of H2O across a plasma membrane
    a.       Is called osmosis
    b.      Is called diffusion
    c.       Requires energy
    d.      Is called osmosis and requires energy
    a
  54. The plasma membrane is
    a.       Impermeable
    b.      Permeable to everything
    c.       Selectively permeable
    c
  55. When a cell is placed into a(n) _____ solution, crenation is possible.
    a.       Isotonic
    b.      Hypotonic
    c.       Hypertonic
    c
  56. When a cell is placed into a(n) _____ solution, water leaves the cell.
    a.       Isotonic
    b.      Hypotonic
    c.       Hypertonic
    c
  57. When a cell is placed into a(n) _____ solution, the cell lyse(burst).
    a.       Isotonic
    b.      Hypotonic
    c.       Hypertonic
    b
  58. Which of the following organelles functions in protein synthesis?
    a.       Ribosomes
    b.      Golgi apparatus
    c.       Smooth ER
    d.      All of these choices are correct
    a
  59. The rough ER is covered with
    a.       Golgi apparatus
    b.      Ribosomes
    c.       Lysosomes
    d.      Nucleoli
    b
  60. Which organelle is involved in processing, packaging, and secretion of proteins and lipids?
    a.       Ribosomes
    b.      Golgi apparatus
    c.       Endoplasmic reticulum
    d.      Chromosomes
    b
  61. Digestive structures found in cells that help to detoxify drugs and alcohol are called:
    a.       Peroxisomes
    b.      Lysosomes
    c.       Ribosomes
    d.      Rough ER
    a
  62. Mitochondria
    a.       Produce proteins
    b.      Store food
    c.       Produce ATP
    d.      Digest food
    c
  63. Which of the following is NOT considered anatomical position?
    a.       Standing erect
    b.      Palms facing backwards
    c.       Face forward
    d.      Toes pointing forward
    b
  64. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    a.       Ventral – toward the front
    b.      Ipsilateral – on opposite sides
    c.       Deep – toward the surface
    d.      Proximal – further from the point of attachment
    a
  65. Which of the following pairs are opposing terms?
    a.       Superior/posterior
    b.      Superior/inferior
    c.       Anterior/inferior
    d.      Superior/anterior
    b
  66. Which term refers to the back?
    a.       Inferior
    b.      Lateral
    c.       Posterior
    d.      Peripheral
    c
  67. The heart is ____ to the lungs.
    a.       Dorsal
    b.      Superior
    c.       Lateral
    d.      Medial
    d
  68. The hand is ____ to the elbow.
    a.       Superior
    b.      Anaterior
    c.       Proximal
    d.      Distal
    d
  69. The spinal cord is ____ to the esophagus.
    a.       Anterior
    b.      Posterior
    c.       Ventral
    d.      Inferior
    b
  70. The right hand and the left foot are ____ to each other.
    a.       Ipsilateral
    b.      Posterior
    c.       Contralateral
    d.      Superficial
    c
  71. Which of the following is INCORRECT in describing the nose?
    a.       It is superior to the mouth
    b.      It is medial to the eyes
    c.       It is on the dorsal aspect of the face
    d.      It is inferior to the forehead
    c
  72. Which type of section divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?
    a.       Median
    b.      Transverse
    c.       Sagittal
    d.      Frontal or coronal
    d
  73. Which type of section divides the body into the right and left portions?
    a.       Sagittal
    b.      Transverse
    c.       Frontal
    d.      Coronal
    a
  74. The forearm is which region?
    a.       antecubital
    b.      brachial
    c.       arm
    d.      antebrachial
    e.      crural
    d
  75. The armpit is which region?
    a.       Acromial
    b.      Pectoral
    c.       Mammary
    d.      Axillary
    d
  76. The back of the skull is which region?
    a.       occipital
    b.      Lumbar
    c.       Post-cephalic
    d.      Pre-cephalic
    a
  77. The arm is which region?
    a.       Cephalic
    b.      Lumbar
    c.       Brachial
    d.      Pectoral
    e.      antebrachial
    c
  78. The lower back is which region?
    a.       Cephalic
    b.      Lumbar
    c.       Brachial
    d.      Pectoral
    b
  79. Appendicular refers to the
    a.       Skull
    b.      Thorax
    c.       Legs and arms
    d.      Skull and thorax
    c
  80. The formation of a pocket in the plasma membrane to bring in solid food materials is called
    a.       Exocytosis
    b.      Pinocytosis
    c.       Phagocytosis
    d.      Facilitated diffusion
    e.      “cell drinking”
    c
  81. The process of programmed cell death due to problems in the cell cycle is called:
    a.       Mitosis
    b.      Apoptosis
    c.       Phagocytosis
    d.      Endocytosis
    b
  82. The portion of the cell cycle when a cell is not dividing and doing what it is designed to do is called
    a.       Interphase
    b.      Mitosis
    c.       Apoptosis
    d.      Exterophase
    a
  83. The period of interphase when cell growth and manufacture of organelles occurs is the
    a.       G1 phase
    b.      S phase
    c.       G2 phase
    d.      Mitosis phase
    a
  84. The period of interphase when DNA is replicated is the
    a.       G1 phase
    b.      S phase
    c.       G2 phase
    d.      Mitosis phase
    b
  85. The period of interphase when the proteins are made that will be needed for cell division is the
    a.       G1 phase
    b.      S phase
    c.       G2 phase
    d.      Mitosis phase
    c
  86. The process of cell division involves the two processes of
    a.       Interphase and cytokinesis
    b.      Interphase and mitosis
    c.       Mitosis and cytokinesis
    d.      Cytokinesis and G1 phase
    c
  87. The reforming of the nuclear membrane around chromosomes occurs during
    a.       Prophase
    b.      Anaphase
    c.       Telophase
    d.      Metaphase
    c
  88. The centrioles moving apart to opposite poles occurs during
    a.       Telophase
    b.      Prophase
    c.       Metaphase
    d.      Anaphase
    b
  89. The formation of spindle fibers occurs during
    a.       Prophase
    b.      Metaphase
    c.       Anaphase
    d.      Telophase
    a
  90. The chromosomes lining up randomly at the equator of the cell occurs during
    a.       Prophase
    b.      Metaphase
    c.       Anaphase
    d.      Telophase
    b
  91. The separation of sister chromatids, being pulled toward the centrioles occurs in
    a.       Metaphase
    b.      Telophase
    c.       Prophase
    d.      Anaphase
    d
  92. One body cell entering the cell cycles produces______identical daughter cell(s) @ the end of the cycle.
    a.       One
    b.      Two
    c.       Three
    d.      Four
    b
  93. What happens to the chromosomes number as a result to mitosis?
    a.       It is halved
    b.      It stays the same
    c.       It is doubled
    d.      It is tripled
    b
  94. The process of meiosis produces
    a.       Body cells
    b.      Gametes (sex cells)
    c.       Skin cells
    d.      Hair cells
    b
  95. What happens to chromosome number as a result of meiosis?
    a.       It is halved
    b.      It stays the same
    c.       It is doubled
    d.      It is tripled
    a
  96. Which term refers to the study of how an organ functions?
    a.       Anatomy
    b.      Physiology
    c.       Ecology
    d.      Homeostasis
    e.      Both a and b are correct
    b
  97. A group of similar cells performing a specialized function is referred to as a(n)
    a.       Tissue
    b.      Organ
    c.       Molecule
    d.      System
    a
  98. Cells are to tissues as tissues are to
    a.       Systems
    b.      Molecules
    c.       Organs
    d.      Organelles
    c
  99. The mitochondria are the cell’s “powerhouse”.
    a.       True
    b.      False
    a
  100. The plasma membrane consists primarily of:
    a.       Phospholipids and proteins
    b.      Sugars and starches
    c.       Phospholipids and sugars
    d.      Sugars and proteins
    a
  101. Which of the following is a function of the skeleton?
    a.     Produces blood cells
    b.     Provides sites for muscle attachment
    c.      Protects internal organs
    d.     All of the choices are correct
    d
  102. Which of the following is NOT a general shape used to classify bones?
    a.     Long
    b.     Short
    c.      Rectangular
    d.     irregular
    c
  103. The end of a long bone is the:
    a.     Diaphysis
    b.     Periosteum
    c.      Shaft
    d.     Epiphysis
    d
  104. The shaft of a long bone is the:
    a.     Periosteum
    b.     Diaphysis
    c.      Articular cartilageEndosteum
    b
  105. What are the cells found within an osteon?
    a.     Osteoblasts
    b.     Osteocytes
    c.      Epiphysealcytes
    d.     Chondrocytes
    b
  106. Osteocytes live in small chambers within the calcified bone called:
    a.     Lacunae
    b.     Canaliculi
    c.      Lamellae
    d.     The central canal
    a
  107. Which of the following is NOT a feature of compact bone?
    a.     Lacunae
    b.     Lamellae
    c.      Trabeculae
    d.     Osteon
    c
  108. Which of the following are the bone-eating (resorbing) cells?
    a.     Osteoprogenitor cells
    b.     Osteocytes
    c.      Osteoblasts
    d.     Osteoclasts
    d
  109. What types of cells secrete the matrix of bone (bone forming cells)?
    a.     Osteoprogenitor cells
    b.     Osteoblasts
    c.      Osteocytes
    d.     Osteoclasts
    b
  110. Which would form by way of intramembranous ossification?
    a.     Humerus
    b.     Metacarpal
    c.      Frontal bone
    d.     Clavicle
    c
  111. During intramembranous ossification
    a.     A bone develops between sheets of fibrous connective tissue
    b.     Hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone
    c.      Osteoclasts break down bone
    d.     New bone is added on top of existing bone
    a
  112. During endochondral ossification
    a.     Hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue
    b.     Osteoblasts break down bone
    c.      Hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone
    d.     Simple fractures are more common
    c
  113. What structure is the site of bone growth in length?
    a.     Primary ossification center
    b.     Epiphyseal plates
    c.      Periosteum
    d.     None of the choices are correct
    b
  114. The addition of new bone on top of existing bone to increase bone thickness is called
    a.     Endochondral ossification
    b.     Intramembranous ossification
    c.      Osteoprogenesis
    d.     Appositional growth
    d
  115. Which of the following is the correct order of events in bone repair of a fracture?
    a.     Hematoma, bony callus, remodeling, fibrocartilage callus
    b.     Bony callus, hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, remodeling
    c.      Hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, bony callus, remodeling
    d.     Remodeling, bony callus, fibrocartilage callus, hematoma
    c
  116. A bone that is broken but does not pierce the skin is a(an)
    a.     Simple fracture
    b.     Complete fracture
    c.      Compound fracture
    d.     Incomplete fracture
    a
  117. A condition in which bones lose bone mass and therefore become weak is
    a.     Osteomyelitis
    b.     Osteogenesis
    c.      Osteoporosis
    d.     Osteomalacia
    c
  118. Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
    a.     Metacarpals
    b.     Skull
    c.      Femur
    d.     Scapula
    b
  119. Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
    a.     Coxa
    b.     Sacrum
    c.      Sternum
    d.     Ribs
    a
  120. What is the only movable bone of the skull?
    a.     Temporal
    b.     Mandible
    c.      Maxilla
    d.     Zygomatic
    b
  121. Which bone has no articulation with any other bone?
    a.     Vomer
    b.     Axis
    c.      Hyoid
    d.     Scapula
    c
  122. Which of the following pairings of vertebra and their number is correct?
    a.     Cervical – five
    b.     Thoracic – seven
    c.      Lumbar – five
    d.     Sacrum – three
    c
  123. An exaggerated lumbar curvature is called
    a.     Lordosis
    b.     Kyphosis
    c.      Hunchback
    d.     Scoliosis
    a
  124. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called
    a.     Lordosis
    b.     Kyphosis
    c.      Hunchback
    d.     scoliosis
    d
  125. What are the intervertebral disks that are shock-absorbers composed of?
    a.     Elastic cartilage
    b.     Hyaline cartilage
    c.      Fibrocartilage
    d.     Reticular cartilage
    c
  126. The first cervical vertebra that “holds up the head” is the
    a.     Axis
    b.     Coccyx
    c.      Atlas
    d.     Mastoid
    c
  127. To which type of vertebrae are the ribs attached?
    a.     Cervical
    b.     Thoracic
    c.      Lumbar
    d.     Sacrum
    b
  128. How many pairs of ribs are found in humans?
    a.     10
    b.     12
    c.      14
    d.     18
    b
  129. Which spinal curvature is incorrect?
    a.     Lumbar- convex anteriorly
    b.     Thoracic-concave anteriorly
    c.      Sacral-convex anteriorly
    c
  130. The most inferior part of the sternum is called the
    a.     Xiphoid process
    b.     Manubrium
    c.      Clavicle
    d.     Costal cartilage
    a
  131. The pectoral girdle
    a.     Is the shoulder girdle
    b.     Contains the clavicle
    c.      Contains the scapula
    d.     All of the choices are correct
    d
  132. Another name for the collarbone is the
    a.     Scapula
    b.     Clavicle
    c.      Sternum
    d.     Xiphoid
    b
  133. What is another name for the wrist?
    a.     Tarsals
    b.     Metacarpals
    c.      Carpus
    d.     Phalanges
    c
  134. The socket on the coxal bone that articulates with the head of the femur is the
    a.     Pelvic aperature
    b.     Greater sciatic notch
    c.      Obturator foramen
    d.     Acetabulum
    d
  135. The longest and strongest bone in the body is the
    a.     Tibia
    b.     Humerus
    c.      Fibula
    d.     Femur
    d
  136. Which type of joint is correctly matched with the amount of movement they allow?
    a.     Synarthrosis – slight movement
    b.     Amphiarthrosis – immovable
    c.      Diarthrosis – freely movable
    c
  137. Sutures occur mainly in the
    a.     Cranium
    b.     Pelvic girdle
    c.      Tarsals
    d.     Wrist
    a
  138. What type of synovial joint movement will decrease the angle between bones?
    a.     Adduction
    b.     Flexion
    c.      Extension
    d.     Supination
    b
  139. What type of synovial joint movement will move a body part laterally, away from the body?
    a.     Adduction
    b.     Extension
    c.      Dorsiflexion
    d.     Abduction
    d
  140. Doing arm circles in an example of :
    a.     Plantar flexion
    b.     Circumduction
    c.      Inversion
    d.     Depression
    b
  141. Which of the following is NOT another name for the skin?
    a.     Integument
    b.     Serous membrane
    c.      Cutaneous membrane
    d.     All of the choices are correct names
    b
  142. The skin consists of _____ region(s).
    a.     1
    b.     2
    c.     3
    d.     4
    b
  143. The epidermis and dermis make up the
    a.     Serous membrane
    b.     Subcutaneous membrane
    c.      Integument
    d.     Hypodermis
    c
  144. The integument or cutaneous membrane is the largest organ in the body.
    a.     True
    b.     False
    a
  145. The epidermis
    a.     Is the outer layer of skin
    b.     Consists of stratified squamous epithelial cells
    c.      Contains melanocytes
    d.     All of the choices are correct
    d
  146. In which layer of the epidermis are cells constantly dividing?
    a.     Stratum corneum
    b.     Stratum lucidum
    c.      Stratum dermis
    d.     Stratum basale
    d
  147. Which of the following types of cells are NOT found in the epidermis?
    a.     Squamous epithelial cells
    b.     Langerhans cells
    c.      Red blood cells
    d.     Melanocytes
    c
  148. What happens to cells when they move from the epidermis to the surface of the skin?
    a.     They obtain more nutrients
    b.     They divide more
    c.      They die
    d.     They become dermal cells
    c
  149. A person with no color in their skin, hair, and eyes has
    a.     Been exposed to the sun
    b.     A circulatory disorder
    c.      A genetic disorder
    d.     A nervous disorder
    c
  150. Which layer of the epidermis protects from abrasion and is found only in thick skin?
    a.     Stratum basale
    b.     Hypodermis
    c.      Stratum corneum
    d.     Stratum lucidum
    d
  151. Which layer of the epidermis is closest to the surface?
    a.     Stratum lucidum
    b.     Stratum corneum
    c.      Dermis
    d.     Stratum basale
    b
  152. Keratin is
    a.     A pigment
    b.     A waterproof protein
    c.      Located in the hypodermis
    d.     All of the choices are correct
    b
  153. Melanin
    a.     Is a pigment
    b.     Protects the skin from ultraviolet radiation
    c.      Is located in the epidermis
    d.     All of the choices are correct
    d
  154. Which layer of the skin contains blood vessels and nerve fibers?
    a.     Epidermis
    b.     Dermis
    c.     Epidermis and dermis
    b
  155. The dermis is composed of
    a.     Stratified squamous epithelium
    b.     Pseudostratified columnar epithelium
    c.      Loose connective tissue
    d.     Dense irregular connective tissue
    d
  156. Hair follicles are  produced by epithelial cells located in the
    a.     Epidermis
    b.     Dermis
    c.      Hypodermis
    d.     Dermis and hypodermis
    b
  157. Which consists of keratinized cells?
    a.     Hair
    b.     Nails
    c.      Stratum corneum
    d.     All of the choices are correct
    d
  158. The arrector pili
    a.     Is a smooth muscle
    b.     Causes hair to “stand on end”
    c.      Contracts when cold, forming goose bumps
    d.     All of the choices are correct
    d
  159. A condition described by excessive body and facial hair in women is
    a.     Hirsutism
    b.     Decubitus ulcer
    c.      Scabies
    d.     Alopecia
    a
  160. ________ glands open into hair follicles; while __________ open onto the surface of the skin
    a.     Apocrine; eccrine
    b.     Eccrine; apocrine
    a
  161. The area of the nail that covers the root
    a.     Cuticle
    b.     Nail bed
    c.      Lunula
    d.     Follicle
    e.     body
    a
  162. What type of skin gland secretes sweat?
    a.     Sebaceous gland
    b.     Sudoriferous gland
    c.      Ceruminous gland
    d.     Mammary gland
    b
  163. Which type(s) of skin gland(s) become(s) active with puberty?
    a.     Sebaceous gland
    b.     Apocrine sweat gland
    c.      Eccrine sweat gland
    d.     Both sebaceous and apocrine glands
    b
  164. What percentage of a person’s skin would be involved if they had burned the entire trunk?
    a.     45%
    b.     9%
    c.      36%
    d.     18%
    c
  165. What type of skin gland secretes earwax?
    a.     Sebaceous gland
    b.     Eccrine sweat gland
    c.      Apocrine sweat gland
    d.     Ceruminous gland
    d
  166. Which is the most dangerous form of skin cancer?
    a.     Basale cell carcinoma
    b.     Squamous cell carcinoma
    c.      Malignant melanoma
    d.     Both basale cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma
    c
  167. Which of the following is the most common type of skin cancer?
    a.     Basale cell carcinoma
    b.     Squamous cell carcinoma
    c.      Malignant melanomaKaposi’s sarcoma
    a
  168. Pain is rarely felt from a
    a.     First-degree burn
    b.     Second-degree burn
    c.     Third-degree or fourth-degree burn
    d.     Sunburn
    c
  169. The epidermis only is damaged from a
    a.     First-degree burn
    b.     Second-degree burn
    c.      Third-degree burn
    d.     Fourth-degree burn
    a
  170.  The epidermis and part of the dermis are damaged from a
    a.     First-degree burn
    b.     Second-degree burn
    c.      Third-degree burn
    d.     Fourth-degree burn
    b
  171. What percentage of a person’s skin would be involved if they had burned their left arm, front of the trunk, and the front of their left leg?
    a.     45%
    b.     9%
    c.      36%
    d.     18%
    c
  172. Regardless of race, all human beings have about the same number of melanocytes.
    a.     True
    b.     False
    a
  173. The dermis__________.
    a.     Is an avascular connective tissue layer
    b.     Has two layers
    c.      Lacks sensory corpuscles and glands
    d.     Is where melanocytes are found
    b
  174. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized as two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?
    a.     Sebaceous and merocrine
    b.     Eccrine and apocrine
    c.      Mammary and ceruminous
    d.     Holocrine and mammary
    b
  175. The white crescent portion of the nail is called the_________.
    a.     Lunula
    b.     Body
    c.      Root
    d.     Bed
    e.     Cuticle
    a
  176. The central nervous system includes the
    a.      Spinal nerves
    b.      Brain only
    c.       Cranial nerves
    d.      Brain and spinal cordAll of the above
    d
  177. The spinal cord is part of the _____, while the nerves are part of the _____.
    a.      CNS, PNS
    b.      PNS, CNS
    a
  178. Which effectors of the PNS are served by somatic motor nerves?
    a.      Cardiac muscle
    b.      Glands
    c.       Smooth  muscle
    d.      Skeletal muscle
    d
  179. Which of the following is part of a neuron?
    a.      Axon
    b.      Cell body
    c.       Dendrite
    d.      All of the choices are correct
    d
  180. Which of the following contains the nucleus?
    a.      Axon
    b.      Dendrite
    c.       Cell body
    d.      None of the choices are correct
    c
  181. Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the cell body?
    a.      Axon
    b.      Dendrite
    c.       Nucleus
    d.      Neuroglia
    a
  182. A bundle of parallel axons in the CNS is called a
    a.      Nerve
    b.      Dendrite
    c.       Tract
    d.      Ganglion
    c
  183. Within the peripheral nervous system, the myelin sheath is formed by
    a.      Schwann cells
    b.      Oligodendrocytes
    c.       Microglial cells
    d.       Astrocytes
    a
  184. Within the central nervous system, the myelin sheath is produced from
    a.      Schwann cells
    b.      Neurolemmocytes
    c.       Oligodendrocytes
    d.      All the choices are correct
    c
  185. A sensory neuron carries impulses
    a.      To muscles and glands
    b.      To the CNS
    c.       away from the CNS
    d.      to the PNS
    b
  186. An interneuron carries impulses
    a.      To muscles and glands
    b.      To the CNS
    c.       within the CNS
    d.      within the PNS
    c
  187. A motor neuron carries impulses
    a.      To the muscles and glands
    b.      To the CNS
    c.        within the CNS
    a
  188. What is the structural classification of a motor neuron?
    a.      Unipolar
    b.      Multipolar
    c.       Bipolar
    b
  189. What is the structural classification of a sensory neuron?
    a.      Unipolar
    b.      Multipolar
    c.       Bipolar
    a
  190. The “jumping” of an action potential from one node of Ranvier to the next node is called
    a.      Point to point conduction
    b.      Refractory conduction
    c.       Saltatory conduction
    d.      Summary conduction
    c
  191. Nerves are composed of axons.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  192. The small gap between two successive neurons is called the
    a.      Synaptic cleft
    b.      Axon terminal
    c.       Dendrite terminal
    d.      Neurotransmitter
    a
  193. Which of the following is a common neurotransmitter in the muscular system?
    a.      Acetylcholine
    b.      norepinephrine
    c.       dopamine
    d.      serotonin
    a
  194. The protective membranes around the brain and spinal cord are the
    a.      Ventricles
    b.      Meninges
    c.       Serous membranes
    d.      Arbor vitae
    b
  195. Which of the following is the correct layering of the meninges from superficial to deep?
    a.      Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
    b.      Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
    c.       Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
    d.      Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater
    c
  196. The tough outer meninx is the
    a.      Dura mater
    b.      Arachnoid mater
    c.       Pia mater
    a
  197. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the
    a.      Dural mater
    b.      Pia mater
    c.       Ventricles
    d.      Choroid plexus
    d
  198. What do the ventricles of the brain contain?
    a.      Meninges
    b.      Dura mater
    c.       Cerebrospinal fluid
    d.      Meninges and dura mater
    c
  199. In the spinal cord, the gray matter is
    a.      Inside with white matter outside
    b.      Outside with white matter inside
    a
  200. What separates the hemispheres of the cerebrum?
    a.      Lateral fissure
    b.      Longitudinal fissure
    c.       Corpus callosum
    d.      Central sulcus
    b
  201. What white matter structure connects the two cerebral hemispheres?
    a.      Longitudinal fissure
    b.      Lateral ventricles
    c.       Corpus callosum
    d.      Diencephalons
    c
  202. A shallow groove on the structure of the cerebral cortex is called a
    a.      Gyrus
    b.      Sulcus
    c.       Ventricles
    d.      Lobe
    b
  203. Which of the following is NOT a lobe of the cerebrum?
    a.      Occipital lobe
    b.      Frontal lobe
    c.       Temporal lobe
    d.      Sphenoid lobe
    e.      Insula
    d
  204. The primary motor cortex is located in the ___ lobe.
    a.      Frontal
    b.      Parietal
    c.       Temporal
    d.      Occipital
    a
  205. The primary somatosensory area is located in the ___ lobe.
    a.      Frontal
    b.      Parietal
    c.       Temporal
    d.      Occipital
    b
  206. The primary visual area is located in the ___ lobe.
    a.      Frontal
    b.      Parietal
    c.       Temporal
    d.      Occipital
    d
  207. The primary auditory area is located in the ___ lobe.
    a.      Frontal
    b.      Parietal
    c.       Temporal
    d.      Occipital
    c
  208. Wernicke’s area or general interpretive area, is involved with
    a.      Speech
    b.      Critical thinking
    c.       Planning actions
    d.      Interpreting written and spoken language
    d
  209. The area in the brain concerned with our deepest emotions, such as rage, sorrow, pleasure
    a.      The reticular formation
    b.      Pineal gland
    c.       pons
    d.      limbic system
    a
  210. Which part of the brain regulates hunger, sleep, thirst, body temperature and water balance?
    a.      Midbrain
    b.      Pons
    c.       Thalamus
    d.      Hypothalamus
    d
  211. What part of the limbic system is vital in converting short-term memory to long-term memory?
    a.      Hippocampus
    b.      Thalamus
    c.       Hypothalamus
    d.      Basal nuclei
    a
  212. The peripheral nervous system has two main divisions: Sensory which is the ______________ division and motor which is the ______________ division.
    a.      Afferent; Efferent
    b.      Efferent; Afferent
    b
  213. Which one of the following is NOT a specific function of the nervous system that works to maintain homeostasis?
    a.      Sensory input
    b.      Integration
    c.       Motor input
    d.      All of the above are correct
    c
  214. Restful activities are governed by the
    a.      Parasympathetic nervous system
    b.      Sympathetic nervous system
    c.       Both parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system
    a
  215. The autonomic system that gets the body ready for “fight or fight” is the
    a.      Parasympathetic nervous system
    b.      Sympathetic nervous system
    c.       Somatic motor nervous system
    b
  216. Which type of muscle tissue has intercalated disk?
    a.      Cardiac
    b.      Skeletal
    c.       Smooth
    d.      Both cardiac and skeletal are correct
    a
  217. Which type of muscle tissue is striated?
    a.      Cardiac
    b.      Skeletal
    c.       Smooth
    d.      Both cardiac and skeletal are correct
    d
  218. Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow internal organs?
    a.      Cardiac
    b.      Skeletal
    c.       Smooth
    d.      Both cardiac and skeletal are correct
    c
  219. Which type of muscle tissue is involuntary?
    a.      Cardiac
    b.      Skeletal
    c.       Smooth
    d.      Both cardiac and smooth are correct
    d
  220. Which of the following surrounds a fascicle?
    a.      Endomysium
    b.      Epimysium
    c.       Fascia
    d.      Perimysium
    d
  221. Which of the following connective tissue sheaths covers the muscle organ itself?
    a.      Endomysium
    b.      Epimysium
    c.       Fascia
    d.      Perimysium
    b
  222. 1.      Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscle?
    a.      Generate heat
    b.      Maintain posture
    c.       Move food through the GI tract
    d.      Keep blood moving in veins and keep fluids moving in the lymphatic system
    c
  223. The special name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is:
    a.      Sarcolemma
    b.      Sarcoplasm
    c.       T tubules
    d.      Sarcoplasmic reticulum
    a
  224. Sarcomeres are located in myofibrils and extends between two vertical Z lines
    a.      True
    b.      false
    a
  225. There are two types of myofilaments: thick, composed of__________ and thin composed of____________.
    a.      Myosin, actin
    b.      Actin, myosin
    a
  226. In the sliding filament theory, ____________ filaments slide past ___________filaments.
    a.      Actin, myosin
    b.      Myosin, actin
    a
  227. True or false:  in the sliding filament theory the thick and thin filaments remain the same length.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  228. According to the sliding filament theory, in a sarcomere the___________  and the_________ disappear.
    a.      A-band; H-zone
    b.      H-zone;  A-band
    c.       M-line; I-band
    d.      I- band; H-zone
    d
  229. Which of the following obeys the “all-or-none” law?
    a.      The whole muscle
    b.      A muscle fiber
    c.       The whole muscle and a muscle fiber
    b
  230. What is an obvious sign that a person has accrued an oxygen debt?
    a.      Inability of muscle to contract
    b.      Rigor mortis
    c.       Heavy breathingFainting
    c
  231. The latent period of a muscle fiber contraction is:
    a.      The time of receiving many impulses in  rapid succession
    b.      The period between stimulation and contraction
    c.       The time when the ATP has been depleted
    d.      The time of muscle relaxation
    b
  232. A sustained muscle contraction with no relaxation is called:
    a.      A twitch
    b.      A tetanic contraction
    c.       Fatigue
    d.      Oxygen debt
    b
  233. A single muscle contraction lasting a fraction of a second is a:
    a.      Myogram
    b.      Motor Unit
    c.       Tetanic contraction
    d.      Muscle twitch
    d
  234. A motor unit is:
    a.      A group of muscles working together
    b.      A group of muscle fibers
    c.       An artery and the muscles fibers it supplies
    d.      A motor neuron and the muscle fibers it supplies
    d
  235. What is formed when an axon terminal comes into close proximity to the sarcolemma?
    a.      Terminal junction
    b.      Petticoat junction
    c.       Sarcolemma-neural junction
    d.      Neuromuscular junction
    d
  236. The synaptic cleft is a small gap that separates the dendrites from the sarcolemma.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    b
  237. Muscles acquire new APT in three ways. Which one of the following is an incorrect:
    a.      Exercise
    b.      Creatine phosphate breakdown
    c.       Cellular respiration
    d.      Fermentation
    e.      All of the above are correct
    a
  238. The more stimulation a muscles receives, the more the motor units are activated. This is called:
    a.      Recruitment
    b.      Oxygen debt
    c.       Fatigue
    d.      Hypertrophy
    a
  239. When muscles are not used, they shrink which is called:
    a.      Atrophy
    b.      Hypertrophy
    c.       Fatigue
    d.      Crenation
    a
  240. Which type of muscle fibers would be utilized for moderate activity(walking, jogging, bike riding)?
    a.      Intermediate-twitch fibers
    b.      Fast-twitch fibers
    c.       Slow-twitch fibers
    d.      Medium-twitch fibers
    a
  241. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fast-twitch fibers?
    a.      Useful for burst of energy
    b.      Fatigues quickly
    c.       Light in color
    d.      Mostly aerobic
    d
  242. Which part of a muscle is on the stationary bone?
    a.      Insertion
    b.      Prime mover
    c.       OriginSynergist
    c
  243. The muscle that does most of the work for a particular movement is called the:
    a.      Prime mover
    b.      Synergist
    c.       InsertionAntagonist
    a
  244. Slow-twitch fibers are dark in color because they contain a pigment called:
    a.      Myoglobin
    b.      Hemoglobin
    c.       Melanin
    d.      Melanocytes
    a
  245. Which type of muscle fibers is multinucleated?
    a.      Skeleton
    b.      Smooth
    c.       Cardiac
    a
  246. Contraction of cardiac muscle does not require outside nervous stimulation.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  247. About cardiac muscle, which statement is true?
    a.      Multinucleated, non-striated, branched
    b.      Multinucleated, striated, branched
    c.       Uninucleated, striated, non- branched
    d.      Uninucleated, striated, branched
    d
  248. The term used for the cytoplasm in a muscle fiber is:
    a.      Sarcoplasmic reticulum
    b.      Myoglobin
    c.       Sarcoplasm
    d.      Sarcolemma
    c
  249. The term used for the endoplasmic reticulum in a muscle fiber is:
    a.      Sarcoplasmic reticulum
    b.      Myoglobin
    c.       Sarcoplasm
    d.      Sarcolemma
    a
  250. In our bodies, some muscle fibers are always contracting which helps the body to maintain posture. This is called:
    a.      Tone
    b.      Summation
    c.       Recruitment
    d.      Tetanic contraction
    a
  251. The nervous system works with the_____________ system to coordinate and regulate the functioning of other systems.
    a.      Sensory system
    b.      Endocrine
    c.       Excretory
    d.      Digestive
    b
  252. What does the connective tissue called “perimysium” cover in a muscle?
    a.      The entire muscle
    b.      The muscle fibers
    c.       The fascicles
    d.       Myofibrils
    c
  253. What does the connective tissue called “epimysium” cover in a muscle?
    a.      The  entire muscle
    b.      The muscle fibers
    c.       The fascicles
    d.      Myofibrils
    a
  254. Oxygen debt occurs when muscles use fermentation to supply ATP.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  255. A whole muscle does NOT obey the “All-or-none-law”.
    a.      True
    b.      False
    a
  256. how many teeth are produced in a human's life?
    a. 32
    b. 52
    c. 20
    d. 30
    b
  257. the pancreas and liver are referred to as accessory organs because:
    a. food does not pass through them
    b. they do not produce digestive enzymes
    c. they are not needed for digestion
    d. all of the choices are correct
    a
  258. appendicitis and diverticulosis are associatede with the:
    a. esophagus
    b. stomach
    c. small intestine
    d. large intestine
    d
  259. Which is the first portion of the small intestine?
    a. jejunum
    b. duodenum
    c. ileum
    d. cecum
    b
  260. What mechanical process moves the bolus through the esophagus?
    a. swallowing
    b. mass movement
    c. peristalsis
    d. segmentation
    c
  261. The wisdom teeth are also the:
    a. premolars
    b. last molars
    c. incisors
    d. canines
    b
  262. the function of the uvula is to prevent food from entering the:
    a. nasal cavity
    b. mouth
    c. larynx
    d. pharynx
    a
  263. The material that leaves the mouth and enters the pharynx is called:
    a. chime
    b. chyle
    c. bolus
    d. rugae
    c
  264. the pharynx transports food into the
    a. stomach
    b. larynx
    c. esophagus
    d. all choices are correct
    c
  265. which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
    a. absorption of nutrient molecules
    b. movement of nutrients to the cells
    c. ingestion of food
    d. elimination of indigestible waste
    b
  266. food is digested so that:
    a. it can be swallowed
    b. it can be converted to waste
    c. nutrients are small enough to enter the cell
    d. all of the above are correct
    c
  267. which of the following substances is not normally found in urine?
    a. glucose
    b. urea
    c. potassium
    d. ammonia
    a
  268. The functional unit of the kidney is the :
    a. nephron
    b. hilus
    c. urethra
    d. ureter
    a
  269. a urinary tract infection that involves the urinary bladder is called:
    a. urethritis
    b. nephritis
    c. cystitis
    d. pyelonephritis
    c
  270. urea is a by-product of the metabolism of:
    a. cholesterol
    b. amino acid
    c. fats
    d. sugars
    b
  271. where are the kidneys located?
    a. lumbar region
    b. dorsal region of the thorax
    c. ventral region of the pelvis
    d. ventral region of the thorax
    a
  272. which of the following carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder
    a. hilum
    b. ureters
    c. urethra
    d. urethra only in males and ureters only in females
    b
  273. the average adult body is about ___ water weight.
    a. 70-80%
    b. 60-70%
    c. 50-60%
    d. 40-50%
    c
  274. which of the following is a function of the urinary system?
    a. maintenance of acid-base balance
    b. excretion of metabolic wastes
    c. secretion of hormones
    d. all of the above
    d
  275. which of the following is not a homeostatic function of the kidney?
    a. elimination of digestive waste
    b. excretion of metabolic waste
    c. maintenance of blood pressure
    d. maintenance of acid-base and water-salt blance
    a
  276. which of the following is an excretory waste?
    a. bacteria
    b. feces
    c. urea
    d. all are correct
    c
  277. what female external gential is homologous to the male's penis?
    a. labia majora
    b. labia minora
    c. clitoris
    d. mons pubis
    c
  278. which of the following is not a function of the male reproductive system?
    a. produces sperm in the testes
    b. produces male sex hormone for masculinization
    c. provides for the maturing of a sperm in the testes
    d. delivers sperm to the female vagina with the aid of the penis
    c
  279. which of the following is not a function of the female reproductive system?
    a. produces female sex hormones for feminization and pregnancy
    b. provides a place for a fertilized egg to develop in the uterus
    c. produces ova in the uterus
    d. receiving the male penis and removing of menstral flow through the vagina
    c
  280. how many cell divisions occur in meiosis?
    a. none
    b. 1
    c. 2
    d. 3
    e. many
    c
  281. the lining of the vagina is called the endometrium.
    a. true
    b. false
    b
  282. a fertilized egg is first called a ___.
    a. zygote
    b. meiotic cell
    c. graafian follicle
    d. corpus albicans
    a
  283. the testes
    a. ssecretes hormones
    b. produces gametes
    c. produces gametes and secretes hormones
    d. none of the above
    c
  284. where does fertilization of an egg usually occur?
    a. vagina
    b. uterus
    c. uterine tubes
    d. pelvic cavity
    c
  285. a mature follicle is called a
    a. primary follicle
    b. secondary follicle
    c. vesicular (graafian) follicle
    d. corpus luteum
    c
  286. once a follicle releases an egg, it becomes a
    a. zona pellucida
    b. corpus albicans
    c. corpus luteum
    d. vesicular follicle
    c
  287. development of the fetus occurs in the
    a. ovaries
    b. uterus
    c. vagina
    d. uterine tubes
    b
  288. which of the following is not a section of the uterus?
    a. fundus
    b. vagina
    c. body
    d. uterine tubes
    b
  289. what type of cell is found in the seminiferous tubules?
    a. interstitial cells
    b. sperm
    c. sustentacular cells
    d. both germ and sustentacular cells
    d
  290. the ___ stores sperm and allows them to mature.
    a. epididymis
    b. vas deferens
    c. bulbourethral gland
    d. urethra
    a
  291. the vas derferens joins a duct from the seminal vesicles to form the
    a. ejaculatory duct
    b. spermatic cord
    c. prostate gland
    d. urethra
    a
  292. the ejaculatory ducts join the ___ in the prostate gland.
    a. ureters
    b. urethra
    c. spermatic cord
    d. none of the above
    b
  293. the primary sex organs of a male are the:
    a. testes
    b. ovaries
    c. scrotum
    d. glands
    a
  294. why do the testes descend into the scrotum?
    a. abdominal temp is too high to provide viable sperm
    b. abdominal temp is to low to provide viable sperm
    c. there is no sufficient room in the abdomen
    d. there is no reason
    a
  295. in human meiosis the chromosome number is reduced from:
    a. 48 to 24
    b. 46 to 23
    c. 44 to 22
    d. 34 to 17
    b
  296. what male structures secrete a mucus-like fluid that lubricates the end of the penis?
    a. vas deferns
    b. seminal vesicles
    c. prostate gland
    d. bulbourethral gland
    d
  297. the seminiferous tubules
    a. are found in the testes
    b. are where sperm are formed
    c. produce male hormones
    d. both a and b
    e. a, b, and c
    d
  298. what are the functions of the interstitial cells of the testes?
    a. produce immature sperm
    b. produce semen
    c. produce androgens
    c
  299. the most important androgen is:
    a. semen
    b. testosterone
    c. prostaglandins
    d. progesterone
    b
  300. which male gland is located behind the urinary bladder and secretes an alkaline fluid with fructose and prostaglandins?
    a. prostate
    b. bulbourethral gland
    c. seminal vesicles
    c
  301. what type of cell acts to support, nourish, and regulate the development of sperm?
    a. interstitial cells
    b. sustentacular cells
    c. spermatogonia
    b
  302. name the structures that sweep over the overies at the time of ovulation to help propel the egg towards the uterus.
    a. cilia
    b. flagella
    c. brushes
    d. fimbriae
    d
  303. the external genitals of the female are collectively called the ___.
    a. vulva
    b. vestibule
    c. mons pubis
    a
  304. which of the following is not part of a mature sperm?
    a. head
    b. middle piece
    c. body
    d. tail
    c
  305. which male gland encircles the urethra and secretes a fluid that enhances sperm motility?
    a. cowper's glands
    b. seminal vesicles
    c. prostate
    c
  306. what activities are included in the process of respiration?
    a. ventilation
    b. external respiration
    c. internal respiration
    d. all of the above
    d
  307. what is the primary function of the respiratory system?
    a. ventilation
    b. gas exchange
    c. transport of gases
    b
  308. what is the external respiration?
    a. ventilation
    b. gas exchange between blood and tissue fluid
    c. gas exchange between air and blood
    d. production of ATP
    c
  309. what is internal respiration?
    a. ventilation
    b. gas exchange between blood and tissue fluid
    c. gas exchange between air and blood
    d. production of ATP
    b
  310. which of the following is the correct sequence when tracing the path of air from nose to lungs?
    a. nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles
    b. nasal cavity, larynx, pharynx, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea
    c. nasal cavity, bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, pharynx, larynx
    a
  311. as air moves through the respiratory tract, it is
    a. warmed
    b. cleaned
    c. moisterized
    d. all of the above
    d
  312. what is the purpose of the mucociliary escalator mechanism?
    a. to inhale air
    b. to screen out, kill, and remove dust, dirt, and pathogens from inhaled air
    c. to transport gases through the mucous membrane
    b
  313. which portion of the respiratory tract is also a passageway for food?
    a. larynx
    b. trachea
    c. bronchi
    d. pharynx
    d
  314. which of the following is not a division of the pharynx?
    a. oropharynx
    b. laryngopharynx
    c. sinopharynx
    d. nasopharynx
    c
  315. what is the first lymphatic tissue inspired air encounters?
    a. palatine tonsils
    b. uvula
    c. pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)
    d. epiglottis
    a
  316. the common name for the larynx is the
    a. throat
    b. voice box
    c. windpipe
    b
  317. the epiglottis
    a. contains vocal cords
    b. contains cilia
    c. prevents food from entering the air passage
    d. pushes air into the lungs
    c
  318. the windpipe is known as the
    a. voice box
    b. throat
    c. trachea
    c
  319. what portion of the bronchial tree supplies each lobe of the lung?
    a. primary bronchi
    b. secondary bronchi
    c. tertiary bronchi
    d. bronchioles
    b
  320. which serous membrane lines the thoracic cavity?
    a. visceral pleura
    b. visceral peritoneum
    c. parietal pleura
    c
  321. the visceral pleura
    a. is a mucous membrane
    b. is attached to the lung's surface
    c. lines the thoracic cavity
    b
  322. the ___ are air sacs where gas exchange occurs.
    a. larynx
    b. alveoli
    c. bronchi
    b
  323. an alveolar sac is made of
    a. simple squamous epithelium
    b. smooth muscle and hyaline cartilage
    c. stratified squamous epithelium
    a
  324. the diaphragm contracts during ___ and relaxes during ___.
    a. expiration, inspiration
    b. inspiration, expiration
    b
  325. an instrument that is used to measure lung volume is a
    a. stethoscope
    b. microscope
    c. spirometer
    c
  326. the primary respiratory control center is located in the
    a. pons
    b. midbrain
    c. medulla oblongata
    c
  327. a secondary respiratory center is found in the ___ that helps ventilation to become smooth and rhythmic.
    a. pons
    b. midbrain
    c. medulla oblongata
    a
  328. external respiration is a gas exchange through the respiratory membrane between the
    a. bronchiole and alveoli
    b. alveoli and blood
    c. blood and tissue
    b
  329. internal respiration is the exchange of gases between the
    a. bronchiole and alveoli
    b. alveoli and blood
    c. blood and tissue
    c
  330. in internal respiration, oxygen is diffusing from the
    a. tissue fluid into the capillary blood
    b. capillaries into the venules
    c. capillary blood into the tissue fluid
    c
  331. oxygen is carried by the blood
    a. dissolved in the plasma
    b. bound to the protection of hemoglobin in the red blood cells
    c. dissolved in the plasma and bound to the iron of the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
    c
  332. once hemoglobin has joined with oxygen, it is bright red and called
    a. oxyhemoglobin
    b. carbaminohemoglobin
    c. hemoglobin
    a
  333. most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported
    a. dissolved in the plasma
    b. as carbaminohemoglobin
    c. as bicarbonate ions in the plasma
    c
  334. a primary oocyte has 70 pairs of chromosomes before meiosis I.  how many chromosomes will this cell have at the end of meiosis II?
    a. 70 pairs of chromosomes
    b. 70 chromosomes
    c. 35 chromosomes
    b
  335. a primary spermatocyte will produce ___ spermatozoa at the end of meiosis II.
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
    e. 5
    d

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