Echo

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Author:
smcclannahan
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187449
Filename:
Echo
Updated:
2012-12-05 22:06:33
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echo
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Heart/ Echo test
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  1. A left ventricular pacing wire is placed in the coronary sinus in conjuntion with right ventricular pacing wire, this is called?
    Cardiac Resynchronization
  2. When obtaining pulmonayr view flow for the detection of diastolic dysfunction, this pulmonary vein should be used to obtain Doppler information?
    Right superior vein
  3. A VSD is also referred to as A?
    Outlet
  4. Infundibular pulmonary stenosis is uncommon as an isolated lesion and is usually associated with?
    VSD
  5. M-mode finding in a patient with IHSS might include all of the following except:
    A) mid sys closure of the aortic valve
    B) Mitral valve prolaspe
    C) sys anterior motion of the mitral valve
    D) Asymmetric septal hypertrophy
    MVP
  6. In pt. with large pericardial effusions, which of the following can be a false positive dx on m-mode?
    MVP
  7. Mitral valve prolaspe is best seen in which echo view?
    parasternal long axis
  8. In laminar flow, mean velocity is?
    Is equal to the max velocity
  9. A shared problem is pts with constrictive pericarditis and those with cardiac tamponade is
    Decreased cardiac output
  10. The communication between the aorta & pulmonary artery that may presist after birth is called?
    PDA
  11. The most common tumor mass to cause mitral valve obstruction is?
    Atrial myomas
  12. Inhalation of Amyl Nitrite causes decrease in Preload or After load?
    Decreased afterload
  13. Premature opening of the pulmonary valve may be seen in?
    Contrictive pericarditis
  14. The most common cardiac valvular tumor is?
    Fibroelastomas
  15. An underestimation of the severity of aortic stenosis by continous wave doppler may occur with?
    Low Cardiac output
  16. The most common location for a true aneurysm to occur is in the ?
    Apex
  17. Gradual closure of the aortic valve suggesting decrease in cardiac output is often associated with which CMP?
    Dilated CMP
  18. Which of the following is not a possible M-mode finding in a pt with constrictive pericaditis?
    A) Paradoxial septal motion
    B) Pericardial thicking
    C) Flattening of the mid diastolic post wall motion
    D) Enlarged LV
  19. Tricuspid Atresia blood flow will shunt from R-L atrial through a ?
    Patent Forman Ovale
  20. Small fibrous nodules located at the center of each aortic cusp is called?
    Nodules of Art????
  21. Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return is seen which what type of ASD?
    Sinus Venous
  22. Atrial myxomas are usually attached to the ?
    Fossa ovalis region of the atrial septum
  23. An Anomalie that is most likely associated with a Sinus Venous ASD?
    Partial anomalous pulmonary venous return
  24. Adult chest wall echo problem generally operate in what frequency range?
    2.5- 4.0 MHz
  25. Pulmonic stenosis is often associated with ?
    Tetrology of Fallot
  26. What causes mitral valve pre-systolic closure?
    • LVEDP
    • left ventricular end diastolic pressure
  27. Where on the EKG that correlates with venticular depoloration.
    Right before the QRS
  28. What causes MV preclosure?
    LVEDP
  29. Pulsus paredoxus?
    • 10-20mmHg drop in arterial pressure during inspiration.
    • Classic finding of Cardiac Tamponade
  30. A cardiac mass involving the superior and inferior portions of interaatrial septum is most likely?
    Lipomatous hypertrophy
  31. Echo appearnace of Restrictive CMP?
    • Ground Glass
    • LVH-- small or normal cavity
    • Percardial effusion may be present
  32. Cardiac tamponade is rapid filling of fluid causing?
    Restrictive diastolic filling
  33. The remnant of the fetal ductus arteriosus is called?
    Ligamentum Arterious
  34. Coarctation of the aortic most often occur at the :
    Aortic Isthmus
  35. The best 2D view for eval a patient with suspected PDA is?
    Short axis of the aorta
  36. Which of the following is the most common etiology for a pt to develop a restrictive CMP?
    A) endomyocardial fibrosis
    B) sarcoidosis
    C) Amyloidosis
    D) hemochromatosis
    Amyloidsis
  37. If the IVE is dialted and doesnt collapse with the pt sniffs the RApressure is ext to be?
    20mmHg
  38. Which of the following is most often associated with Primum ASD's?
    Cleft Mitral Valve
  39. Infundibular pulmonary stenosis is uncommon as a isolated lesion and is usually associated with?
    VSD
  40. Pt. with IHSS and high rest flow gradient may be offered all of the following treatments except:
    a) medical therpy
    b) sub nitro
    c) alcholo septal ablation
    d) septal myectomy
    Sub Nitro
  41. Which of the following is true regarding the mitral doppler spectral trace in a pt with Restrictive/ Infiltrive CMP?
    a) Shows E/A reversal
    b) resemebles cadiac tamponade
    c) diastolic functions is normal
    d) resemble contricitive percaridtis
    Resembles constictive percarditis
  42. Pt. with IHSS and a high resting outflow gradient maybe offered which of the following?
    a) liptor medical tx
    b) contrast septal ablastion
    c) sub nitrl
    d) Surgical septal myectomy
    Surgical septal myectomy
  43. In aortic stenosis the pulse pressure is ?
    Narrow
  44. What valve directs blood from the inferior vena cava to the foramen ovale during fetal circulation?
    Eustachia Valve
  45. Which of the following occurs first in the setting of severe mitral regurgitation due to a flail leaflet?
    Dilated RV
  46. What is a common symptom of a patient with endocarditis?
    Fever
  47. A loculated pericardial effusion is rare except for pt with?
    Post op cardiac surgery
  48. The sac that surrounds the heart is the?
    Fibrous pericardium
  49. While performing an echo on a premature baby what 2 findings are to be expected?
    • PDA
    • Patent foromen ovale
  50. Which echocardiographic techinque is bet for the detection of MR?
    Pulse doppler
  51. Longstanding mitral stenosis leads to?
    • CHF
    • Pulm HTN
    • Left atrial enlargement
  52. The QRS of the Echo reflects which of the following
    a) Atrial depolazation
    b) Atrial repo.
    c) Vent deop
    d) Vent repo
    Ventricular depolorization
  53. Afib is most commonly associated with which valvular dz?
    Rheumatic MS
  54. The most common type of ASD is?
    Ostium Secundum
  55. Kawasaki Diasease may lead to ?
    Coronary Artery Aneurysm
  56. A young pt is sent to the echo lab with a dx of kawaski dz, what would you look for?
    Regional wall motion abnormailty
  57. The most common location for a Pseudoaneruyms Is?
    Inferior Basal
  58. For patients with AS and Atrial fib , peak sys aortic velocity will be?
    Higher R-R intervals
  59. Pt with Downs Syndrom is most likely to have a common lesion?
    AV septal defect
  60. In pt with tricuspid atresisa blood flow will shunt form the R-L atrium through a ?
    PFO
  61. What is used in Echo to measure dP/dt?
    MR
  62. The mitral valve doppler inflow shows a normal e/a wave. The Tissue doppler shows e/a reveral. The most accurate dx would be?
    Pseduo normal
  63. A Pisa calculation can not be preformed to determine the severity of the MR when this is present?
    a) Tricuspid stenosis
    b) Decreased cardiac output
    c) LA enlargement
    d) Mult jets
    Mult jets
  64. With a hypertrophic CMP you would see?
    a) Left atrial volume overload
    b) LA pressure overload
    c) LV pressuer overload
    d) LV volume overload
    Left ventricular overload
  65. Which type of MV abnormally often occurs when the heart  muscle has been damaged by MI?
    a) underdeveloped MV
    b) Cleft MV
    c) mitral regurg
    d) Mitral stenosis
    MR
  66. A finding of holodiastolic flow reversal in the descending aorta maybe a false positive of severe aortic regurgitation if the patient has?
    PDA
  67. What technique is used to reduce sidelobes ?
    Apolization
  68. The most common area for a sinus of valsuva aneurysm is?
    RCC
  69. Left atrial thrombus is often seen in pt with?
    Mitral stenosis
  70. Pt. with Ebsteins anomaly often have an associated congential abnormally?
    Secudum ASD
  71. What is a know compliction of bioprosthetic heart valve?
    Pannus Growth
  72. The normal mean left atrial pressure is comparable to?
    Left vent diastolic
  73. The velocity time integral measurment calculates?
    Mean velocities
  74. In normal development what is the last to close?
    foramen ovale
  75. The congenital cardiac anomaly seen most freguently in adults is?
    Biscuspid Aortic Valve
  76. The doppler jet of MS obtained at the apex is somtimes confused with?
    Aortic insufficiencey
  77. An advantage of CW doppler to PW is?
    Peak velocity detection
  78. Know inlet location?
    Subvalvular low near mitral and tricuspid valve
  79. Which window is best for eval the ball excursion of a starr edwards MV using M-mode tech?
    Apical
  80. An ex of a Bioprosthetic cardial valve?
    Ionescu-shiley Bovine
  81. M-mode echo demonstration of mid-systolic closure of the pulmonary valve along with a decreased "a" wave is most consistent with?
    Pulmonary hypertension
  82. The right vent can be measured from the m-mode of the LV during this part of the cardial cycle?
    • Diastolic
    • Range: 1.3-2.5cm
  83. Pt. with a higher than normal heart rate may cause the doppler signal of the LV inflow to:
    Have a single E/A wave velocity
  84. Which two dimensional echo view is best for the assessment of the interatrial septum?
    Subcostal 4 chamber
  85. What is the number and location of the papilllary muscles of a normal mitral valve?
    2-- posteromedial, anterolatera
  86. A pt with LA myxoma may have symptoms similar to those pt having
    Mitral stenosis
  87. Myocardial blood flow is most predominate during which phase of the cardiac cycle?
    Diastolic
  88. In constictive pericardities does the E wave increase or decrease with inspiration?
    Decrease
  89. In normal pt why does the peak velocity of flow in the pulmonary artery occur later than the peak velocity in the Aorta?
    Vascular resistence if lower
  90. Tricuspid valve closure normally occurs?
    less than 0.06 seconds after the mitral valve
  91. Which m-mode finding is considered to be a specific indicator of a fensestrated aortic valve?
    Diastolic flutter of the aortic valve
  92. What 2D views are best for imaging of a discete subaortic membrane?
    • Subcostal long axis
    • Apical 4 chamber
  93. In pt with IHSS , they will display
    • MR
    • SAM
  94. Which term is used to describe a segment of ventricular wall that exhibits no motion?
    Akinesis
  95. Which echo window is used in the detection assessment of the IVC?
    Subcostal
  96. In order to record the vegetation of endocarditis by echo, the vegetation must have a diameter of at least?
    3mm
  97. A true aneusysm of the LV can usually be distinguised from a pseudoaneurysm because?
    has a smaller narrow neck than an true
  98. Which type of CMP is associated with amyloidosis?
    Infiltrative
  99. Carcinoid heart dz, the cardiac songrapher must devote special attention to identifiying abnormal finding of the?
    Tricuspid Valve
  100. Mitral regurg results in Preload or afterload
    Preload
  101. In AS the LV sys pressure exceeds that of the aorta
  102. Myocardial blood flow in the normal heart returns to the RA vis the?
    Coronary Sinus
  103. The coronary arteries mainly fill during?
    Diastole
  104. What congential abnormality best describes the aorta arises from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery arises from the left ventricle refers to:
    D transpostion of the great vessels
  105. A pt. presents to the ER with a MI and new systolic murmur . The most common reason for the murmur is?
    Papillary muscle dysfunction
  106. A mitral vavle "e" velocity of greater than ___ ma indicte severe MR
    1.2m/sec
  107. What is considered a increase risk factor for ischemic hearat dz?
    Systemic hypertension
  108. In Marfan Syndrom  why does aortic dissection and MVP occur?
    Decreased Fibrillin
  109. Premature closure of the aortic valve on m-mode is most consistent with?
    MR
  110. MR in patients with Rheumatic mitral stenosis is most likely due to ?
    Left atrial enlargement
  111. Which cardiac chamber is most likely to be involved with metatatic tumor?
    Right Atrium
  112. When Starr-Edward prosthetic valves are located in both the mitral and aortic postions, mitral regurgitation is best detected from which window?
    Subcostal
  113. The heart reponds to increased in preload by increase in ?
    Contractitly
  114. What is the primary effect of long standing aortic regurgitation?
    Decreased ejection fraction
  115. Dp/dt measurement of MR assess what?
    LV sys function
  116. Coarctation of the aorta is associated with?
    Biscuspid Aortic valve
  117. The majority of organisms attach to the _____ side of the antrioventricualar valve?
    Atrial
  118. The pressure 1/2 time of the MV can be inaccurate when which of the following anbormalites are present?
    TS
    TR
    AS
    Aortic insuff
    Aortic insuff
  119. Rheumatic mitral stenosis with an ASD best describes?
    Lutembachers syndrom
  120. In differentiating MR and LVOT doppler tracing th following should be considered?
    MR duration is longer than LVOT outflow
  121. The tricuspid regurg murmur may increase with inspiration . This known is?
    Carvallo's sign
  122. Fine fluttering of the AMVL suggest?
    Aortic regurg
  123. A MI that extends through all the layers of the heart is known as?
    Transmural
  124. What % of patients with Marfan's syndrom have MVP?
    60-80%
  125. A CW 1/2 time (aortic) of 175 sec . This indicates what degree of aortic regurg
    Severe
  126. The most common typer of VSD?
    Membranous
  127. A shunt from a PDA will be noted from the ?
    Aorta pulmonary artery
  128. High risk patient for infiltrive endocarditis include those with?
    IV drug use
  129. A left ventricular thrombus is usally in a area of ?
    Abnorma wall motion
  130. What is the best echo techinque for revealing hibernating or stunnd myocardium?
    Dobutamine
  131. Mitral stenosis murmur?
    Diastolic rumble with an opening snap
  132. The atrial septal defect that affects the upper portion of the interatrial septum is?
    Sinus Venosus
  133. Isovolumetric timing with ECG
    • R wave contraction
    • T wave relaxation
  134. When measuring 2D measurements end diastolic is defined as?
    Onset of the QRS
  135. What CMP is caused by genetics?
    hypertrophic CMP
  136. The valve located at the ostium of the IVE is?
    Eustachian Valve
  137. A VSD defect is noted on the apical 4chamber view near the  apex. This typer of defect is referred to as an?
    Muscular VSD
  138. The left main coronary artery divides into the ?
    • LAD
    • Left cx
  139. A common ele abnormality seen in pt with a dilated CMP?
    Conduction defects

    eg.LBBB
  140. The tricuspid regurgitation murmur may increase with inspiration. This is know?
    Carvallo sign
  141. Which valve opens during ventricular systole?
    Semilurar
  142. Name 4 m-mode finding asso with Mitral Stenosis
    • Decrease e-f slope
    • Decrease E wave amplitude
    • Mult reverblant echo
    • Ant displacemnt of the PMVL
  143. Pt with severe pulmonic stenosis may have an "A" wave measurment on the pulmonic valve m-mode tracing greater than ?
    7mm
  144. By echo a medium size pericardial effusion is?
    Less than 1cm but seen ant an post

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