A&P Final

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A&P Final
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2012-12-12 19:38:48
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anatomy and physiology ONE final review
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  1. Anatomy
    The study of what things look like
  2. Physiology
    The study of the fuctions of body parts
  3. Define homeostasis
    A condition in which your body tends to stay at certain preset conditions. Your body has a set point where your body would ideally like to be and a normal range which is a range that your body will be okay within
  4. What are the three different parts of the feedback loop?
    • receptor-reads whether our body is in the normal range and gives that information to the control center
    • Control center-The brain reads the information given by the receptor and then tells the effector how to fix the problem
    • Effector-Plays out the game plan and actually fixes the problem
  5. In a positive feedback system, the response of the effector does what?
    a. enhances the original stimulus
    b. eliminates the original stimulus
    c. reverses the original stimulus
    d. does not change the original stimulus
    e. does not change the original stimulus
    Enhances the original stimulus
  6. Negative feedback
    Your body is going to correct the problem (something goes out of normal range but goes back to normal)
  7. Positive feedback
    This system only makes things worse (child birth, blood clots)
  8. Ion
    Something that has a charge
  9. Hydrophillic
    A substance that is capable of dissolving freely in water
  10. Explain how your body would heal a fracture.
    • -hematoma-your bone would begin to bleed
    • -callus formation-cartilage takes ends of broken bone and connects them with internal cartilage and then around that with external cartilage.
    • -callus ossification-cartilage turns to bone
    • -remodeling of bone-osteoclasts will get rid of external bumps on sides of the bone which takes a long time to do
  11. Explain what kind of bond a water molecule will form and its characteristics.
    The molecule will form a polar covalent bond and will share the electrons unequally. The hydrogens are losing an electron by allowing the oxygen's valence shell to use their electron, and because of this, the side that the hydrogens are on have a slightly positive charge and the other end has a slightly negative charge.
  12. How will water molecules bond together?
    Water molecules would form opposite of each other. This happens because the hydrogens lose electrons so they become slightly positive and the oxygen is then slightly negative. They turn side by side because opposites attract.
  13. Explain glycolysis. (First step of carbohydrate metabolism)
    Starts with glycolysis which occurs in the cytoplasm. We start with 6 carbon. We then go through pphosphorylation where you add phosphate to carbon. You then go through sugar cleavage where you divide it in two. Each half is called pyruvic acid. This produces 2 ATP, 2 pyruvic acid, and some NADH (its really 4 ATP but it takes two to get it started)
  14. Explain what happens after glycolysis.
    The pyruvic acid moves to the mitochondria where the citric acid cycle occurs. As the pyruvic acid travels it goes through a series of reactions where it turns into Acetyl CoA. (This is the only thing that can go through the citric acid cycle) Through this process we creat 2 more ATP, 8 NADH, and 2 FADH2.
  15. Explain what happens after the citric acid cycle
    We then take the hydrogen off of the NADH and are left with a very high energy electron. The electron goes through a series of doors where the mitochondria slowly steals away its energy in the electron transport chain. We are left with a very sluggish electron where oxygen is the final electron acceptor.
  16. How many ATP do we make in the electron transport chain?
    30-34
  17. How many ATP total do we end up with at the end of carbohydrate metabolism
    34-38 ATP
  18. What is it called where you breakdown pyruvic acid in the absence of oxygen?
    Anaerobic fermentation
  19. Definition of a cell
    The basic unit of life
  20. Definition of metabolism
    The sum of all reactions in your body
  21. Definition of differentiation
    When cells are specialized for certain parts of our body
  22. The life process by which a hemocytoblast (unspeciallized stem cell) matures into a red blood cell is called:
    A. metabolism
    B. differentiation
    C. movement
    D. reproduction
    E. growth
    B. differentiation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. All of the following are lipids EXCEPT:
    A. triglycerides
    B. enxymes
    C. cholesterol
    D. phospolipids
    E. estrogen
    B. enzymes
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. The normal PH of the blood is 7.35-7.45. This makes blood
    A. alkaline
    B. neutral
    C. acidic
    A. alkaline
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. Which of the following is true of phospholipids:
    a. are both hydrophilic and hydrophobic
    b. contain fatty acid tails
    c. form a bilayer around the outside of cells
    d. all of the above
    d. all of the above
  26. Which of the following organs is NOT in the abdominal cavity?
    A. small intestines
    B. ovaries
    C. liver
    D. stomach
    B. Ovaries
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. Which of the following is true of catabolism
    A. breaking large molecules into small ones
    B. lost a proton
    C. either a or d
    D. building large molecules from small ones
    E. gained a proton
    A. breaking large molecules into small ones
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. A CL- has:
    A. gained an electron
    B. lost an electron
    C. lost a proton
    D. either a or d
    E. gained a proton
    A. gained an electron
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Which of the following is true of proteins folding into its secondary structure:
    A. folding driven by the phosphate group
    B. unique linear sequence of amino acids
    C. generates helixes and pleated sheets
    D. folding driven by H bonds
    E. b & d only
    E. b & d only-it generates helixes and pleated sheets and folding is driven by H bonds
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. The process of making ATP from glucose in the presence of oxygen is called:
    A. gluconeogenesis
    B. glycogenolysis
    C. anaerobic fermentation
    D. aerobic respiration
    D. aerobic respiration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. This type of membrane covers the outside of the organ itself.
    A. serous membrane
    B. both parietal and visceral
    C. parietal membrane
    D. both visceral and serous
    E. visceral membrane
    D. Both visceral and serous
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Which of the following is not true about nonpolar covalent bonds?
    A. share electrons equally
    B. an example is Methane
    C. dissolve in water
    d. all of the above are true
    C. dissolve in water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  33. A substance that is capable of dissolving freely in water is:
    A. hydrophillic
    B. b & c
    C. hydrophobic
    D. hydrated
    e. all of the above
    A. hydrophillic
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. __________ are not used as fuels and are required in relatively small quantities:
    A. micronutrients
    B. proteins
    C. essential nutrients
    D. macronutrients
    A. micronutrients
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. When is NADH broken down into NAD?
    A. anaerobic fermentation
    B. glycolysis
    C. citric acid cycle
    D. electron transport chain
    D. electron transport chain
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. What is a polysaccharide that is stored in the liver called?
    glycogen
  37. The pH scale is measuring the concentration of what?
    hydrogen
  38. _________ is anything that has weight and takes up space.
    Matter
  39. During a marrathon, Dan's cells began to run out of oxygen. The pyruvate that his cells are forming will be converted into ______________?
    Lactic acid
  40. The outermost shell (orbit) of electrons around the nucleus is referred to as the what?
    Valence shell
  41. What occurs in the ribosome?
    protein synthesis takes place
  42. What occurs in the golgi apparatus?
    Packages proteins to be shipped out of the cell
  43. What occurs in the mitochondria?
    ATP is made here
  44. What is located in the nucleus?
    Contains DNA
  45. What occurs in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
    Lipid synthesis
  46. What is the plasma membrane responsible for?
    Regulates movement in and out of the cell
  47. What is responsible for destroying bacteria and cellular debris?
    lysosomes
  48. What is the job of the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
    Folds proteins
  49. What is the structure that neutralizes free radicals in the body?
    peroxisomes
  50. The plasma membrane consists of:
    A. carbohydrates and lipids
    B. cholesterol and carbohydrates
    C. phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol
    D. only phospholipids
    E. mostly proteins
    C. phospholipids, proteins, and cholesterol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  51. The plasma membrane is _________ ___________.
    Selectively permeable
  52. A red blood cell placed in a hypertonic solution
    A. gains water
    B. loses water
    C. neither gains nor loses water
    B. loses water
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  53. Certain white blood cells can destroy bacteria by a process that engulfs the bacteria
    A. pinocytosis
    B. phagocytosis
    C. transcytosis
    D. exocytosis
    B. phagocytosis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  54. When a ribosome reads a codon on mRNA, it must bind to the _____ of a corresponding tRNA
    A. intron
    B. start codon
    C. anticodon
    D. stop codon
    C. anticodon
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  55. A semipermeable membrane, which permits water movement, but not ion movement, separates two solutions. Solution A contains 0.9% NaCl and solution B contains 9.0 % NaCl. With respect to this system, which of the following statements would be true?
    A. water would move from solution B to solution A
    B. no net movement of water or ions would occur
    C. NA+ would move from solution A to solution B
    D. NA+ would move from solution B to solution A
    E. water would move from solution A to solution B
    E. water would move from solution A to solution B
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  56. The molecule responsible for separating DNA helix is known as:
    A. DNA replicase
    B. DNA helicase
    C. DNA lipase
    D. DNA polymerase
    B. DNA helicase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  57. Which structure increases the surface area of a cell in the digestive system?
    A. flagellum
    B. microfilaments
    C. microvilli
    D. cilia
    C. microvilli
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  58. The type of RNA that is the copy of a gene segment of DNA is:
    A. tRNA
    B. mRNA
    C. rRNA
    B. mRNA
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  59. Which of the following is true for cell membranes:
    A. selectively permeable
    B. contain phospholipids
    C. contain proteins
    D. selectively permeable AND contains phospholipids
    E. Selectively permeable, contains phospholipids, AND contains proteins
    E. Selectively permeable, contains phospholipids, AND contains proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  60. Which of the following is true about passive movement:
    A. it moves from higher concentration to lower concentration
    B. it moves from a lower concentration to a higher concentration and it releases energy
    C. it moves from lower concentration to higher concentration
    D. It moves from a higher concentration to a lower concentration and it releases energy
    E. it releases energy
    D. it moves from a higher concentration to a lower concentration and it releases energy
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  61. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the plasma membrane?
    A. hydrophobic phosphate heads
    B. bilayer composed of phospholipids
    C. selectively permeaable
    D. contain protein channels
    e. all of the above are true
    A. hydrophobic phosphate heads
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  62. Which of the following will move out of the capillary by simple diffusion INTO the cell tissue
    A. sodium
    B. carbon dioxide
    C. oxygen
    D. a and c
    C. oxygen
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  63. The phospholipids in a plasma membrane move across one another and can separate. This is referred to as what?
    fluid mosaic theory
  64. Which organelle has their own DNA?
    mitochondria
  65. What are hair like structures that help in movement?
    cilia
  66. What structure on the plasma membrane increases surface area?
    microvilli
  67. What structure on the plasma membrane is a tail that helps in movement?
    flagellum
  68. What are the two wways that things can move in and out of the cell?
    through the plasma membrane or through a door such as a protein channel
  69. Passive transport
    • Goes from a higher concentration to a lower concentration
    • Releases energy as it goes from high to low
  70. Active transport
    • Lower concentration to higher concentration
    • We have to make energy and use it
  71. Simple diffusion (passive transport)
    • Through the phospholipid bilayer
    • Goes through the membrane
  72. What are the items that can pass through the plasma membrane?
    • Carbon dioxide
    • oxygen
    • small lipids/water
  73. Facilitated transport (passive transport)
    Everything that is too big to go through the membrane go through protein channels
  74. Osmosis (passive transport)
    To move water from high concentration to low concentration
  75. Isotonic solutions
    Stuff in the cell and in the solution are the same
  76. hypertonic solution
    When stuff in cell has more stuff than solution
  77. Hypotonic solution
    When stuff in the solution has more stuff than in the cell
  78. Describe the process of protein synthesis. (Essay)
    There are two parts of protein synthesis, transcription (making of mRNA) and translation (making of a protein). Thranscription has RNA polymerase come into the nucleus, find the specific gene that we are looking for and make a copy of it and create mRNA. In translation, the mRNA leaves the nucleus and moves to the active portion of the ribosome. The ribosome must read the start codon (AUG) in order to start protein synthesis. tRNA then has to come down and is the anticodon or pair for that codon (tRNA comes from the food we eat, so if we are not eating all of our amino acids, we won't have tRNA). After tRNA pairs with the codon it becomes a true amino acid where it moves to the passive site. The next codon comes in and does the same thing, along with the next. Protein synthesis stops when the active site of the ribosome reads the stop codon, which does not have an anticodon, or tRNA pair. The true amino acids then leave the ribosome from the passive site and goes to whatever part of the body needs that protein.
  79. Explain deep wound healing
    First a scab or blood clot would form. Then basophils will come in and release hystemine in order to start the inflammation process (make the blood vessels bigger and walls of capillaries more permeable so more blood and more white blood cells can come in) Then the neutrophils will come in and eat any bacteria in the wound and they die as they eat the bacteria. Macrofages then come in and get rid of anything else that should not be in the wound, including the dead neutrophils. Then fibroblasts come in and fill the remainder of the dermis to the epidermis. Then the stratum basale will break free and begin to move toward the middle until they touch and have contact inhibition. The contact inhibition will trigger the cells to go through mitosis and all the rest of the epidermis
  80. Describe a first degree burn
    Only the epidermis (when the skin turns bright red)
  81. Describe second degree burns
    When we blister (it has gone down into the dermis)
  82. Third degree burns
    Full thickness burns (epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous area) Burns through pain receptors.
  83. What would be the healing process for full thickness burns?
    • Put you in reverse isolation (everyone cleans up so we can't bring anything to them)
    • Leaks lots of fluid
    • Skin graphs could be done-cover the skin so that we cover wounds while they are healing in order to give body time to fill from bottom to top
  84. Periostinum
    • Part of a long bone
    • Outside surrounding cover that covers the outside of bone
  85. Articulating bone (part of a long bone)
    Hyaline cartilage makes two bones that meet come together nice and smooth
  86. Distal/proximal epiphysis (part of a long bone)
    The ends of the bone
  87. diaphysis (part of a long bone)
    • Nice long shaft that runs along bone
    • If you carve open the middle is the medullary cavity (where yellow bone marrow is)
  88. epiphyseal plate (part of a long bone)
    • Growth plate. Made of cartilage, where we get our height
    • If growth plate is big, we will still have a growth spurt
    • If growth plate is all bone, they will not grow anymore
  89. epiphyseal line (part of a long bone)
    A line means you are done growing and it is all converted to bone
  90. define absorption
    to take things back into the body
  91. define secretion
    to put things back into a duct or tube
  92. Define tissue
    When you put cells together to do a specific function
  93. Define joint
    When two bones come together
  94. Which of the following bones are classified as long bones:
    A. femur
    B. metacarpals
    C. a, b, and c
    D. a and c only
    E. tibia
    C. a, b, and c
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  95. The secondary ossification center develops:
    A. after development of the trabecule in the epiphyses
    B. at the appearance of the epiphyseal line
    C. when blood vessels enter the epiphyses
    D. during intramembranous ossification
    E. simultaneously with the primary ossification center
    C. when blood vessels enter the epiphysis
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  96. A thin layer of hyaline cartilage that is found covering the region of the epiphysis that is involved in forming a joint with another bone is called
    a epiphyseal cartilage
    b. articular cartilage
    c. periosteum
    d. perichondrium
    b. articular cartilage
  97. Define pathology.
    The study of diseased tissues
  98. What substance gives bones flexibility?
    Collagen
  99. What substance gives bones its hardness?
    Calcium
  100. Spongy bone tissue contains lamellae arranged in a lattice-like network of bone referred to as what?
    trabeculae
  101. Name the four zones of the growth plate and describe what occurs in each.
    • zone of resting-cells are resting/not doing anything
    • zone of proliferation-cells stack up into nice little lines
    • zone of hypertrophy-cells get bigger and bigger until they explode
    • zone of calcification-the explosion causes a change in pH which causes ossification
  102. List the four types of bone cells and briefly describe their function.
    • osteocyte-maintains bone
    • osteoclast-Destroys bone and breaks it down to get calcium from it
    • osteoblast-builds bone from the calcium
    • osteoprogenitor cells-these are a stem cell that makes another stem cell and then an osteoblast so that we can continue to lay down bone
  103. Describe the process of endochondrial ossification.
    • -Starts with a bone that looks like a bone but is cartilage
    • 1. cartilage model is formed (shape of bone)
    • 2. (bone collar) perichondrium is formed
    • 3. a primary ossification center forms
    • 4. brings osteoblasts and lays down matrix
    • 5. blood vessels enter epiphyses and the secondary ossification centers form
    • 6. Original cartilage model is almost completely ossified. Medulliary cavity gets hollowed out. The only cartilage left is on the growth plate
    • 7. In a mature bone, the growth plate becomes ossified and is now called the epiphyseal line
  104. What is intramembraneous ossification. Example.
    Makine bone within a membrane. This is how bones of the skull are made (done growing by the age of 2)
  105. Where does the growth actually occur in long bones?
    At the epiphyseal plate. It adds new bone to the diaphysis side of the plate
  106. What is the functional unit of a compact bone?
    osteon
  107. How would the body respond to hypocalcemia?
    Osteoclasts would break down bone in order to pull the calcium out from the bone
  108. Describe skeletal muscle
    • attached to bones
    • striated
    • multinucleated
    • nucleus lays on top of fibers
    • voluntary
    • always controlled by nerves
  109. Describe smooth muscle
    • Nonstriated
    • found in organs or blood vessels
    • involuntary
    • It is either autorhythmic or a nerve or hormone tells it to contract
    • There are two types
    • Visceral smooth (around organ/blood vessels)
    • multiunit smooth (controlled ONLY by nerves. ex. irrector pili, pupil of the eye)
  110. Describe cardiac muscle
    • Striated
    • branched
    • involuntary
    • found in the heart
    • has intercalated discs (gap junctions)
    • autorhythmic
    • has special group of cells called SA node
    • nucleus in center of cell
  111. How do muscles contract if they are autorhythmic?
    They open their own sodium doorways
  112. The ability of muscle to stretch without being damaged is referred to as what?
    extensibility
  113. The muscle fiber membrane is called
    sarcolemma
  114. The thick filament is composed of what?
    myosin
  115. Which area(s) within sarcomeres that are lost during complete muscle contraction?
    h zone
  116. The neurotransmitter involved in skeletal muscle contraction is called:
    acetlcholine
  117. The type of muscle contraction where the muscle develops tension, but does not shorten is referred to as a(n)?
    isometric contraction
  118. A second stimulation of skeletal muscle before it has time to relax is called what?
    Complete tetanus
  119. Which of the following are true of a resting muscle cell:
    A. has membrane potential AND is polarized
    B. has membrane potential
    C. is polarized
    D. more positive inside the cell than the outside
    E. has membrane potential, is polarized, AND is more positive inside the cell than the outside
    A. has membrane potential AND is polarized
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  120. The short immediate burst of energy that is used in a fight or flight reaction is from:
    phosphagen system
  121. Which of the following are true with respect to a muscle contraction
    A. myosin filaments slide over actin
    B. myosin filaments shorten
    C. actin filaments shorten
    D. actin filaments slide over myosin
    D. actin filaments slide over myosin
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  122. The vastus lateralis and the vastus medialis muscles work together to extend the knee, they are called?
    synergists
  123. The functional unit of a muscle fiber is the _____, a segment from one z disc to the next.
    sarcomere
  124. Which of the following are characteristics of skeletal muscle.
    A. many peripherally located nuclei per muscle cell
    B. spindle shaped cells
    C. may be autorhythmic
    D. forms the walls of hollow internal organs
    E. under involuntary control
    A. many peripherally located nuclei per muscle cell
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  125. The protein in the muscle fibers that stores oxygen is what?
    myoglobin
  126. During depolarization, the inside of the membrane does what?
    Becomes more positive than the outside of the membrane
  127. The difference between picking up a pencil versus picking up a 20 pound weight is:
    A. the number of times a neuron stimulates the muscle
    B. the number of times a neuron stimulates the muscle AND the number of motor units involved
    C. the number of motor units involved
    D. the use of ATP as a primary energy source
    e. all of the above
    B. the number of times a neuron stimulates the muscle AND the number of motor units involved
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  128. Slower stimulus to the muscle, your muscle has time to relax
    incomplete tetanus
  129. Jerry Jogger's 3 mile run every morning takes about 30 minutes. Which of the following sources provides most of the energy for this run?
    A. anaerobic fermentation
    B. aerobic respiration
    C. stored ATP
    D. creatine phosphate
    B. aerobic respiration
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  130. The ________ surrounds groups of 10-100 muscle fibers and separates them into bundles called _______
    perimysium, fascicles
  131. The nerve and all of the muscle fibers it attaches to is called what?
    motor unit
  132. When the myosin heads bind to actin what is formed
    a cross bridge
  133. Calcium is stored where?
    in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  134. Actin is composed of what?
    troponin, active sites, and tropomyosin
  135. To make a muscle contract more strongly, the nervous system can activate more motor units. What is this called?
    recruitment
  136. A muscle that is in a continual muscle contraction without rest is called what?
    complete tetanus
  137. What is the end product of anaerobic fermentation that causes muscle fatigue?
    lactic acid
  138. Explain muscle contraction.
    The electrical message travels down the nerve where it opens the voltage gate and allows the calcium to come in. The calcium is the trigger for ACH to go into the synaptic cleft and bind to the ligand gate which will open the first sodium doorway, and sodium will fly in. All of the other gates will then open in succession, which is action potential, which is the electrical message. The electrical message will then travel down the muscle fiber to the t-tubule which will then tell the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release its stored calcium. The calcium then binds to the troponin which triggers the active sites to show. The myosin heads will then bind to the active sites on the actin causing our muscles to contract
  139. Explain immediate energy
    It is energy for a 100m dash, lasts for 10-15 seconds/ phosphagen system-comes from muscle directly. Uses ADP and adds a phosphate group
  140. Explain short term energy.
    • Anything up to 40 seconds, anaerobic system.
    • Biproducts are lactic acid and a little ATP to extend time
  141. Explain long term energy
    Anything over 40 seconds. Uses an aerobic system (electron transport chain)
  142. cation
    positive charge (lose an electron)
  143. anion
    negative charge (gain an electron)`
  144. What does a neuron do?
    receives and transmits nervous impulses or messages to other neurons or organs
  145. Dendrite
    branchlike, brings electrical message into the body of a neuron
  146. Cell body
    middle, brain of the neuron
  147. Axon
    Takes electrical message away from the cell body. Trigger zone is located here.
  148. Trigger zone
    Where axon and dendrite meet. Where all of the electrical messages get added up to see if it meets threshold.
  149. Axon Hillock
    Dendrite that goes into an axon
  150. Initial segment of axon
    Very first section of the axon
  151. Schwann cells
    Myaline sheaths (allows electrical messages to jump quickly)
  152. Nodes of Ranvier
    Little pieces of the axon that are not covered by the myelin sheath
  153. Presynaptic end bulbs
    neurotransmitters are stored here
  154. afferent neuron
    Brings sensory information into where the spinal cord is
  155. Association neurons
    Only found in the brain and spinal cord (information highway)
  156. Efferent neurons
    Carries motor information
  157. Saltatory conduction occurs only
    A. at chemical synapses
    B. in unmylenated nerve fibers
    C. in mylenated nerve fibers
    D. in both the initial segment and axon hillock
    E. in the initial segment of an axon
    C. in mylenated nerve fibers
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  158. A reflex response accompanied by the conscious sensation of pain is possible of this type of pathway
    divergent
  159. Which of these events occurs when a person steps on a tack with the right foot?
    A. Extensor muscles contract in both thighs because of the crossed extensor reflex
    B. The left leg is extended to support the body because of the stretch reflex
    C. the flexor muscles of the right thigh contract, and the extensor muscles of the right thigh relax because of reciprocal innervation
    D. the right foot is pulled away from the tack because of the Golgi tendon reflex
    C. the flexor muscles of the right thigh contract and the extensor muscles of the right thigh relax because of reciprocal innervation
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  160. This part of the neuron summates all of the action potentials to see if it meets threshold
    A. dendrite
    B. trigger body
    C. synaptic end bulb
    D. axon
    B. trigger body
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  161. This is the space that hold cerebralspinal fluid and is where you would be tested for meningitis.
    A. epidural
    B. subarachnoid
    C. subdural
    d. none of the above
    B. subarachnoid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  162. This cranial nerve helps regulate blood pressure:
    A. accessory
    B. trigeminal
    C. glossopharyngeal
    D. hypoglossal
    C. glossopharyngeal
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  163. Which of the following are true about cholinergic neurons
    A. go to all presynaptic neurons
    B. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter
    C. go to postganglionic sympathetic neurons
    D. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter AND goes to all presynaptic neurons
    e. all of the above
    D. acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter AND goes to all presynaptic neurons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  164. These neurons go from the central nervous system to the peripheral nervous system
    A. efferent neurons
    B. association neurons
    C. efferent neurons and afferent neurons
    D. afferent neurons
    A. efferent neurons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  165. This type of neuron is found in the special senses.
    A. multipolar
    B. unipolar
    C. bipolar
    d. all of the above
    C. bipolar
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  166. This tract is used for two point discrimination.
    A. ascending
    B. posterior column
    C. spinalthalmic
    D. ascending and posterior column
    E. spinalthalmic and posterior column
    B. ascending and posterior column
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  167. The part of the nervous system that controls smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and the glands is the
    A. skeletal division
    B. somatic nervous system
    C. autonomic nervous system
    D. sensory division
    C. autonomic nervous system
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  168. Which of the following is part of the diencephalon
    A. hypothalamus
    B. pineal
    C. pituitary
    D. pineal and hypothalamus
    E. pineal and hypothalamus and pituitart
    D. pineal and hypothalamus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  169. neurons receive incoming signals by way of specialized extensions of the cell called
    A. axons
    B. synapses
    C. myelin sheaths
    D. dendrites
    D. dendrites
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  170. The different charge between the outside and the inside of a neuron at rest is called:
    A. action potential
    B. excitatory postsynaptic potential
    C. resting membrane potential
    D. synaptic potential
    C. resting membrane potential
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  171. The innermost layer of the meninges is the
    A. arachnoid mater
    B. pia mater
    C. subdural layer
    D. dura mater
    B. pia mater
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  172. Which of the following is true concerning the adrenal gland?
    A. the parasympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to release acetylcholine
    B. the parasympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to release epinephrine
    C. the sympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to release scetylcholine
    D. the sympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to release epinephrine
    D. the sympathetic division stimulates the adrenal gland to release epinephrine
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  173. Which of the following is NOT a connective tissue covering associated with nerves?
    A. epineurium
    B. endoneurium
    C. endomysium
    D. all are coverings of nerves
    E. perineurium
    C. endomysium
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  174. Because of a brain lesion, a certain patient never feels full, but eats so excessively that she now weighs 600lbs. The lesions most likely in her
    A. thalamus
    B. hypothalamus
    C. pons
    D. medulla
    B. hypothalamus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  175. Damage to the ________ nerve could result in defects of eye movement.
    A. trigeminal
    B. facial
    C. vagus
    D. optic
    E. abducens
    E. abducens
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  176. What does a neuron have to have in order to send electrical messages?
    Have membrane potential and sodium doorways
  177. Central nervous system
    Association neurons/ brain and spinal cord
  178. Peripheral nervous system
    Efferent and afferent neurons, outside of the brain and spinal cord
  179. Somatic nervous system
    Voluntary (skeletal muscle
  180. Autonomic nervous system
    no control over it, breathing diegestion, heart beat, blood pressure, automatic
  181. What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?
    Sympathetic vs. parasympathetic
  182. Sympathetic nervous system
    • fight or flight
    • Everything speeds up
    • Has chain ganglia
    • Info comes from T1-L2
    • Preganglionic-short
    • Postganglionic-long
  183. Parasympathetic nervous system
    • Body at rest
    • no chain ganglia
    • info comes from the brain stem or sacral area
    • preganglionic is long
    • postganglionic is short
  184. What are the neuroglia cells
    • Astrocyte
    • microglial cells
    • ependymal cells
    • oligodendendrocyte cells
    • schwann cells
    • satellite cells
  185. Astrocyte cells
    • Blood brain barrier
    • CNS
    • all blood that goes to brain gets looked over by astrocyte to make sure its okay to go to brain
  186. Microglial cells
    • CNS
    • does phagocytosis
  187. Ependymal cells
    • CNS
    • makes cerebral spinal fluid
  188. Oligodendrocyte
    • CNS
    • cell that makes myelin sheath around axon
  189. Schwann cell
    • PNS
    • cell that makes myelin sheath around axon
  190. Satellite cells
    • Wraps around cell bodies to keep them in one place
    • In both PNS and CNS
    • (like garbage bags around a balloon)
  191. Dura mater
    Outter most layer of the meninges
  192. Arachnoid
    middle of meninges. looks like a spider web
  193. pia mater
    Actually touches. Inner most layer
  194. Epidural space
    Between vertebrae and dura mater
  195. Subdural space
    Below the dura mater
  196. Subarachnoid
    • under arachnoid area
    • Has cerebrospinal fluid in it
  197. What are the five parts of the reflex arc?
    • sensory receptor-reports data
    • sensory neuron-brings info in
    • interneuron-processes the info (in spinal cord)
    • efferent neuron-sends info out
    • effector organ-does the work
  198. Stretch reflex
    Your receptor is in muscle fiber itself and it detects stretch and will contract if it is overstretched
  199. Gogli tendon reflex
    special receptors in tendon and monitors so that the tendon stays attached to the bone. prevents you from tearing muscle off bone
  200. Withdrawal reflex
    When you touch a hot stove, you automatically pull away
  201. Reciprocal innovation
    Whichever muscle is contracting to pull away, the opposite will automatically relax
  202. Crossed extensor reflex
    if you step on a tac with your right foot, your left leg will automatically hold you up
  203. Releasing hormone
    • hypothalamus
    • secretes a hormone to make pituitary gland work
  204. Inhibitory hormone
    • secretes a hormone to make pituitary gland stop working.
    • hypothalamus
  205. Oxytocin
    • hypothalamus--->posterior pituitary
    • puts woman into labor
  206. Anti-diuretic hormone (ADH bitch)
    • makes peopole retain water within the body
    • regulates blood pressure
    • hypothalamus--->posterior pituitary
  207. Growth hormone
    • grows tissues and cells
    • anterior pituitary
  208. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
    • anterior pituitary
    • goes to thyroid and tells it to work
  209. leutenizing hormone (LH)
    • anterior pituitary
    • triggers a woman to ovulate
  210. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
    • anterior pituitary
    • matures sperm and egg
  211. Adrenatorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
    • Goes to outside portion of adrenal gland to release its hormone
    • anterior pituitary
  212. Prolactin (hormone)
    • anterior pituitary
    • helps women in formulating milk
  213. Which part of the phospholipid is hydrophillic and which is hydrophobic?
    • fatty acid tails-hydrophobic
    • phosphate group-hydrophillic
  214. What are the properties of a nerve connecting to another nerve?
    • multiple connection points
    • Connections are only at dendrites
    • positive AND negative doorways
    • open a couple doors and it will stop (local potential)

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