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2012-12-14 15:59:54

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  1. The purpose for drug standards
    Drug standards regulate drug manufacture so that medications of the same name will be of the same: strength, purity, and quality.
  2. 2. Know the provisions of the 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act (Read page 4)
    • Establish consumer protection in the manufacture of drugs and food
    • Required all drugs meet the standard strength, purity, and quality
    • Demanded all drugs preparation containing dangerous ingredients have a labeled container indicating the ingredient
    • Established two references approved drugs:
    • USP - United States Pharmacopea
    • NF – National Formulary
    • Testing all drugs before realease to the market
    • Inspecting plant where food, drugs, cosmetics are made
    • Reviewing drug application and petition
    • Investigating/removing unsafe drugs
    • Ensuring proper labeling
    • The Food and Drug Administration was created to:
    • All of the above
  3. 3. Know the provisions of the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (see and read page 5)
    • All drugs must have accurate labels of active and inactive ingredients
    • All drugs must be approved by FDA
    • “Warning” label must show such as “may cause drowsiness”; ”may cause nervousness”
    • Labeled with the legend “Caution – Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”
    • Prescription/Nonprescription drugs must effective and safe
  4. 4. What does the term “legend” drugs refer to?
    • Drugs determined unsafe for over-the-counter purchase because of possible harmful side effects if taken indiscriminately
    • Drugs that must carry the legend “Caution—federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription.”
  5. 5. What is a DEA number? Who must obtain one?
    • Registration with the Drug Enforcement Agency. Prescription for a controlled substance.
    • The provider writing the prescription
  6. 6. What are orphan drugs?
    Drug used to treat a disease that affects only a small number of people
  7. 8. What is a generic drug (see pages 14 and 15)?
    General, common or nonproprietary name of a drug
  8. 9. What is a trade name drug (see pages 14 and 15)?
    • Name by which the pharmaceutical company identifies its product, is copyrighted, and used exclusively by that company with a capitalized first letter
    • Name by which the pharmaceutical company identifies its product; brand name
  9. 10. What is referred to as the official name (see pages 14)
    • The name of the drug as it appears in the official reference, the USP/NF, and which generally is the same as the generic name
  10. 11. What does Tylenol #3 mean (see page 15)?
    The product contains 300 mg of acetaminophen with 30 mg of codeine.
  11. 12. What are “over the counter” drugs (see page 17)?
    Medication available without a prescription
  12. 13. What are “controlled” substances (see page 17)
    Drug controlled by prescription requirement because of the danger of addiction or abuse
  13. 14. What information is generally included on a drug card (see page 22)?
    Generic name, trade name, action, side effects, special instructions for administration.
  14. 15. Define Ototoxicity.
    • Damage of the eight cranial nerve resulting in impaired hearing or ringing the ears (tinnitus); adverse reaction to certain drugs
    • Damage to the eighth cranial nerve, resulting in impaired hearing or ringing in the ears
  15. 16. Define adverse reactions and side effects (see page 18).
    A list of possible unpleasant or dangerous secondary effects, other than the desired effect
  16. 17. Define drug actions (see page 18).
    When introduced into the body, all drugs cause cellular changes
  17. 18. Define contraindications (see page 18).
    Condition or circumstance that indicates that a drug should not be given
  18. 19. Define cautions (see page 18).
    • Conditions or types of patients that warrant closer observation for specific side effects when given a drug
    • Precautions; stapes to prevent errors
  19. 20. Define the term pharmacology (see Glossary).
    • The study of drugs and their origin, nature, properties, and effects on living organisms
    • The study of drugs and their origin, nature, properties and effects on living organism
  20. 21.What is meant by the term indications, (see page 18).
    • Medical conditions or diseases for which a drug is intended to be used are referred to as:
    • List of conditions for which a drug is meant to be used
  21. 22. Define the term interactions, see page 18).
    • Drugs or foods that may alter the effect of a drug and are not to be given during the same course of therapy are:
    • Actions that occur when two or more drugs are combined, when drugsare combined with certain foods
  22. 23. What are synthetic drugs ( see page 28).
    • Prepared in the laboratory by artificial means
    • The most actively pursued source of new drugs today
  23. 24. Describe “effects of drugs”, (see page 29).
    Physiological changes that occur in response to drugs
  24. 25. Describe “toxic dose” (see page 36).
    Amount of a drug that will produce harmful side effects or symptoms of poisoning is called:
  25. 26. Define “lethal dose” (see page 36).
    A dose that causes death
  26. 31. Describe the purpose of Recombinant DNA technology (see pg. 28).
    Recombinant DNA technology is used to produce which of the following medications: all of the above
  27. 33. Define sublingual.
    • Under the tongue 
    • Method of drug delivery by absorption through the mucosa under the tongue is called a(n):
  28. 34. Define solution (see page 47).
    A liquid drug form in which the drug is totally evenly dissolved is called a(n):
  29. 35. Define time-release capsule ( see page 46).
    Capsules containing small pallets that are dissolved over a prolonged period of time
  30. 36. Define intramuscular (see pg. 48).
    • Injected into the muscles
    • Which method of injection is characterized by placing the needle 1-1/2 to 2 inches beneath the skin? Intramuscular
  31. 37. Define intradermal (see pg. 50).
    • Injected into the layer of the screen
    • The needle and syringe are positioned at a 15-degree angle from the skin for ____ injections.
  32. 38. Define liniment (see pg. 51).
    preparation for external use that is rubbed on the skin as a counterirritant
  33. 39. Describe eye, ear, nose drops (gtt) (see pg. 52).
    Drugs in sterile liquids to be applied by drops
  34. 40. Define medicine cup (see pg. 54).
    Disposable cups
  35. 41. Define “standard hypodermic syringe” (see pg. 56).
    A sterile hypodermic syringe with a capacity of 2-3 mL marked with 10 calibrations per mL
  36. 42. Define “TB syringe” (see pg. 56)
    A syringe with a total capacity of 1 mL with 100 calibrations is a(n):
  37. 43. Define “oral syringe” (see pg. 57)
    A nonsterile syringe utilized to measure oral liquid medications is a(n):
  38. 44. What does MDI stand for (see pg. 54)?
    • Metered Dose Inhaler
    • An MDI is used to deliver medication by inhalation
  39. 45. Who may take a telephone order (see pg. 63)?
    Registered nurses (RN)
  40. 46. What is the preferred measurement system (see pg. 67)?
    Metric system
  41. 47. What is the correct conversion for 75 Kg? 
    165 pounds
  42. 48. Convert 80 Kg to pounds (176 lbs) The value is obtained by using a multiplication factor of 2.2.
    176 pounds
  43. 50. What considerations should you observe when explaining drug preparation to elderly patients?
    all of the above
  44. 51. Which sequence is the BEST method for calculating the correct dosage when necessary?
    Check whether all measurements are in the same system, write the equation, and check for accuracy
  45. 52. What is an important consideration to keep in mind when calculating dosages (See pg. 78)?
    take extra care with decimals.
  46. 53. What is required to ensure safe and accurate administration of medications (see pg 84, 90 and  
    adequate, up-to-date information, including purpose and potential side effects.
  47. 54. What was the FDA’s purpose in issuing a form in 1993 (see pg. 98).
    • Voluntary reporting
    • Monitor drug safety
  48. 55. How do the guidelines for administering medications via an NG tube and a gastric tube differ
    The guidelines for administering medications via a gastric tube are the same as for an NG tube EXCEPT:  it is not necessary to aspirate or use a stethoscope to check for placement.
  49. 56. Review the preparation of liquid medication guidelines (see pg. 107).
    • When preparing liquids for oral administration, the medicine cup should be held in what position for measuring? Level and with the miniscus at eye level
    • When administering a liquid medication to a person who is unable to drink from a cup, it may be necessary to: use a syringe
    • Which is the route of choice for administering medications to a child under 5 years of age? Oral liquid
    • When administering a liquid medication to a person who is unable to drink from a cup, it may be necessary to: use a syringe
    • When preparing liquids for oral administration, the medicine cup should be held in what position for measuring? Level and with the miniscus at eye level
    • it is inappropriate to use tableware to measure medications.
  50. 58. Define “systemic effects” (see pg. 118).
    • Are those affecting the whole body, the entire system
    • When medication reaches widespread areas of the body
  51. 59. Review the differences between sublingual and buccal administration (see pg. 118).
    • Sublingual - Method of drug delivery by absorption through the mucosa under the tongue.
    • Buccal - A tablet that is absorbed in the mouth between the cheek and gums is called a(n):
  52. 60. Review the guidelines for special handling for nitroglycerin ointment application (see pg. 119).
    Nitroglycerin ointment application requires what special handling and for what reason? All of the above
  53. 61. Review advantages and disadvantages of inhalation therapy (see pg. 120 – 122).
    • Which statement is TRUE regarding inhalation therapy? Does not require patient’s cooperation
    • Which is NOT an advantage of inhalation therapy? Does not require patient’s cooperation
  54. 62. Review patient education guidelines on how to use a MDI (see pg. 122).
    All of the above
  55. 63. Review the advantages of using dry powdered inhalers (DPIs) (see pg. 1123).
    A DPI may be advantageous for use in: all of the aBOVE
  56. 64. Review guidelines on safeguards to observe when using IPPB (see pg. 124).
     Observe for nausea or distended abdomen.
  57. 65. Review the insulin syringe(U-100) information (see pg. 126).
    A marking on a syringe of U-100 indicates what type of syringe? insulin
  58. 66. Define the term “poison” (see pg. 148).
    • A substance taken into the body by ingestion, inhalation, injection, or absorption that interferes with normal physiological functions is a(n):
  59. 67. Define antidotes (see pg. 150).
    Treatment used to counteract a harmful substance
  60. 68. What is the purpose for administering activated charcoal (see pg. 150)?
    minimize systemic absorption of the ingested poison.
  61. 69. Review age groups more at risk for poisoning ( see pgs 151 – 152).
    • i. young children
    • iv. older adult
    • i, iv
  62. 70. Review treatment guidelines for poisoning by inhalation (see pg. 150).
    Treatment of poisoning by inhalation requires: symptomatic treatment – fresh air, oxygen,CPR
  63. 72. Review section on vitamin (pgs. 170 -172).
    Print 14-15 quiz 11 study
  64. 74. Review section on Antpruritics ( pg. 194 -195).
    • Application of topical antipruritics includes: cleansing the area thoroughly before application, and rubbing the medication in gently until it vanishes.
    • Common side effects of antipruritics include: all of the above
  65. 75. Review section on Corticosteroids (p. 195)
    • A common side effect of corticosteroids is: skin tears and/or bruising
    • Cushing’s syndrome may be brought on by the prolonged use of: corticosteroids.
    • Side effects from topical application of corticosteroids include:  ulceration.
    • Contraindications for the topical application of corticosteroids include: skin infections, bacterial or fungal, and cutaneous or systemic viral infections.
  66. 79. Review information on Chlorhexidine (see p. 205).
    Precautions related to the use of Chlorhexidine solution DO NOT include which of the following? May be used as an alternative cleanser in patients allergic to Povidone-iodine.
  67. 80. Review the information on : Adrenergics (e.g. definition, its purpose, side effects, etc.)
    Adrenergics may be used to: restore cardiac rhythm, treat hypotension, and dilate bronchioles in respiratory distress.
  68. Review information on Tamoxifen.
    Which of the following is true of Tamoxifen? ALL OF THE ABOVE
  69. Review information on monoclonal antibiotics.
    By what route are monoclonal antibodies administered? Intravenously
  70. Review information on Antiandrogen hormonal therapies
    Antiandrogen hormonal therapies are used to treat: PROSTATE CANCER
  71. Active immunotherapies
    Active immunotherapies are given to: stimulate the body’s immune system.
  72. Bone marrow suppression
    Bone marrow suppression is a side effect that may result from several types of chemotherapy agents.  Which of the following is NOT an indicator of bone marrow suppression? Nausea
  73. The classification of diuretics whose side effects may include hyperglycemia and increased uric acid
  74. Class of diuretics most often the treatment of choice in patients with cirrhosis?
    Potassium-sparing diuretics
  75. The classification of diuretics whose interactions may occur with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), salicylates, and NSAIDs to cause hyperkalemia
    potassium-sparing diuretics.
  76. Extreme caution is indicated when this diuretic class is used in patients with heart failure or active intracranial bleeding is:
    osmotic agents
  77. Example of a desirable interaction with probenecid (Benemid) would be:
  78. What medications are generally used to treat gout?
    All of the above
  79. Patient education for treatment with thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), should include what?
    • “Take with food.”
  80. Patient education for treatment with potassium-sparing diuretics, such as spironolactone (Aldactone), should include what?
    “Avoid potassium-rich foods and salt substitutes.”
  81. Patient education for treatment with antispasmodics, such as Ditropan (oxybutynin), should include what?
    “Use caution when driving or operating machinery.”
  82. Drugs that act by reducing gastric acid secretion are what?
    antiulcer preparations
  83. Contraindications  most applicable to antacid preparations?
    Congestive heart failure, history of renal calculi, and cirrhosis
  84. What are some side effects of stool softeners?
    occasional mild, transitory GI cramping
  85. Saline laxative use may result in the what side effects?
    Electrolyte imbalance and edema
  86. Contraindications of the use of saline laxatives include what?
    congestive heart failure
  87. Contraindications of the use of stimulant laxatives include what?
    Abdominal pain/cramp/ulcerative colitis/children,pregnancy,lactation/long-tern use
  88. What should you include in the education for patients undergoing treatment of diarrhea?
    • Avoid self-med longer 48 hrs
    • Adequate fluid
    • Contact physician if complication develop
    • Do not use bismuth
  89. What should Patients taking antidiarrhea agents be instructed on?
    • Avoid self-med longer 48 hrs
    • Adequate fluid
    • Contact physician if complication develop
    • Do not use bismuth
  90. What should patients taking antiflatulent agents be instruction on?
    Avoid gas-forming foods ex: onions, cabbage, beans
  91. The use of serotonin receptor antagonists may result in what side effects?
    All of the above
  92. Describe drug antagonism
    • The opposing action of two drugs in which one decreases
    • or cancel out the effect of the other
  93. B-complex vitamins are found mostly in which group of foods?
    Leafy and green vegetables (broccoli), avocado, beets, orange juice, kidney beans, and organ meats
  94. Vitamin A is necessary for: 
    resistance to infection, night vision, bone and soft tissue growth, and healing of wounds.
  95. Identify the vitamin necessary for maintenance of normal nerves and muscles and regulating the absorption and metabolism of calcium and phosphorus.
  96. Thiamine is essential for what function?
    Normal function of the nervous and cardiovascular systems
  97. Side effects of excessive doses of this vitamin cause irritability, lethargy, headache, joint pain, and jaundice.
  98. Side effects of excessive doses of this vitamin cause kidney stones, kidney damage, muscle and bone pain, nausea, and anorexia.
  99. Side effects of large doses of this vitamin cause neuropathy.
  100. Functions of iron (Fe) in the body include:
    hemoglobin formation.
  101. Functions of zinc (Zn) in the body include:
    wound healing and mineralization of bone.
  102. Supplements of vitamin A may be necessary for which conditions?
    Infants fed unfortified skim milk or mild substitute formulas
  103. Supplements of Vitamin E may be necessary for which conditions?
    Malabsorption syndromes, for example, celiac disease, sprue, and cystic fibrosis
  104. Supplements of Vitamin B12 may be necessary for which conditions?
    Treatment for pernicious anemia
  105. Supplements of Vitamin D supplements are prescribed for which conditions?
    To prevent or treat rickets or osteomalacia
  106. Supplements of Niacin may be recommended for the following conditions.
    Vascular disorders, such as Raynaud’s disease, and to lower blood lipid levels
  107. The role of antioxidants is:
    inhibition of cellular destruction in damaged or aging tissues.
  108. Which supplement may be more likely to cause toxicity when overdosed?
    Fat-soluble vitamins
  109. Which of the following would be the best source of Vitamin D?
    Fish oils
  110. In addition to night blindness, Vitamin A deficiencies may be observed as which condition?
  111. Potassium is essential for which of the following functions?
    Cardiac regulation
  112. Which of the following preparations delivers the highest amount of elemental calcium per tablet?
    Calcium Carbonate