Embalming Discussions

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studytaz
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189650
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Embalming Discussions
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2012-12-16 15:50:36
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Embalming Discussions Exam 1
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  1. What is the process of chemically treatiing the dead human body to reduce the growth of microorganisms, to retard decomposition, and to restore an acceptable physical appearance called?
    Embalming
  2. What is the primary purpose for embalming?
    disinfection
  3. What is the secondary purpose for embalming?
    preservation
  4. What is the tertiary (final) purpose for embalming?
    restoration
  5. What is the destruction or inhibition of pathogenic organisms in or on the body?
    Disinfection
  6. What is the science of treating the body chemically to temporarily inhibit decomposition?
    Preservation
  7. Families and friends beleive this to be the primary purpose of embalming?
    Preservation
  8. What is the care given the deceased to recreate natural form and color?
    Restoration
  9. To give a life-like, natural appearance is called?
    Restoration
  10. This gives a favorable "memory picture"/
    restoration
  11. Creating a "life-like, natural appearance" occurs in what area of embalming a dead human body?
    restoration
  12. By covering up the suffering and death and present the deceased as being in a restful sleep, we do what?
    embalmers are creators of "illusions"
  13. A "hurry-up" attitude in embalming will most likely leave the embalmer with what result?
    an unpleasent result
  14. What are the 3 results of embalming (preperation)?
    • 1. Unpleasant
    • 2. Neutral
    • 3. Pleasant
  15. One or more phases of the procedure have been regarded as unimportant (probably as a result of a "hurry up" attitude and the body is presented in a definitely unnatural and unfavorable appearance describes which result of embalming?
    Unpleasant
  16. If there are no outstanding favorable or unfavorable points, but there is something lacking describes which result of embalming?
    neutral
  17. If all aspects of the procedure hae been closely scrutinized by the embalmer and the "picture" presented is one of peaceful rest and relaxation describes which result of embalming?
    pleasant
  18. What does Clostidium welchii cause?
    gas gangrene
  19. What does E. coli cause?
    food poisoning in the living

    tissue gas in the dead
  20. What bacterium can live for more than a day in an embalmed body?
    tubercle bacillus
  21. What embalming solution strength will kill most bacteria in about an hour?
    1%
  22. What embalming solution strength will kill most bacteria in about five minutes?
    2-3%
  23. What does the process of creating a clean, disinfected and preserved remains do?
    • 1. protects yourself against infection #1
    • 2. protect the public #2
  24. List the normal flora microorganisms we discussed.
    • 1. Clostridum welchii
    • 2. E. coli
    • 3. Tetanus bacillus
    • 4. Tetanus bacillus
  25. What is one of nature's most effective barriers to bacterial invasion?
    the Skin
  26. What compromises the skin as a barrier?
    • 1. tiny cuts
    • 2. scratches
    • 3. hang nails
    • 4. chapping
  27. What does the general public believe to be the primary purpose for embalming?
    preservation
  28. Why do autopsy cases pose additional risks of infection for embalmers?
    • 1. exposed broken or cut bones are very sharp
    • 2. added suturing provides more opportunity for needlesticks
  29. What are the top two reasons the danger of infection is greatest when an embalmer is busy?
    • 1. he/she is more careless
    • 2. natural resistance may be lowered by fatigue
  30. A process to promote and establish conditions which minimize or eliminate biohazards describes what?
    Sanitation
  31. The presence or the resonably anticipated presence of blood or other potentially infectious materials on an item or surface describes what?
    Contaminated
  32. What is the purpose of having moral or ethical rules for the preparation room?
    • 1. to show sacred and reverent respect for the dead
    • 2. to maintain (or return to) the high moral standards of the profession
  33. Know the list of people that should be allowed in the preparation room.
    • 1. embalmiing
    • 2. qualified assistants
    • 3. legally authorized persons
    •      a. physician
    •      b. coroner
    •      c. other health officers
    • 4. designate of the family for ID purposes
    • 5. hairdressers
    • 6. tour groups only when not in use
  34. Be familiar with the list of concerns that should be considered in exposure of the body.
    • 1. keep genitals covered at all times
    • 2. cover with sheet after embalming
    • 3. no "loose" talk
    • 4. no smoking, eating, or drinking
    • 5. never discuss the case to persons outside the preparation room
    •      a. condition of the body
    •      b. age
    •      c. deformities
    •      d. cause of death
  35. Where are the procedures for completing the requirements of the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard documented?
    a written plan called the "Written Hazard Communication Program"
  36. What will be the result when one or more phases of the embalming procedure have been regarded as unimportant?
    unpleasant
  37. An OSHA regulaiton that deals with identifying and limiting exposure to occupational hazards
    Hazard Communication Standard
  38. Resonably anticipated skin, eye, mucous membrane, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that may esult from the performance of an employee's duties defines what?
    Occupational exposure
  39. Any agent or material exposing one to risk
    Hazardous material
  40. When must an employer provide employees with information and training on hazardous chemicals?
    • 1. at the time of their initial assignment
    • 2. whenever a new hazard is introduced
  41. What was the 1988 revision of the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard called?
    Formaldehyde Rule
  42. An OSHA regulation limiting the amount of occupational exposure to formaldehyde gas defines what?
    Formaldehyde Rule
  43. An evaluation of exposure that is time-weighted over an established period defines what?
    Time-weighted average(TWA)
  44. A method of expressing low concentrations of a chemical in the air?
    Ppm
  45. Defined as the number of parts of chemical per million parts of air.
    Ppm
  46. Allows exposure levels to be averaged generally over an eight-hour time period
    Time-weighted average(TWA)
  47. 0.75 ppm over an eight hour time weighted average (TWA)
    Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
  48. the maximum legal limits established by OSHA for regulated substances
    Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
  49. What is the OSHA STEL level?
    2 ppm over a fifteen minute exposure
  50. What is the OSHA PEL level?
    0.75 ppm over an eight hour time weighted average (TWA)
  51. 2 ppm over a fifteen minute exposure
    Short term Exposure Limit
  52. legal limits established by OSHA to which workers can be exposed contimuously for a short period of time without damage or injury.
    Short term Exposure Limit (STEL)
  53. should not be repeated more than four times per workday
    Short term Exposure Limit (STEL)
  54. established to ensure adequate protection of employees at exposures below OSHA limits, but to minimize the compliance burdens employers whose employees have exposures below the 8-hour limits
    Action Level(AL)
  55. 0.5 ppm over the eight hour TWA
    Action Level(AL)
  56. the level at which monitoring is required
    Action Level (AL)
  57. what is the OSHA Action Level?
    the level at which monitoring is required
  58. The action level for OSHA formaldehyde exposure guidelines is measure over how long a time period?
    0.5 ppm over the eight hour TWA
  59. The average exposure to formaldehyde over an eight hour period is known as what?
    Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL)
  60. The PEL measures  how long a time period?
    8 hours
  61. The STEL measures how long a time period?
    15 minutes
  62. When is initial formaldehyde monitoring required?
    • 1. to identify all employees who are exposed above the action level of the STEL
    • 2. to accurately determine exposure of each employee
  63. What two things must be done in areas where the concentration exceeds any of the exposure levels?
    • 1. employee must be annually offered a Medical Disease Questionnaire for a physician's review
    • 2. Employee must report to employer with any signs or symptoms of potential overexposure
  64. Irritation of the mucosa of the eyes, nose and throat by formaldehyde occurs at or above what exposure level?
    anything above 0.1 ppm
  65. When can monitoring be discontinued?
    If the levels fall below the Action Level and STEL after two consecutive samples taken seven days apart
  66. What must be done if levels are above the action level?
    continued monitoring every six months
  67. What must be done if levels are above the STEL?
    continued monitoring every year
  68. Acute effects of ingestion (swallowing)
    causes throat irritation, highly poisonous and causes death
  69. acute effects of inhalation (breathing)
    irates upper respiratory tract with inflammation to the nose, throat and lungs
  70. acute effects of skin (dermal) contact
    causes drying, cracking, and scaling-dermatitis and skin sensitization
  71. potential cancer in human lung, nasopharynx and nasal passages
    carcinogenicity

    chronic effect
  72. may result in respiratory impairment such as asthma and bronchitis
    toxicity

    chronic effect
  73. genotoxic in several in-vitro tests showing properties of mutation
    mutagenicity

    chronic effect
  74. At what level of overexposure to formaldehyde is there an immediate danger to life or health?
    above 100 ppm
  75. How long do employers have to notify employees of the results of formaldehyde monitoring?
    within 15 days of receipt
  76. How often must monitoring occur if levels are above the Action Level?
    every six months
  77. How often must monitoring occur if levels are above the STEL?
    every year
  78. No outstanding favorable or unfavorable points to be noted on a deceased after embalming leaves an embalmer with what result?
    neutral
  79. signs and symptoms of formaldehyde over exposure
    • 1. irritation of the mucosa of the eyes, nose. and throat
    • 2. swelling of the eyelids
    • 3. respiratory disorders, coughing, shortness of breath
    • 4. allergic reactions
    • 5. frequent headaches, dizziness and drowsiness
    • 6. jaundice
    • 7. easy bruising
  80. What must be done for employees who suffer significant adverse effects from formaldehyde exposure?
    must be moved to jobs with less exposure until their condition improves
  81. How long must an employer continue to offer employee benefits to an employee who has been removed from the prep room for overexposure to formaldehyde?
    up to six months or until a physician determines that the employee will never be able to return
  82. NIOSH
    National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health
  83. What tasks require the wearing of PPE?
    • 1. embalming
    • 2. prep room housekeeping
    • 3. cleaning chemical, blood, or body fluid spills
    • 4. placing remains in or out of refrigeration
    • 5. all first call procedures
  84. What percentage embalming solution requires the wearing of goggles and a face shield?
    1% or greater
  85. How long must medical surveillance records be kept?
    30 years following termination
  86. How long must OSHA training records be kept?
    3 years
  87. How long must respirator fit records be kept?
    until updated (yearly)
  88. How long must the records on formaldehyde monitoring results be kept?
    30 years
  89. How many days apart must formaldehyde monitoring occur in order to possibly discontinue monitoring?
    7 days
  90. Concerning preparation room housekeeping, written procedures for what activities must be in place?
    • 1. spill cleanup
    • 2. decontamination of the work area
    • 3. proper disposal of contaminated waste
    • 4. emergency response procedures concerning overexposure to formaldehyde
  91. Category I exposure risk
    • tasks that include exposure to blood, body fluids, or tissue
    •    embalmers
    •    apprentice embalmers
    •    removal/first call personnel
  92. Category II exposure risk
    • no expoure to blood, body fluids or tissue, but employment may require performing unplanned category I tasks
    •     funeral directors
    •     apprentice funeral directors
    •     funeral assistants
    •     housekeeping personnel
    •     hairstylist/cosmetologist
  93. Category III exposure risk
    • no exposure to blood, body fluids or tissue, and category I tasks are not a condition of employment
    •     administrative staff
    •     clerical support
  94. What is the number one rule in the preparation room?
    protect yourself against infection
  95. How often does the written bloodborne pathogen plan have to be reviewed and updated?
    annually or when new exposures occur
  96. Know what activities are considered a bloodborne pathogen exposure incident.
    • eye
    • mouth
    • non-intact skin
    • other mucous menbrane
    • Parenteral contact
  97. introduction into the body by peircing the mucous membranes or the skin border through such events as needlesticks, human bites, cuts and abrasions define what?
    Parenteral contact
  98. How many days does an employer have to offer the hepatitis B vaccine?
    within 10 days of initial assignment
  99. What employees do NOT have to be offered a hepatitis B vaccine?
    • 1. employees who have already completed vaccination series
    • 2. when immunity is confirmed through antibody testing
    • 3. when vaccination is contraindicated for medical reasons
  100. An employee who chooses not to take the hepatitis B vaccine must do what?
    sign a declination form
  101. What are the colors of the "BIOHAZARD' label?
    fluorescent orange or orange-red with contrasting color lettering
  102. What objects require a biohazard label?
    • 1. containers of regulated waste
    • 2. refrigerators or freezers containing blood
    • 3. any other containers used to store, transport or ship blood or OPIM
  103. all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as if to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other bloodborne pathogens
    Universal precautions
  104. any item sharp enough to cause percutaneous injury or penetrationof unbroken skin
    Sharps
  105. any biological agent or condition that constitutes a hazard to humans
    Biohazard
  106. a drainage procedure that limits the exposure of the embalmer to drainage in which tubing is attached to a drain tube allowing drainage to flow directly from the vein into a sannitary disposal system
    Closed drainage system

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