UH 60

Card Set Information

UH 60
2012-12-22 23:52:01

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  1. What formations are considered fixed formations; maneuvering formations?
  2. Define Lift, Serial, Chalk and Load.
  3. What considerations and procedures should be used in formation turns?
  4. Horizontal separation of aircraft within formations is expressed in rotor diameters and is defined how?
  5. How does terrain affect the type of formation separation used?
  6. What weight class is a UH-60 and what does that indicate?
  7. The cabin floor tie-down fittings and net restraint rings are rated at what restraint capacity?
  8. Where is the aircraft's horizontal reference datum located?
  9. What is the moment of three combat equipped soldiers seated in row five of the aircraft?
  10. What is the weight spreading effect of shoring?
  11. What are the restraint criteria for the UH-60 and what formula is used to determine the number of restraints required to secure prepared cargo?
  12. What is the difference in operation between mode 1 and 2 of the AN/APR-39A (V) 1?
  13. Are the symbols displayed on the AN/APR-39A (V) 1 classified? How does the pilot know what the symbols indicate?
  14. During aggressive maneuvering flight, cyclic inputs; left, right, aft, and forward, cause torque and/or rotor to do what?
  15. What is transient torque?
  16. What is mushing, how is it recognized and what is the correct recovery technique?
  17. Which tasks require OGE power in both the hover power check and PPC?
  18. What is bucket speed and how is it computed?
  19. If you experience IIMC are you required to inform the commander?
  20. Who is considered a passenger and what flights are they restricted from?
  21. When are passengers (in a UH-60) required to use oxygen?
  22. When are life preservers required to be worn?
  23. What is the difference between a Performance task and a Technical task? How are they identified in the ATM?
  24. How is the heading mode engaged? What information will it provide?
  25. When will the HDG ON legend be illuminated in the VOR or ILS NAV modes?
  26. What information is displayed on the vertical situation indicator while outside the capture zone with ILS selected on the HIS/VSI mode select panel and NAV selected on the CIS mode select panel.
  27. What parameters should be met prior to selecting ALT HOLD? What modes of navigation allow selection of ALT HOLD? Explain.
  28. The Roll Command Bar responds to inputs from which navigation modes? The Pitch Command Bar?
  29. When is the level-off mode engaged automatically? What lights and/or switches will illuminate and what indications will the CIS processor provide?
  30. How is the Go-Around mode engaged or disengaged and what information will it provide?
  31. What is the difference between NOTAM (D), Pointer, Military and FDC NOTAMS?
  32. When is an alternate airfield required for an IFR flight?
  33. Define the terms MIA, MEA, MOCA, MRA, MCA, and MVA.
  34. When navigating between two facilities, when should the pilot change over from one navaid to the next?
  35. What are the steps for conducting a 45 / 180 procedure turn? 80 / 260?
  36. If radio communications are lost while on final during a GCA approach, should the missed approach be started immediately?
  37. Define the terms MSA, MDA, and DH.
  38. When may a pilot descend below the MDA or continue an approach below the DA/DH?
  39. What are the pilot’s responsibilities when being radar vectored?
  40. Explain the terms HAT, HAA, and HAL.
  41. When departing a runway, what altitude should the pilot begin a turn if not otherwise specified in the departure procedure or ATC instructions?
  42. What is the minimum IFR takeoff weather for a helicopter pilot with less than 50 hours of actual weather pilot-in-command time?
  43. Under lost communications, when can you leave a clearance limit?
  44. What additional reports should be made to ATC without being requested?
  45. What part of a clearance received on the ground should be read back? In the air?
  46. When may you leave the last assigned altitude after being radar vectored to the final approach course?
  47. How would the failure of an AFCS component affect the ability to conduct flight in IMC conditions?
  48. What is the definition of Spatial Disorientation? What are the three types?
  49. What physiological systems are used to maintain equilibrium and which is the most important?
  50. Explain the three types of Somatogyral Illusions.
  51. What are the three types of somatogravic illusions encountered in flight?
  52. Training, instrument proficiency, good health, maintaining situational awareness, and aircraft design all help to minimize SD. Additional measures pilots should take to prevent SD include what?
  53. What should a pilot do if they experience spatial disorientation?
  54. Explain the four types of Hypoxia.
  55. What are the four stages of hypoxia and what altitudes are associated with the onset of poor judgment and impaired coordination and efficiency?
  56. What is the definition of fatigue?
  57. What is definition of stress and what are the four types of stressors?
  58. What are the four responses to stress?
  59. How long is the medical restriction from flying duty after a flu shot?
  60. The CENTRAL DISPLAY UNIT (CDU), and the PILOT DISPLAY UNITS(PDU’s) contain photocells that automatically    ________ _________ of the             indicators with respect to ambient light.
    Adjust lighting
  61. During the COCKPIT EQUIPMENT CHECKS, the APU fails to start. What are your actions?
    If the APU does not start and the APU ACCUM LOW advisory does not appear with the APU CONT switch ON, the manual override lever on the accumulator manifold should be pulled to attempt another start, and held until the APU has reached self-sustaining speed.            

    If the APU fails, note and analyze BITE indications before cycling BATT switch or before attempting another APU start.
  62. What does the LOW ROTOR RPM light on the master warning panel indicate? What does the #1 or #2 ENG OUT warning light indicate?
    • LOW ROTOR WARNING LIGHT: When the rotor rpm drops below 96% RPM R.
    • ENG OUT WARNING LIGHT: Will illuminate at 55% NG speed or per table 2-3 below 55% NG speed
  63. What will be the procedure to follow if a start was attempted with the engine ignition switch off?
    If the start is attempted with the ENGINE IGNITION switch OFF, do not place switch ON. Complete EMER ENG SHUTDOWN procedure. Adhere to CAUTION (TGT above 538°C).
  64. Hot start preventer will activate the ODV which will shut off fuel flow if:
    NG=  < 60            Np =    < 50               TGT=   > 900
  65. During the start sequence of a 701-C engine you do not see the Torque spike on the engine being started.  At what % Np will the torque begin to be displayed?  Why?
    • The Torque signal is locked out until Np reaches 35%.
    • This logic eliminates torque spike signal during engine start and shutdown. This signal elimination prevents YAW excursions caused by load sharing response to torque spike during Inflight restart of an engine.
  66. How is heading mode engaged? What information will it provide?
    By pressing HDG on the pilots CIS mode selector, or by pressing NAV while outside the capture zone for the VOR, Doppler, Doppler/GPS, or localizer. The processor gain provides one degree of roll command for each degree of heading error up to a   roll command limit of approx. 20 degrees. When properly followed, the command results in not more than one overshoot in acquiring the selected heading and a tracking error of not more than 2 degrees.
  67. When will the HDG ON legend be illuminated in the VOR or ILS NAV modes?
    • VOR: When in excess of 10 to 20 degrees from the selected radial.           
    • LOC: Capture zone for the localizer is 2 1/2 to 5 degrees
  68. Whatinformation does the cyclic roll command bar provide in the VOR or ILS NAV mode?
    When followed, shall cause the helicopter to acquire and track the course setting manually selected on the HSI.
  69. After tuning a localizer frequency and selecting ILS on the HSI/VSI mode select panel, NAV is selected on the CIS mode select panel. What information is displayed while outside the capture zone?
    • Roll Command Bar: Heading (whomever has command).           
    • Pitch Command Bar: Pitch attitude (airspeed +\- 5 kts).           
    • Collective Position Indicator: Altitude +\- 50 feet.
  70. While being vectored for an approach, you choose to utilize the ALT hold mode. What parameters should be met prior to selecting ALT hold?
    Will you be able to select ALT hold on or off in conjunction with the ILS or VOR navigation mode? Explain.
    • a) Altitude: -1,000 to +10,000 feet.                
    •    Airspeed: 70-150 kts.                
    •    Vertical Rates: Less than 200 FPM climb or decent.           
    • b) Navigation: All modes except ILS NAV Mode. The CISP Logic Module prevents manual selection of the ALT Hold Mode whenever NAV Mode is engaged and an ILS frequency is selected. Once ALT is manually disengaged, to manually engage it, NAV must be turned off, then back on.
  71. A weather briefing will be obtained from a military weather facility and the forecaster’s __________ will be entered in the weather block of the DD Form 175.
  72. When is the missed approach initiated on an ILS approach?           
    On a VOR approach?
    • ILS: A missed approach will be initiated if at DH, and the runway approach threshold, approach lights, or other markings identifiable with the approach end of the runway, are not clearly visible. Missed approaches should not be initiated prior to the DH even with full scale deflections unless you have permission from ATC. Stop descent turn back to the course and fly out your time, then execute your missed if needed.           
    • VOR: On-Airport -VOR: A missed approach is initiated when you are or are not at MDA and cross over VOR with no visual contact with the runway environment and are unable to maintain visual contact throughout the descent and landing.           
    • VOR-Off-The-Airport: A missed approach must be executed at the expiration of   time (computed from FAF to landing runway), even if aircraft has not reached the MDA.
  73. Do dual VOR equipment requirements specified on approach charts apply to Army aircraft?           
    Can Army aircraft utilize dual VOR approach minimum?
    a) NO            b) Yes
  74. Whenis an alternate airfield required for IFR flight?
    • 1) Radar is required to execute the approach procedures to be flown.           
    • 2) The instrument approach navigational aids to be used are unmonitored.
    • 3) The predominant weather at the destination is forecast at ETA through 1 hr. after ETA to be less than:
    • a) Ceiling: 400 ft above the weather planning minimum required for the approach to be flown.                       
    • b) Visibility: 1 mile (or metric equivalent) greater than the weather planning minimum required for the approach to be flown.           
    • 4) An alternate is not required if descent from enroute minimum altitude for IFR operation, approach, and landing can be made in VFR conditions
  75. How much fuel is required for IFR flight?
    At takeoff, aircraft must have enough fuel toreach the destination and alternate(if required), and have a planned fuel reserve of 30 minutes at cruise
  76. If the Global Positioning System (GPS) is required for the approach, can you select that airfield as an alternate?
  77. If aircrews cannot verify their exact position while in P-518 (NO FLY AREA), they will immediately turn to a heading of 150 to 170 degrees, notify the flight controlling agency of the action taken and fly the selected heading until their exact position is determined.
  78. If two-way radio communications is lost while in the No Fly Area, thePIC will abort the flight and exit the No Fly Area via the nearest corridor.Radio transmissions will be made in the blind, stating intentions.
  79. Unit with a mission requiring flights in to H-264 will structure theirPC evaluation requirements to include a validation flight in H-264.
  80. The time and location of entry into each corridor will be annotated on the flight plan.  Initial corridor entry must be within plus or minus _______ of approved time.
    15 Minutes
  81. What does “Hotdog Sector 3” mean in the P518 no fly area, whenbroadcasted over guard?
    Depart the identified sector ASAP 150-170
  82. What are the inbound and out bound altitude requirements for flightsfrom Y-P 1 to KSY and KSY to YP1?
    • Inbound from VP-I to KSY the aircraft will maintain a minimum of 1,000’.
    • Outbound from KSY the minimum altitude is 1,500’.
  83. Whatare the three basic modes of operation for the Doppler/GPS?
    • OFF, Navigate, TEST.
    • Note: In the Navigate mode three sub-modes may be selected; the combined mode (default or primary mode), GPS only, or Doppler only.
  84. Whatdoes the GPS POS ALERT advisory light indicate?
    The GPS signals are not reliable.  The system will automatically switch toDoppler mode until a valid GPS status is received.  GPS or combined mode requires three (withbarometric sensor) or four satellites available to provide accurate GPSnavigation and Estimated Position Error (EPE) less than 150 meters.
  85. Duringsystem initialization, which do you select “M” or “Y”? Why?
    Select GPS mode “M”.  If “Y” mode is selected before crypto-key variables are loaded the system will lock-up.  The system must be turned off, then back on.
  86. The Doppler/GPS has the capability to display 100 destinations, (numbered 00-99).  Numbers 00-89 are considered what type of waypoints? Numbers 90-99?
    00-89 are standard waypoints, 90-99 are target store waypoints (usableas standard waypoints, but not as route sequencing waypoints).
  87. During operation of the Doppler/GPS, what do the following letters or symbols stand for?          
    a. C           
    b. D           
    c. G           
    d. R
    e. *
    • a. C combined Doppler and GPS.           
    • b. D Doppler only.           
    • c. G GPS only.           
    • d. R remembered velocities.           
    • e. * No navigation.
  88. Whatare the components of the hydraulic system?
    Three hydraulic pump modules, two transfermodules, a utility module, three dual primary servos, one dual tail rotor servo, four pilot-assist servos, an APU accumulator, an APU hand pump, and a servicing hand pump.
  89. During preflight you find a red indicator button extended on a hydraulic pump filter, pressure side.  What does this indicate?
    The pressure in the pump filter has increased 70+\- 10 PSI
  90. Dothe hydraulic pump filters have a bypass capability? Explain.
    Yes. The return filter has a bypass valve that opens when the return pressure increases 100 +\-10 PSI.
  91. a.  What is the indication that a high temperature level has been reached on an affected hydraulic pump?
    b.  How many types are there?
    c.  When the temperature of _______ degrees Celsius has been exceeded,
    • a) A circle/square (depending on type) turns black.           
    • b) Two (Red and white with squares, and white and black with circles).
    • c) 132 degrees C.  An entry shall be made on the DA FORM 2408-13-1. The aircraft should not be flown until appropriate maintenance action has been taken.
  92. What are the four mechanical mixes provided by the mixing unit?
    What do the individual mixes compensate for?
    • Collective to Pitch: Compensates for the effects of changes in the rotor down wash on the stabilator (AFT Fuselage) caused by collective pitch changes. As collective is increased, the main rotor disk is tilted forward slightly, and as collective is decreased the main rotor disk is tilted aft slightly.           
    • Collective to Roll: Compensates for the rolling moments and translating    tendency caused by changes in tail rotor thrust. The mixing unit provides left lateral input to the main rotor system as collective is increased, and right lateral      input as collective is decreased.           
    • Collective to Yaw: Compensates for changes in torque effect caused by changes in collective position. The mixing unit increases tail rotor pitch as   collective is increased and decreases tail rotor pitch as collective is decreased.
    • Yaw to Pitch: Compensates for the changes in the vertical thrust component of the canted tail rotor as the tail rotor pitch is changed. The mixing unit provides aft input to the main rotor system, as tail rotor pitch is increased and forward input as tail rotor pitch is decreased.
  93. Thefour basic subsystems of the AFCS are:
    Stabilator, Stability Augmentation System (SAS), Trim, and Flight Path Stabilization (FPS).
  94. Individually what does the illumination of the following caution lights indicate?           
    SAS OFF:
    • TRIM FAIL: Indicates that yaw, roll, or pitch trim actuators are not responding accurately to computer signals.           
    • FLT PATH STAB: Indicates that FPS is inoperative in one or more axis.           
    • SAS OFF: Hydraulic pressure supplied to the SAS actuators is below 2000 psi.           
    • STABILATOR: Stabilator system is turned on but is in the manual
  95. Name and discuss the five functions of the stabilator.
    • Streamline: Align stabilator with main rotor downwash in low speed flight tominimize nose-up attitude resulting from downwash.
    • Collective Coupling: Provide collective coupling to minimize pitch attitude excursions due to collective inputs from the pilot. This is automatically phased in at 30 KIAS. 
    • Angle of Incidence: Decrease angle of incidence with increased airspeed to improve static stability.
    • Sideslip to Pitch: To reduce susceptibility to gusts. When the helicopter is out of trim in a slip or skid, pitch excursions are also induced because of main rotor downwash on the stabilator and the tail rotor effectiveness due to increased or decreased induce flow.
    • Pitch Rate Feedback: To improve dynamic stability due to sudden changes in pitch excursions during gusty wind conditions.
  96. Whatis the WARNING associated with the stabilator during takeoff?
    If the stabilator has not begun trailing edge up movement by 30 to 50 KIAS and manual control is not available, do not exceed placard KIAS limits or longitudinal control may be lost.
  97. Failure of components within the flight control system may be indicated through varying degrees of feedback, vibrations, binding, resistance, or sloppiness.  What should these conditions not be mistaken for?
    Malfunction of the AFCS
  98. You have a FLT PATH STAB caution light illuminated, why is continued flight above 70 KIAS considered unsafewith the stabilator in the AUTO MODE if the Airspeed fault advisory light is illuminated?
    If the airspeed fault advisory light is illuminated, continued flight above 70 KIAS with the stabilator in the AUTO MODE is unsafe since a loss of the   airspeed signal from the remaining airspeed sensor would result in the stabilator slewing full-down.
  99. Whatare the indications of a SAS 2 failure?
    In case of a malfunction of the SAS 2 function,the input will normally be removed fromthe actuator and the SAS 2 failure advisory light on the AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL panel will go on. If themalfunction is of an intermittent nature,the indication can be cleared by simultaneously pressing POWER ON/RESET switches. If the malfunction iscontinuous, SAS 2 should be turned off.
  100. Using trim, in-flight changes to pitch and roll attitude may be made in one of the following ways:
    • 1. Pressing the STICK TRIM switch to slew the reference attitude to the desired attitude.           
    • 2. Pressing the TRIM REL switch on the pilot/copilot cyclic grip, manually flying the helicopter to the desired trim condition, and releasing the TRIM REL switch.           
    • 3. Overriding the stick trim forces to establish the desired trim condition, and then neutralizing stick forces by means of the trim switch.
  101. Whatare the components of the Collective to Airspeed to Yaw electronic coupling?
    SAS/FPS computer, yaw trim actuator, A/S signals, and collective position transducers.
  102. Beyond 100 kts, there is no electronic coupling being incorporated due to the capacity of the Cambered Fin and Tail Rotor to compensate for torque effect.
  103. Name and discuss the functions of Trim
    • The Trim/FPS System provides control positioning and force gradient functions     as well as basic autopilot functions with FPS engaged.           
    • Trim: When the TRIM is engaged on the AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL panel, the    pitch, roll, and yaw trim systems are activated to maintain position of the cyclic and tail rotor controls. Proper operation of the yaw trim requires that the BOOST be on.           
  104. Icingmay occur at what temperature and condition?
    When the ambient air temperature is +4°C (39°F) or below and visible liquid moisture is present.
  105. During sling load operations, you anticipate in-flight turbulence. Can you, as a pilot, intentionally enter into known orforecast turbulence?
    Yes, if aircraft has an operative collectivepitch control friction
  106. During start-up procedures, it is 45 degrees C and the first flight of the day.  The backup pump ran for a total of 16 minutes prior to getting your engines running.  You must let the backup pump cool down for _________ minutes. Can you complete the start-up to include the hydraulic leak test and tail rotor transfer check? Why or why not? How long can the APU run during this start-up procedure?
    • 48 Minutes cool down for the back-up pump.
    • Yes, because the hot weather limitations for the backup pump only apply to a static rotor system. The APU can run continuously when the engines and rotor are not running (up to 51o) but only 30 minutes after the engines are started and rotors are turning (up to 43 o).
  107. Whydoes the backup hydraulic pump have hot weather limitations?
    To avoid hydraulic fluid overheating.
  108. Whatis a “demarcation line”?
    The demarcation line is thepoint separating upflow air from downflow air. It forms at the mountain’shighest point and extends diagonally upward. The velocity of the wind and steepness of the uplift slope determines the position of the demarcation line.Generally, the higher the wind speed and steeper the terrain, the steeper thedemarcation line.
  109. How much weight can the engine service platforms hold?
    250 lbs
  110. Waitat least __20_____ minutes after engine shutdown before checkingengine oil.   If flights of over ___6____hours are made, engine oil level must be atthe full line of the sight glass before flight.
  111. a.  What is the settle time for (JP) fuel?            
    b. About how long does it take for the fuel to settle after refueling?
    • (a) 1 hour per foot depth of fuel.           
    • (b) About 4 hours for proper settling.
  112. On the APU oil dipstick there are two sides, a hot side and a cold side.
    How do you know which side to use?
  113. When the APU is cool to the touch the COLD side of the dipstick may be used, if the APU is hot to the touch the HOT side may be used.
  114. If the main transmission has a dual scale dipstick for checking the hot or cold oil level, which side do you use?
    Read the hot side of dipstick when checking hot oil ( immediately  to 1/2 hour after shutdown), or cold side of dipstick when checking cold oil ( at least 2 hours after shutdown).
  115. Whatare the MINIMUM tie down requirements for temporary parking?
    Gust lock engaged, wheel brakes set, tailwheellocked, and wheels properly chocked.
  116. What would happen if you took a round in a main fuel cell or main fuel line?
    What about the APU fuel line?
    The fuel cells are interchangeable, crashworthy, ballistic-resistant, and self-sealing. The fuel lines are self-sealing with breakaway valves in case of a malfunction or crash, with the exception of the APU fuel line.
  117. a.  What are the primary and alternate fuels for the UH-60?           
    b.  Are there any notes associated with the use of these fuels?
    • a) Primary: JP-8 (F-34/JET A-1)                
    • Alternate: JP-4 (F-40/JET B) & JP-5 (F-44/JET A)           
    • b) When starting in ambient temperatures below -34C, do not use JP-5 or JP-8.Fuel settling time for jet (JP) fuel is 1 hour per foot of depth of fuel. Allow fuel to settle for the prescribed period before any samples are taken (about 4 hours for proper settling)
  118. What is the usable capacity of the main fuel tanks with each refueling method?
    Gravity--360, Pressure--359, Closed Circuit—356.
  119. Icing inhibitor conforming to__________, commercial name___________ shall be added to commercial and  ___________   fuels, not containing anice inhibitor, during refueling operations regardless of ___________ .
  120. Whatdoes this additive provide besides icing protection?
    MIL-I-27686 or MIL-I-85470, Prist, NATO, ambienttemperature, Microbial Biocide
  121. How much fuel is required for VFR flight at takeoff?
    IFR Flight?
    • At takeoff, aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required), and have a planned fuel reserve of 20 minutes at cruise. 
    • Same as VFR, only 30 minutes.
  122. The following US Army approved clothing and equipment will be worn by all crewmembers when performing crew duties.
    • Leather boots approved for aviation use IAW CTA 50-900
    • Flight helmet
    • Flight suit approved for aviation use IAW CTA 50-900
    • Flight Gloves
    • Under layer clothing made of cotton, wool, nomex or materials approved for aviation use lAW CTA 50-900
    • Identification tags
  123. Damageto the fuel system could result if refueling hose pressure exceeds __55__ psiand _300_ gpm during pressure refueling or __15_ psi and 110_ gpm during closedcircuit refueling.
  124. Explainthe electrical power source of priority.
    An electrical power priority feature allowseither the #1 or the #2 main generator to automatically supersede the APU generator, which in turn automatically supersedes external power. A 24V batteryprovides backup DC power.
  125. What does a #1 or #2 GEN BRG caution light indicate?           
    What are your actions?
    • a) Indicates a failed or worn main bearing. The auxiliary bearing will allow 10 additional hours of operation after the light goes on.           
    • b) Note: When the GEN BRG caution light remains on for more than 1 minute, make an entry on the DA Form 2408-13-1.
  126. Withonly the APU generator power, what restrictions apply?
    • The APU generator is capable of supplying all flight essential AC and DC bus loads. In addition, the APU generator can supply power to the blade de-ice        system (when installed), if one main generator should fail. Should a second generator fail, the blade de-ice load will be dropped and the APU generator will power the remaining AC bus loads.           
    • Note: If the APU is the sole source of AC generated power, all equipment maybe operated except that when the backup pump is on, the windshield anti-ice is         prevented from being used.
  127. Using only the battery, what communication radios, navigational equipment, instrumentation, and lights will be operational?
    • Communication Radios: FM #1 and UHF (xmit/receive plain and secure),VOR/ILS for audio reception only, no nav information is derived from it, ICS.            Navigational Equipment: Mag compass and the eight day clock (non-digital).           
    • Instrumentation: Pitot/static instruments (airspeed indicators, baro altimeter, and vertical speed indicator), and the pilot’s turn rate indicator.           
    • Lights: Search light, cockpit utility lights, cockpit floodlights, and the maintenance light.
  128. When only battery power is available, the SLAB battery life is about 38 min by day, 24 min by night for a battery at  80% charge.  
  129. What does the illumination of the BATT LOW CHARGE caution light indicatefor a SLAB battery? 
    BATT LOW with SLABmeans that the battery charge has lowered to 23 volts
  130. How many APU starts can the battery provide at 35% charge?
  131. What are the indications of a single Generator failure?           
    What are the indications of a dual Generator failure?
    Single: #1 or #2 GEN caution light illuminated.            Dual: #1 and #2 CONV, AC ESS BUS OFF, and STABILATOR caution lights on, along with an intermittent audio.
  132. Whatare the anatomical parts of the eye and what are their functions?
    • The cornea, lens, and the iris gather and control the amount of light allowed to enter the eye. The image is then focused on the retina. Functionally, the retina            has two types of cells: Cones and Rods.           
    • a) Cones: Are used primarily for day or high intensity light vision. The chemical iodopsin is always present and readily available so that the cones can    immediately respond to visual stimulation.           
    • b) Rods: Are used for night or low intensity light vision. The chemical rhodopsin    (visual purple) is found in rods. The rhodopsin level in the rods slowly builds as the light level decreases, making the rods more sensitive to light with time
  133. Whatvisual problems or conditions affect night vision?
    • a) Presbyopia: Part of the normal aging process, which causes the lens to harden. Leads to difficulty in reading at normal distances, requires reading glasses. As the condition worsens, flight instruments, maps, and checklists become difficult to read. Requires bifocal glasses for correction.           
    • b) Night Myopia: Distant objects are not seen clearly. Only close objects are in focus. Myopic individuals have difficulty viewing blue-green lights at night possibly causing blurred vision. Special corrective lenses can be prescribed to correct for myopia.           
    • c) Astigmatism: Irregular shaped cornea causing out of focus condition. An         individual with a 1.0 diopter or greater must be cleared by a flight surgeon prior to flying with NVD’s. 
    • d) Myopia (Near sightedness): Blurred vision of distant objects caused by an error in refraction in which the lens of the eye does not focus an object directlyon the retina, but in front of the retinal plane.
    • e) Hyperopia (Far sightedness): Blurred vision of near objects caused by an error in refraction in which the lens of the eye does not focus an object directly on the retina, but behind the retinal plane.
  134. Whatare the three types of vision and their characteristics?
    • a) Photopic: Daylight hours or high level of artificial light, cones only. Requires use of central vision.           
    • b) Mesopic: Dawn/dusk hours or lowering light levels. Uses rods and cones. Use off center vision and scanning techniques.           
    • c) Scotopic: Night/low light vision. Uses rods only. Poor resolution of detail. 20/200 vision or less. Night blind spot in effect.
  135. Describe dark adaptation.
    Dark adaptation is a process by which the eyes increase their sensitivity to low levels of illumination. The lower the starting illumination level, the shorter the adaptation period. Max adaptation takes about 30-45 minutes under minimal light conditions. Re-adaptation time is dependent upon the degree of impairment. A fully dark adapted individual wearing NVD’s reverts to a 30 minute level of night vision in 2-3 minutes after removal.
  136. Whatare some methods used to protect night vision?
    • Sunglasses: This precaution minimizes the negative effects of sunlight on rhodopsin production. Exposure to bright sunlight for 2-5 hours can impede scotopic visual acuity for as long as 5 hours afterward. Effects are cumulative.           
    • Oxygen supply: Oxygen supply to the retina is essential for optimal retinal function. Any hypoxic condition deteriorates rod sensitivity. At pressure altitudes of 4000 feet or greater, night vision decreases measurably.            Precautions:                        
    • a) Airfield lighting can adversely affect night vision.                                   
    • 1) Schedule aircraft parked in darkened areas.                                   
    • 2) Mark hover lanes with minimal lighting.                                   
    • 3) Reduce airfield lighting to lowest intensity.                                   
    • 4) Unlighted departure routes.                                   
    • 5) Departure pads with reduced lighting.                       
    • b) High intensity lighting such as cities, flares, search lights, lightning, and artillery flashes can destroy night vision.                                   
    • 1) Turn the aircraft away from the light source.                                   
    • 2) Close one eye.                                   
    • 3) Avoid built up areas if possible.                                    4) Limit muzzle flashes when firing weapons.                                   
    • 5) Operate in the periphery of flares.
    • Red-lens goggles: This allows aircrew members to begin dark adaptation prior to night flight. Red lighting and red-lens goggles decrease the possibility of undesirable effects from accidental exposure to bright lights. Red-lens goggles or red illumination does reduce dark adaptation time and may preserve up to 90% of the dark adaptation in both eyes.
    • Interior and exterior lighting: Instrument, cockpit, and rear cargo area overhead lights should be adjusted to the lowest readable level that allows instruments, charts, and maps to be interpreted without prolonged staring or exposure.
    • Exterior lights should be dimmed or turned off if possible and the mission permits. Aviators should consult command policy for local procedures
  137. Name the 5 types of self-imposed stress and their effects on night vision.
    • Drugs: can seriously degrade day and night vision, (hypemic or histotoxic).           
    • Exhaustion: Fatigued crewmembers will not be mentally alert, will have little concentration, performance becomes a safety hazard, pilots tend to stare rather than scan.                       
    • a) Illness: A fever will consume a greater amount of oxygen increasing hypoxic effects, feeling bad distracts from concentration.                       
    • b) Poor Physical Conditioning: Good physical conditioning lessens fatigue increasing alertness and concentration. Over exercising prior to flight can cause fatigue.  
    • c) Inadequate Rest: Commanders, refer to AR 95-1 to develop crew work and rest schedules.           
    • Alcohol: Alcohol is a sedative impairing coordination and judgment.           
    • Tobacco: Hypemic hypoxia caused by smoking increases amount of carbon monoxide and lowers oxygen levels in the blood and the eyes. Smokers begin at a pressure altitude of 5000 feet and have a 20% reduction in night vision at sea level.           
    • Hypoglycemia: Missing or postponing meals can lower blood sugar levels leading to poor concentration and breakdown in habit patterns.                       
    • a) Vitamin A deficiency impairs night vision.
  138. What techniques are used for scanning and viewing objects during unaided night flight?
    • a) Scanning: Horizontal scanning from greatest visual distance inward using stop turn stop-turn motion. Use a 30 degree scanning pattern overlapping scan by 10 degrees.           
    • b) Off-Center Viewing: Compensates for the night blind spot. Look 10 degrees above, below, or to the side of the object. Used only on minimally illuminated or luminous objects. Objects viewed off center for more than 2-3 seconds will disappear due to photo-chemical equilibrium in the rods.            
    • c) Shapes and Silhouettes: Because visual acuity is reduced at night, objects must be identified by their shapes or silhouettes. To use this technique, the crewmember must be familiar with the architectural design of structures in the area covered by the mission.
  139. List and discuss the monocular cues used for depth perception and distance estimation.
    • Geometric Perspective: An object appears to have a different shape when crew members view it at varying distances and from different angles.
    • Linear Perspective: Parallel lines, such as railroad tracks, tend to converge as distance from the observer increases.                       
    • Apparent Foreshortening: The true shape of an object or a terrain feature appears elliptical when viewed from a distance.
    • Vertical Position in the Field: Objects or terrain features farther away from the observer appear higher on the horizon than those closer to the observer.
    • Retinal Image Size: An image focused on the retina is perceived by the brain to be a given size.Known Size of Objects: The nearer an object is to the observer, the larger its retinal image. By experience, the brain learns to estimate the distance of familiar objects by the size of their retinal image.
    • Increasing or Decreasing Size of Objects: If the retinal image size is increasing, the object is getting closer.
    • Terrestrial Association: Comparing an object of known size against an object of unknown size, to determine the size of, or distance to the unknown object.
    • Overlapping of Contours: When objects overlap, the object being overlapped is farther away. Lights disappearing or flickering should be treated as barriers, and the flight path adjusted accordingly.
    • Aerial Perspective: The clarity of an object and the shadow cast by it areperceived by the brain and are cues for estimating distance.
    • Fading of Colors or Shades: Objects viewed through haze, fog, or smoke are seen less distinctly and appear to be at a greater distance than they actually are.                       
    • Loss of Detail or Texture: As you get farther away from an object the discrete details become less apparent.
    • Position of Light Source and Direction of Shadow: Shadows cast by an object are used to determine relative distances. If the shadow cast is towards you then the light source is farther away than the object.
    • Motion Parallax: This is often considered the most important cue. Objects in the distance appear to be moving with you, or remain fixed, while objects nearer to you move rapidly past you in the opposite direction.
  140. Listand discuss the Visual illusions.
    • 1) Fixation/Fascination: Occurs when all of your attention is fixed on one object or goal and other orientation cues are ignored.
    • 2) Flicker Vertigo: Flicker vertigo may be created by rotor blades interrupting light at a rate of 4 to 20 cycles per second. (Technically not an illusion).           
    • 3) False Horizons: Slightly sloping terrain or cloud formations may be misinterpreted as a level horizon, resulting in the pilot placing the aircraft into a             turn, or drift if hovering.
    • 4) Confusion with Ground Lights: Occurs when an aviator mistakes ground lights for stars. When no stars are visible because of overcast conditions, unlighted areas of terrain can blend with the dark overcast to create the illusion that the unlighted terrain is part of the sky.
    • 5) Relative Motion: A falsely perceived self-motion in relation to the motion of another object. This can occur during multi-helicopter operations or hovering over tall grass.           
    • 6) Altered Planes of Reference: When approaching a line of clouds or mountains you feel the need to climb although you have enough altitude to clear      the obstacle.
    • 7) Structural: A straight line may appear bent, or a single light may appear as two lights due to the curvature of the windscreen. May also be caused by the effects of heat waves, rain, snow, sleet, or other visual obscurants.           
    • 8) Height/Depth Perception: Flying in restrictive visibility such as fog, or over low contrast areas (desert, snow, or water), you may feel that you are higher             than you actually are.
    • 9) Size-Distance: The false perception of distance from an object or the ground, created when a crewmember misinterprets an unfamiliar object’s size to be the same size as an object that he is accustomed to viewing. (Runways)           
    • 10) Autokinesis: This occurs when you stare at a single light on a black background, or a single black object on a whit background. After 8-10 seconds FM 3-04.203), or 6-12 seconds (FM 1-301), the object will appear to move.           
    • 11) Reversible Perspective: At night an aircraft may appear to be going away, when in fact it is approaching. “Red on Right Returning”
    • 12) Crater Illusion: This illusion occurs at night under NVG conditions. When the IR searchlight is directed too far under the nose of the A/C the ground below the A/C will appear to upslope in all directions. The pilot then misjudges his/her height above the ground.
  141. In flight describe theresponsibilities for each aircraft while in formation.
    2-2 TACSOP, page 1-17
  142. What does FUBAR mean whilein formation flight?
    2-2 TACSOP, page 1-17 
  143. What are the light signalsfor lost communication during formation flight?
    2-2 TACSOP, page 1-19
  144. What is the call that is made when the flight is ready for Takeoff? What is leads response?
    .  2-2 TACSOP, page 1-14
  145. What is the planning airspeed for mission planning?
    2-2 TACSOP, page 1-7
  146. What is the traffic patternaltitude for Camp Humphreys(A 511)?
    VFR Arrival/Departure Procedures.  500 NG /800 N/Day
  147. What is the chopper transition at Osan?
    VFR Arrival/Departure Procedures.  Call either Osan Tower at Osan SE or Osan NE and transition along Route 25 (MSR 1) within 500’ of the HWY and below 500’ MSL.
  148. Night or NVG considerations:
    • 1. Altitude, apparent ground speed, and rate of closure are difficult to estimate at night. The rate of descent during the final 100 feet should be slightly less than during the day to avoid abrupt attitude changes at low altitudes. After establishing the descent during unaided flights, airspeed may be reduced to approximately 50 knots until apparent ground speed and rate of closure appear to be increasing. Progressively decrease the rate of decent and forward speed until termination of maneuver. 2. Surrounding terrain or vegetation may decrease contrast and cause degraded depth perception during the approach. Before descending below obstacles, determine the need for artificial lighting.
    • 3. Use proper scanning techniques to avoid spatial disorientation.
    • 4. When performing operations during unaided night flight, ensure that the searchlight or landing light (white light) is in the desired position. Use of the white light will impair night vision several minutes. Therefore, exercise added caution if resuming flight before reaching full dark adaptation.
  149. a.  What is the optimum visual acuity            
    b.  What is the intensification level for AN/AVS-6’s?
    • a) Visual Acuity: 20/25           
    • b) Intensification Level: 2,000-3,000 times the ambient light
  150. Whatis the field of view for the AN/AVS-6’s?
    40 degrees.
  151. NVGs provide             amount of magnification.
  152. How long after moonrise will it take the moon to rise 30 degrees above the horizon?
    2 hours @ 15 degrees per hour, (1 degree every 4minutes).
  153. Whatare the factors affecting the level of depth perception and distance estimation when using NVGs?
    • a) Available light.           
    • b) Type and quality of NVGs.           
    • c) Degree of contrast in the field of view.           
    • d) Viewers experience.
  154. What technique should be used when viewing through NVGs to ensure maximum field of view?
    Basic principles for scanning are the same for unaided and aided flight. Though there are some specific items to consider when scanning aided. Peripheral vision is greatly reduced. Continuous scanning must be used to make up the loss. While rotating his head, the aviator can scan from one lateral limit of vision inside the tube to the other limit of vision. In this manner, 70-80 degrees can be covered with only a 30-40 degree amount of head movement. This technique minimizes head rotation. However, maximum visual acuity can only be attained when the aviator views through the center of the tube. Acuity drops to 20/70 or worse in the periphery of the NVD’s.
  155. What is the initial recommended counter weight for AN/AVS-6s?
    What is the maximum recommended weight?
    • 12 oz.,
    • 22 oz.
  156. The Common Missle Warning System (CMWS) portion of the system detects Infrared (IR) Guided MisslesThe Improved Countermeasures Dispenser (ICMD) portion of the system protects the helicopter against IR Threats using expendable flares.
  157. What components make up the Improved Countermeasures Dispenser ICMD system?
    It consists of two Sequencers, two FlareDispensers, and one Chaff Dispenser
  158. EachDispenser accepts a munitions Payload Module that contains how many Flare and Chaff?
    30 Flare for each (60 total) and 30 Chaff
  159. The Safe/Arm Panel (SAP), located on the aft surface of the lower console, enables the pilot/copilot to:
    Arm/Safe the system, Set the system in Auto or Bypassmode, Jettison all flares in an emergency, Zeroize the UDM, Zeroize the GPS,Control the volume of the AAR-57 audio messages. (The auto knob on the CMWScontrol head does nothing)
  160. Whenis the CMWS Crew Safety Pin removed/installed?
    During the Before Takeoff Check / During theAfter Landing Check
  161. When is the CMWS SAFE/ARM Switch moved to the ARM position, SAFE position?
    During the After Takeoff Check / During theBefore Landing Check
  162. The CMWS generates threat messages that are announced over the intercom system, what are these messages?
    “Missle, Missle, Forward Left”, “Missle, Missle, Forward Right”, “Missle, Missle, Aft Left”, “Missle, Missle, Aft Right”
  163. Why are wires and trees limbs difficult to see when wearing NVGs?
    They have a poor reflective surface.
  164. Whyshould large bank angles and rapid attitude changes be avoided?
    They tend to induce spatial disorientation. Proper scanning and viewing techniques should be used.
  165. visual cues that will be evident when visibility restrictions are encountered.
    • a) Halo: A halo may form around light sources when NVGs are used and atmospheric obscurations present. If the size of the halo becomes noticeably larger, a restriction could be developing
    • .b) Image Noise: May result when atmospheric obscurations are present and the ambient light level is low. This may be indicated by an increased “image noise” that looks similar to the “snow” seen on a television screen.
    • c) Clouds:  The moon and stars become obscured. As the cloud coverage increases the ambient light decreases. (Noted by an increase in “image noise”).
    • d) Fog: Fog over water or low-lying areas indicates that the temperature and dew-point spread is approaching zero.
    • e) Shadows: Shadows obscure the moon’s illumination. Crew members can detect these shadows by observing the varying levels of ambient light along the flight route.
  166. Name several variables that affect your ability to see with NVGs.
    • a) Type of NVGs.           
    • b) Age and condition of NVGs.           
    • c) Proper care and maintenance of NVGs.
    • d) Individual’s proficiency and capabilities.
    • e) Condition of aircraft windscreen.           
    • f) Moisture content in the air.
    • g) Visibility (haze, fog, rain, low clouds, dust, smoke).
  167. Whyis blue-green lighting ideal for AN/AVS-6s?
    Improved performance in the red and near infrared portion of the spectrum and the minus blue filter in the NVGs makes red cockpit lights non-compatible and blue-green lighting ideal. This makes the goggles blind to the instrument lighting so the glare does not interfere with viewing outside the aircraft.(625 Nanometers)
  168. How long does the power up process including the BIT (SBIT) take?
    What should the CI display if the system completes a successful SBIT?
    • Approximately 3 minutes, 
    • SYS PASS
  169. Are there any Cautions, Warnings, or Notes in the -10 associated with the CMWS?
    • WARNING: Do not preflight until armament systems are safe, switches off, safety pins installed, and locking levers in locked position
    • CAUTION: Do not transition power from APU generator to main generators while the CMWS is booting. Transitioning power source during booting can cause damageand/or system resets, resulting in mission delays or possible permanent damage to CMWS hardware.           
    • WARNING: During power up process, or performing IBIT, or rebooting during flight, the CMWS/ICMD will be offline for approximately 2 to 5 minutes and unable toprotect the aircraft until completion. Selecting Bypass Mode during startup, reboot, or IBIT is prohibited. Selecting Bypass Mode during CMWS-startup, reboot, or IBIT will result in the system entering a mode where no system degrade or failure is noted, but the CMWS will not fire munitions either manually or automatically.
    • CAUTION: After installing a new or reprogrammed UDM, do not abort the ECU reboot (power-up) process during the first 5 minutes. If prematurely aborted, differencesbetween the UDM and the ECU resident boot data may permanently disable the ECU.           
    • NOTE: Should the system (CMWS) inadvertently be placed in Bypass Mode during startup, reboot, or IBIT; wait until system completes startup or reboot (approximately 2 to 5 minutes), then DCDU or CI set MODE/PWR switch to OFF, wait 5 seconds, then set MODE/PWR switch to ON/AUTO. This process may take up to 5 minutes to reboot. Q6.     
  170. Whatare the Caution/Advisory lights associated with the CMWS?
    • CAUTION: CMWS showing the system is inoperative 
    • ADVISORY: CM ARMED showing the system is armed 
  171. What are the 3 modes of terrain flight?           
    What are their airspeed/altitude restrictions when wearing NVGs?
    • a) NOE: When operating up to 25 feet above the highest obstacle in the flight        path -- 40 KIAS maximum.           
    • b) Contour: When operating between 25 and 80 AHO -- 70 KIAS maximum.
    • c) Low Level: When operating above 80 feet AHO -- whatever airspeed operational requirements dictate and aircraft limitations allow.Note: The airspeeds may need to be decreased if inclement weather or ambient light levels restrict visibility. Don’t over-fly your field-of-view.
  172. For crew endurance purposes, what is the maximum allowable flight time for a mission requiring night and NG flight? 
    What is the Maximum allowable flight time for NG flight, and can that value be extended?
    • 6 Hours of which 5 hours maximum for NG.
    • Yes, 1 hour CO CDR, 2 hours BN CDR and >2 hours by BDE CDR.
  173. Whatare UH-60 NVG currency requirements?
    To be considered NVG current, a crewmember must take part every 60 days in at least a 1-hour flight in the aircraft at night while wearing NVG. A RCM must be at a station with access to the flight controls. The use of the UH60FS to maintain currency is not authorized. A NCM must perform designated duties in a crewmember station authorized on the CTL.
  174. Whatis the difference between the Mode 1 and Mode 2 operation of the AN/APR-39A(V)1?          
    • a) MODE 1: Selecting MODE 1 the operator will hear all the normal synthetic voice audio when an emitter has been processed e.g., the AN/APR-39A(V)1 will announce; “SA, SA-8, 2-O’CLOCK TRACKING”. 
    • b) MODE 2: Selecting MODE 2 the operator will hear an abbreviated synthetic voice audio e.g., the AN/APR-39A(V)1 will announce; “MISSILE, MISSILE, 2-O’CLOCK TRACKING”.
  175. Whatwould indicate a successful self test of the AN/APR-39A(V)1 in Mode 1 withoutan AN/AVR-2B laser set installed? (Audio and visual)
  176. a) After power up, a synthetic voice will announce “APR-39 POWER UP” and the (+) symbol will stabilize in the center of the CRT. (Self test should be initiated after approximately one minute). The synthetic voice will announce “SELF-TEST SET VOLUME 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12”.                       
    • b) The CRT will display specific software version numbers i.e., Operational Flight Program (OFP) at the 12-o’clock position and the Emitter Identification Data (EID) at the 6-o’clock position. (Installed by the (EWO) Electronic Warfare Officer).
    • c) After the software version numbers have been displayed the test sequence checks the receivers. A good visual self-test will show two triangles, one at the 6-o’clock position and one at the 12-o’clock position on the CRT. Snowflake symbols (*) will be flashing at the 2, 4, 8, and 10-o’clock position indicating that the AN/AVR-2 laser detecting set is not installed. 
    • d) A good self-test (no faults detected) ends with the message “APR-39 OPERATIONAL”. A bad self-test (faults detected) ends with the message “APR-39 FAILURE”.