Volume 2 (UREs)

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sisney
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19052
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Volume 2 (UREs)
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2010-05-16 16:54:53
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volume 2 ure
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  1. on the ESTS, how many independently programmable power supply modules does the AC power supply assembly (A3A3) contain?
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
    4
  2. on the ESTS, what voltage programming range do the AC power supply modules provide?
    a. 0 to 135 VDC
    b. 0 to 135 VAC
    c. 135 to 220 VDC
    d. 135 to 220 VAC
    0 to 135 VAC
  3. on the ESTS, how many independently programmable DC power supply modules does the DC power supply assembly (A4A3) contain?
    a. 3
    b. 4
    c. 5
    d. 6
    5
  4. on the ESTS, what is the voltage programming range of the high voltage DC power supply module (DCPS6/A4A2)?
    a. 0 to 100 VDC
    b. 0 to 200 VDC
    c. 100 to 200 VDC
    d. 100 to 500 VDC
    0 to 200 VDC
  5. on the ESTS, the DC power supply modules (A4A3A2 through A4A3A6) provide what voltage programming range?
    a. 0 to 32 VDC
    b. 0 to 50 VDC
    c. 0 to 100 VDC
    d. 0 to 200 VDC
    0 to 32 VDC
  6. on the ESTS, in what slot of the RF VXI assembly (A5) is the VXI bus extender module (A5A1) located?
    a. 0
    b. 1
    c. 2
    d. 3
    0
  7. on the ESTS, which connector on the VXI bus extender module is a 52-pin connector?
    a. TRIG OUT
    b. EXT CLK
    c. TRIG IN
    d. MXI bus
    MXI bus
  8. on the ESTS, what type of power meter is power meter (A5A8)?
    a. dual input
    b. dual output
    c. single input
    d. single output
    dual input
  9. on the ESTS, in what slots of the RF VXI assembly (A5) is the RF counter (A5A9) located?
    a. 1, 2, and 3
    b. 6, 7, and 8
    c. 9, 10, and 11
    d. 11, 12, and 13
    9, 10, and 11
  10. on the ESTS, the VXI bus extender module (A6A1) serves as the interface between the MXI bus and how many analog stimulus and response modules?
    a. 4
    b. 6
    c. 8
    d. 10
    10
  11. on the ESTS, how many independent digital to analog converter channels does the digital to analog converter (A6A2) provide?
    a. 1
    b. 12
    c. 16
    d. 24
    12
  12. on the ESTS, each module No. 1 and No. 2 (A6A3 and A6A4) consists of 211 relays. what type of relays are they?
    a. SPST
    b. SPDT
    c. DPST
    d. DPDT
    DPDT
  13. on the ESTS, the Form C relay module (A6A7) consists of how many independent Form C relays?
    a. 32
    b. 64
    c. 128
    d. 256
    32
  14. on the ESTS, the CDM (A6A11) has a counter-timer and digitizer instrument capability. how many input channels does each instrument have?
    a. 1
    b. 2
    c. 3
    d. 4
    2
  15. on the ESTS, the timing generator module (A7A8) provides basic timing for the digital word generators 1 through 5 and the
    a. bus simulator (A7A5)
    b. H009 interface (A7A4)
    c. advanced video system (A7A6)
    d. VXI bus extender module (A7A1)
    advanced video system (A7A6)
  16. on the ESTS, digital word generators 1, 2, and 3 are what type of digital word generators?
    a. high-density
    b. high-speed
    c. low-density
    d. low-speed
    high-speed
  17. on the ESTS, digital word generators 5 and 6 are what type of digital word generators?
    a. high-density
    b. high-speed
    c. low-density
    d. low-speed
    high-density
  18. what are the power requirements for ESTS operation?
    a. 220 VAC single-phase
    b. 115 VAC single-phase
    c. 220 VAC 3-phase
    d. 115 VAC 3-phase
    115 VAC single-phase
  19. on the ESTS, which power control circuit breaker controls power to the AC and DC power equipment assemblies?
    a. MAIN POWER ON/OFF
    b. VXI POWER ON/OFF
    c. RF POWER ON/OFF
    d. PS POWER ON/OFF
    PS POWER ON/OFF
  20. on the ESTS, which connector(s) of the interconnect assembly A10 (SIA1) connects to power distribution interconnections?
    a. P1 only
    b. P1 and P2 only
    c. P1, P2, and P3 only
    d. P1, P2, P3, and P4
    P1, P2, P3, and P4
  21. on the ESTS, which connectors on the interconnect assembly A12 (SIA3) connect to the system controller (A9)?
    a. P1 and P2
    b. P3 and P4
    c. J1 and J2
    d. P1 and J1
    J1 and J2
  22. on the ESTS, when installing the interconnecting box A15 (maintenance ITA), the A15 mating is completed by
    a. rotating the two connectors engagement handles one turn clockwise
    b. installing four locking bolts and tightening them
    c. securing the locking clamps on both sides
    d. locking the four engagement pins
    rotating the two connectors engagement handles on turn clockwise
  23. what kind of Pentium processor does the ESTS system controller have?
    a. 1 GHz
    b. 500 MHz
    c. 120 MHz
    d. 90 MHz
    90 MHz
  24. the system controller operator interface on the ESTS consists of the flat panel display, integral resistive technology touchscreen, the 101-key keyboard, and
    a. sound card
    b. microphone
    c. video graphics adapter
    d. head phones and speakers
    video graphics adapter
  25. on the ESTS, the SCSI card controls the magneto-optical drive, the removable hard drive, and
    a. CD-ROM drive
    b. floppy controller
    c. 3.5-inch floppy disk drive
    d. 64 Mb RAM
    CD-ROM drive
  26. the system controller front panel INT power indicators illuminate to indicate the voltages are present. what voltage levels are represented by each illuminated indicator?
    a. - 5 and -12 VDC only
    b. +5 and +12 VDC only
    c. +5, -5, +12, and -12 VDC
    d. +5, -5, +12, -12, +28, and -28 VDC
    +5, -5, +12, and -12 VDC
  27. on the ESTS, on the system controller keyboard, what key(s) suspends display activity until another key is pressed?
    a. Esc (Escape)
    b. Pause (break)
    c. Enter (carriage return)
    d Ctrl, Alt, and Del (Control, Alternate, and Delete)
    Pause (break)
  28. on the ESTS, what is used on the system controller external CD-ROM when it is not possible to open the CD-ROM drive using the Open-Close pushbutton?
    a. reset power
    b. remove lock nut
    c. manual release lever
    d. emergency eject access hole
    emergency eject access hole
  29. on the ESTS, on the system controller external CD-ROM, what decrements the CD track selection?
    a. SCSI ID select switch
    b. forward track pushbutton
    c. back track pushbutton
    d. freature selector switch
    back track pushbutton
  30. on the ESTS, what type of switch is used to control the configuration on the system controller external CD-ROM's feature selector switch?
    a. Dip
    b. Toggle
    c. Pushbutton
    d. Thumbwheel
    Dip
  31. what does the ESTS main menu option TPS allow the operator to perform?
    a. ESTS system shutdown
    b. LRU testing
    c. copy, print, and display calibration data
    d. change voltage parameters and signal paths
    LRU testing
  32. on the ESTS, which F15 TPS selection menu option is the best method if you only know the name (nomenclature) of the LRU you are about to bench check?
    a. alphabetical index listing
    b. LRU work unit code
    c. TPS list number
    d. list scrolling
    list scrolling
  33. on the ESTS, which TPS main menu option performs a test on a specific LRU SRU?
    a. LOAD OFP
    b. READ/VERIFY OFP
    c. INDIVIDUAL TESTING
    d. END-TO-END TESTING
    INDIVIDUAL TESTING
  34. which ESTS main menu option provides ESTS configuration/status?
    a. TPS (debug mode)
    b. resource management
    c. system services
    d. shutdown
    resource management
  35. what RF equipment device provides the ESTS with its phase noise measurement capability?
    a. signal analyzer
    b. signal generator
    c. spectrum analyzer
    d. function select keys
    signal analyzer
  36. on the ESTS, at what internal temperature does the signal analyzers VOLT/TEMP indicator light?
    a. 50 degrees C
    b. between 50 and 70 degrees C
    c. 75 degrees C
    d. when it exceeds 75 degrees C
    when it exceeds 75 degrees C
  37. on the ESTS, the RF generator No. 1 is capable of delivering what type of RF output(s)?
    a. amplitude only
    b. amplitude and pulse modulated only
    c. frequency and pulse modulated only
    d. amplitude, frequency, and pulse modulated
    amplitude, frequency, and pulse modulated
  38. regarding the RF equipment assembly No. 2, together the spectrum analyzer and what other device perform phase testing of line replaceable units?
    a. oscilloscope
    b. signal analyzer
    c. signal generator
    d. frequency synthesizer
    signal analyzer
  39. which spectrum analyzer MARKER key in RF equipment assembly No. 2, places a marker at the highest point on the signal trace and accesses a menu of marker functions?
    a. MKR key
    b. -->MKR key
    c. FREQ COUNT key
    d. PEAK SEARCH key
    PEAK SEARCH key
  40. which tier(s) of the GPIU form the interface test connector?
    a. A and B
    b. B and C
    c. A only
    d. B only
    A and B
  41. which GPIU subsystem provides serial and parallel digital stimulus and measurement capability to the GPITM?
    a. serial bus
    b. digital test
    c. waveform stimulus
    d. test module adapter
    digital test
  42. which GPIU subsystem in the interface between the test station computer test module and the CCA of the GPIU?
    a. serial bus
    b. digital test
    c. waveform stimulus
    d. test module adapter
    test module adapter
  43. which GPIU CCA is not one of the tier C plug in CCAs?
    a. 1553 CCA
    b. display CCA
    c. manchester CCA
    d. test module adapter CCA
    manchester CCA
  44. the GPITM power-on and initiated are two of the three types of BITs. what is the third type?
    a. nonstop
    b. permanent
    c. continuous
    d. uninterrupted
    continuous
  45. which GPITM BIT operates independently of the other station assets by using GPIU stimulus and measurement resources other than the CCA being tested?
    a. initiated
    b. power-on
    c. continuous
    d. uninterrupted
    initiated
  46. what two GPITM CCA are required to test every CCA within the GPIU?
    a. special function interface and the signal conditioner
    b. ICA I/F and the monitor select
    c. ARB waveform generator and the HDR
    d. TMA and the ICA I/F
    TMA and the ICA I/F
  47. if a GPITM spurious overcurrent interrupt occurs during BIT, what symbol (indicator) will be displayed by the status indicator for the circuit card assembly being tested when the interrupt occured?
    a. dash (-)
    b. zero (0)
    c. percent (%)
    d. asterisk (*)
    percent (%)
  48. within the GPITM GPIU, if multiple BIT failures occur for multiple CCAs and the I/F chassis bus extender is one of the CCAs that has failed BIT, what action should be taken?
    a. ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected
    b. start from tier A and reset each CCA one at a time and then rerun BIT after each reset
    c. reload system software because multiple CCA BIT fails indicate a software problem
    d. power down and back-up the test station, this will reset all CCA firmware
    ignore all other CCA BIT failures until the I/F chassis bus extender CCA fail is corrected
  49. the overall function of the RITM is to select and complete signal paths between the station RF automatic test equipment and what devices/component?
    a. UUT
    b. digitizer oscilloscope
    c. frequency synthesizers
    d. GPITM
    UUT
  50. the TISS test station RF measurement instruments such as the power meter and spectrum analyzer acquire measurement waveforms supplied by what?
    a. load carts
    b. interface test adapter
    c. RITM
    d. GPITM
    RITM
  51. what assembly(s) in the RITM stimulus assembly generates noise in two bands, a low band and a high band?
    a. microwave counter test module
    b. power amplifiers no. 1 and no. 2
    c. frequency generator
    d. noise assembly
    noise assembly
  52. which RITTM assembly performs down conversion for the RF in the 18 to 40 GHz band, input demodulation, and measurement?
    a. power
    b. control
    c. stimulus
    d. measurement
    measurement
  53. which measurement assembly device in the RITM converts the higher RF frequency range of 18.5 to 40 GHz to a 3.3214 GHz intermediate frequency?
    a. crystal clock assembly
    b. demodulator assembly
    c. measurement distribution assembly
    d. electronic frequency converter RF assembly
    electronic frequency converter RF assembly
  54. what CCA of the RITM control/power assembly converts logical commands from the TMA CCA controlling a maximum of 384 relays in the RITM to configure the RITM appropriately for the test?
    a. RITM TMA CCA
    b. relay driver CCA
    c. RF sync CCA
    d. self-test CCA
    relay driver CCA
  55. regarding the RITM stimulus assembly, where is the low-band noise source contained?
    a. modulation assembly/modulation CCA
    b. modulation assembly/noise CCA
    c. noise assembly/modulation CCA
    d. noise assembly/noise CCA
    noise assembly/noise CCA
  56. within the RITM stimulus assembly what device/assembly provides the required termination for the front panel connectors?
    a. noise assembly
    b. power amplifiers
    c. modulation assembly
    d. stimulus distribution assembly
    stimulus distribution assembly
  57. within the RITM stimulus assembly, what devise/assembly provides comparators to test all output paths of the stimulus assembly during BITs?
    a. stimulus distribution assembly
    b. modulation assembly
    c. power amplifiers
    d. noise assembly
    stimulus distribution assembly
  58. regarding the stimulus distribution assembly that is part of the RITM stimulus assembly, what device routes the outputs from amplifiers no. 1 and no. 2 to the output termination and switching circuit and to the modulation assembly?
    a. output termination and switching circuit
    b. RF input selector
    c. amplifier output selector
    d. distribution circuit
    amplifier output selector
  59. regarding the fifth IF assembly that is part of the RITMs measurement assembly, the fifth IF frequency is produced by heterodyning one of four LO frequencies with what else that is supplied by the test station?
    a. third IF
    b. fourth IF
    c. 10 MHz clock channel
    d. 100 MHz clock channel
    fourth IF
  60. which assembly within the RITMs measurement assembly receives IF input signals from the test station or from the fifth IF circuit card assembly?
    a. measurement distribution
    b. RF
    c. demodulator
    d. crystal clock
    demodulator
  61. which assembly within the RITMs measurement assembly down converts RF input signals in the frequency range of 2 to 40 GHz?
    a. demodulator
    b. crystal clock
    c. RF
    d. measurement distribution
    RF
  62. regarding the RF assembly of the RITM measurement assembly, which of the LO signals is supplied by the station spectrum analyzer and varies fom 10.5 to 18.5 GHz?
    a. TLO
    b. SLO
    c. VLO
    d. BIT LO
    SLO
  63. which assembly/CCA within the RITM measurement assembly contains all the logic circuitry required for gating, synchronizing, and measuring, electronic warfare type signals?
    a. demodulation
    b. measurement distribution
    c. timing processor circuit card
    d. fifth intermediate frequency circuit card
    timing processor circuit card
  64. regarding the circuit breaker panel of the RITM control/power assembly's power circuit, what are the power inputs to the RITM that are controlled and monitored by the circuit breaker panel?
    a. 28 VDC and 208 VAC only
    b. 115 VAC and 28 VDC only
    c. 208 VAC and 115 VAC only
    d. 208 VAC, 115 VAC, and 28 VDC
    208 VAC, 115 VAC, and 28 VDC
  65. regarding the control circuit's VME bus of the RITMs control/power assembly, which VME sub-bus carries signals that perform bus control functions?
    a. utility
    b. arbitration
    c. data transfer
    d. priority interrupt
    arbitration
  66. regarding the control circuit's VMEs bus of the RITM control/power assembly, which sub-bus distributes DC power and general control signals such as system reset and failure signals?
    a. utility
    b. arbitration
    c. data transfer
    d. priority interrupt
    utility
  67. regarding the RITM control/power assembly control circuit, what CCA(s) provides multiple signal paths for TTL level sync signals exchanged between the stimulus assembly, measurement assembly, and test station resources?
    a. RF sync CCA
    b. test module adapter CCA
    c. relay driver CCA
    d. self-test CCAs
    RF sync CCA
  68. which CCA of the IAIS test station computer communicates with the photometer and theodolite components of the optical test bench?
    a. processor
    b. RS-232 serial interface
    c. computer test station interface
    d. small computer system interface
    RS-232 serial interface
  69. the only value that can be specified for the VOLTAGE modifier in the improved avionics intermediate shop discrete syntax is
    a. 10 VDC
    b. 12 VDC
    c. 24 VDC
    d. 28 VDC
    28 VDC
  70. how many IAIS ATLAS syntax statements can you use to control the power supply unit?
    a. two
    b. three
    c. four
    d. five
    four
  71. on IAIS general-purpose switch CCA, operational control signals for relays K26 through K30 come from the UUT
    a. only
    b. or the computer
    c. the computer, or the modular relay driver
    d. or a combination of the station computer and modular relay driver
    or the computer
  72. on IAIS expansion measurement matrix CCA, low-voltage channels 1 and 2 connect any one of
    a. seven analog input signals to any one of 40 outputs
    b. 10 analog input signals to any one of 100 outputs
    c. 40 analog input signals to any one of seven outputs
    d. 100 analog input signals to any one of 10 outputs
    40 analog input signals to any one of seven outputs
  73. what IAIS CCA consists primarily of five modular-divided-by-N counters and nine gate arrays?
    a. modular low-power RF
    b. advanced bus emulator
    c. interface controller
    d. serial interface
    modular low-power RF
  74. which IAIS CCA provides biphase stimulus to the UUT, and then evaluates the biphase response from the UUT?
    a. modular low-power radio-frequency
    b. advanced bus emulator
    c. dedicated input/output
    d. serial interface
    serial interface
  75. besides providing peculiar I/O capabilities for the UUT and I/O interface backplane, the IAIS controller CCA has built-in capabilities to monitor
    a. fluctuations in facility input power
    b. the status of all IAIS I/O operations
    c. UUT overtemperature and overvoltage conditions
    d. the power supply self-test and interface test adapter interlock
    the power supply self-test and interface test adapter interlock
  76. the IAIS improved LF measurement CCA route conditioned signals for measurement to the
    a. analog channel CCAs in IUA
    b. dual power meter in the MMU
    c. internal cursive measurement CCA in IUB
    d. LF receiver CCA in the MMU
    analog channel CCAs in IUA
  77. the frequency range of the IAIS HF measurement CCA is
    a. DC to 10 MHz
    b. AC to 10 MHz
    c. DC to 100 MHz
    d. AC to 100 MHz
    DC to 10 MHz
  78. which IAIS IUA CCA drive the analog AFG CCAs to generate arbitrary waveforms?
    a. digital AFG
    b. analog channel A and B
    c. digital-to-analog arbitrary function driver
    d. rate-delay generator CCA and trigger selector
    digital AFG
  79. the rate-delay trigger pulse generated by the IAIS rate-delay generator CCA
    a. creates a 20- usec delay to allow sufficient time for processing analog input signals
    b. creates a 20- usec delay to allow sufficient time for processing digital input signals
    c. acts as a transfer strobe for enabling analog signal measurements
    d. acts as a transfer strobe for enabling digital signal measurements
    acts a transfer strobe for enabling analog signal measurements
  80. how are FREQ adjustments made to the IAIS 10- MHz standard?
    a. FREQ adjustments cannot be made to the 10- MHz standard; instead, its oscillator assembly must be replaced if it out of tolerance
    b. by adjusting the output of the 10- MHz oscillator on the trigger selector CCA
    c. by adjusting the output of the FREQ input select circuit on the advanced counter/timer CCA
    d. by adjusting the on-board trim potentiometer
    by adjusting the on-board trim potentiometer
  81. what programmable attributes are available for the output signal from the IAIS pulse generator output CCA?
    a. amplitude and offset
    b. offset and transition time
    c. amplitude and transition time
    d. amplitude, offset, and transition time
    amplitude, offset, and transition time
  82. what IAIS IUB CCA generates pulses and pulse trains for the timing of analog stimulus and measurement?
    a. timing generator
    b. discrete I/O
    c. raster video generator
    d. synchro generator/measurement
    timing generator
  83. what IAIS IUB CCA provides the video and synchronization signals used to display rater patterns on the UUT?
    a. timing generator
    b. discrete I/O
    c. raster video generator "A"
    d. synchro generator/measurement
    raster video generator "A"
  84. what IAIS IUB CCA provides video bright-up signals, and X- and Y-symbol deflection during testing?
    a. timing generator
    b. discrete I/O
    c. raster video generator
    d. advanced display controller
    advanced display controller
  85. what types of RF output signals are available from the IAIS MSU?
    a. CW, AM, FM, and PM
    b. AM, FM, PM, and DM
    c. CW, AM, PM, and side-lobe suppression
    d. CW, AM, FM, and side-lobe suppression
    CW, AM, PM, and side-lobe suppression
  86. what is the output frequency range of the IAIS MSU's frequency synthesizer SRU, as referenced from the 10- MHz reference in the MMU's low-frequency receiver SRU?
    a. 2.4 - 12.4 GHz
    b. 2.4 MHz - 12.4 GHz
    c. 2 - 18.5 GHz
    d. 2 MHz - 18.5 GHz
    2.4 - 12.4 GHz
  87. the IAIS MMU measures RF signals ranging from
    a. DC - 30 MHz
    b. DC - 10.5 GHz
    c. 30 MHz - 18.5 GHz
    d. 2.4 - 12.4 GHz
    30 MHz - 18.5 GHz
  88. in the IAIS MMU, what SRU's output is routed to the self-test CCA, which then provide accurate power measurement and a wide dynamic range for CW and pulsed signals?
    a. RF input and downconverter
    b. IF log/lin receiver
    c. dual arbitrary function generator
    d. counter/timer interface
    IF log/lin receiver
  89. which IAIS MMU component provides gate signals to the timing generator/counter-timer CCA for frequency measurements?
    a. counter/timer interface SRU
    b. RF input and downconverter generator CCA
    c. dual arbitrary function generator CCA
    d. self-test CCA
    self-test CCA
  90. what optical test bench assembly provides stimulus to the ambient light sensors of the wide-angle conventional HUD unit and diffractive optics HUD unit?
    a. light source
    b. digital theodolite
    c. photometric adapter
    d. theodolite interface
    light source
  91. when viewed from the optical test bench's digital theodolite, what establishes the optical reference?
    a. 2-inch mirror
    b. 4-inch mirror
    c. precision gimbal
    d. calibration fixture assembly
    calibration fixture assembly
  92. the power distribution system on the optical test bench receives its power from the
    a. PSU
    b. PCU
    c. FCU
    d. CDU
    PCU
  93. the programmable output range of the variable DC power supply on the optical test bench is
    a. 0 to +5 VDC; 0.8 amp
    b. 0 to +10 VDC; 1.2 amp
    c. 0 to +18 VDC; 1.6 amp
    d. 0 to +24 VDC; 2.0 amp
    0 to +18 VDC; 1.6 amp
  94. the input voltage tolerance for the line power monitor on the IAIS PCU is
    a. 177 - 268 VAC phase-to-phase, or 107 - 156 VAC phase-to-neutral
    b. 177 - 268 VAC phase-to-neutral, or 107 - 156 VAC phase-to-phase
    c. 107 - 156 VAC phase-to-neutral only
    d. 177 - 268 VAC phase-to-phase only
    177 - 268 VAC phase-to-phase, or 107 - 156 VAC phase-to-neutral
  95. the power factor correction circuitry in the power conversion assembly of the improved avionics intermediate shop power and control unit
    a. can be disabled through software control
    b. prevents overvoltage and overcurrent conditions
    c. ensures the input current is in phase with the input voltage
    d. ensures the input current is in phase with the output current
    ensures the input current is in phase with the input voltage
  96. the RF filter interference assemblies in the IAIS PCU are designed to
    a. eliminate RF noise interference from the PCU output
    b. eliminate RF noise interference from the input power source
    c. provide 60 amps of circuit protection for the PCU when facility power becomes unstable
    d. provide 125 amps of circuit protection for the PCU when facility power becomes unstable
    provide 125 amps of circuit protection for the PCU when facility power becomes unstable
  97. the IAIS PSU is configured for interface with the station computer by means of
    a. three four-position DIP switches located on the GPIB interface CCA
    b. three eight-position DIP switches located on the GPIB interface CCA
    c. two four-position DIP switches located on the GPIB interface CCA
    d. two eight-position DIP switches located on the GPIB interface CCA
    two eight-position DIP switches located on the GPIB interface CCA
  98. on the IAIS FCU, the 800- Hz module assembly gets its operating power from the
    a. auxiliary bias supply
    b. three-phase reference assembly
    c. 1.75 logic bias supply assembly
    d. +-200 VDC capacitor bank
    auxiliary bias supply
  99. the IAIS refrigeration unit begins conditioning the UUT cooling air coming from the blower unit when the
    a. refrigeration control and fault monitor CCA receives a HITEMP signal from the UUT
    b. refrigeration control and fault monitor CCA receives a HITEMP signal from the blower unit
    c. air from the blower unit exceeds 62.6 degrees C
    d. air from the blower unit exceeds 62.6 degrees F
    air from the blower unit exceeds 62.6 degrees F
  100. when operating under manual control, the IAIS blower unit
    a. overrides the general-purpose interface bus mode
    b. protects the unit from drawing too much current
    c. regulates air outlet temperature
    d. operates at minimum speed
    overrides the general-purpose interface bus mode

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