CPT e Teach.txt

Card Set Information

Author:
ptvogel
ID:
190663
Filename:
CPT e Teach.txt
Updated:
2012-12-27 08:04:06
Tags:
NASM CPT
Folders:

Description:
NASM eTeach CPT 4
Show Answers:

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview

The flashcards below were created by user ptvogel on FreezingBlue Flashcards. What would you like to do?


  1. Division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages
    Periodization
  2. Principle that states the body will adapt to the specific demands that are placed on it
    • Principle of specificity
    • (SAID principle)
  3. Muscular exercises using different weights and movements to increase strength or endurance in certain body parts
    Mechanical Specificity
  4. Muscular exercises using different speeds and styles to increase neuromuscular efficiency
    Neuromuscular Specificity
  5. Muscular exercises using different levels of energy that are performed to increase endurance, strength, or power
    Metabolic Specificity
  6. The ability of the neuromuscular system to provide internal tension and exert force against external resistance
    Strength
  7. The ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods
    Strength Endurance
  8. The ability of the body to maintain postural equilibrium and support joints during movement
    Stability
  9. The ability of the body to produce low levels of force and maintain them for extended periods of time
    Muscular Endurance
  10. Enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension
    (increasing muscle size)
    Hypertrophy
  11. The maximum force an individual's muscle can produce in a single voluntary effort, regardless of the rate of force produce
    Maximal Strength
  12. The ability to exert maximal force in the shortest amount of time
    Power
  13. Phase of training that:
    Improve muscular endurance
    Improve neuromuscular efficiency
    Increase flexibility
    Training is unstable, yet controllable envir
    Low loads high repetitions
    Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance Training
  14. Phase of training that:
    Improve stabilization endurance
    Increase prime mover strength
    Improve overall work capacity
    Increase lean body mass
    Utilize active flexibility
    Moderate loads and reps
    Superset a strength exercise with a stabilization exercise
    Phase 2: Strength Endurance Training
  15. Phase of training that:
    Acheive optimum levels of muscular hypertrophy
    Utilize active flexibility
    High volume, High loads
    Moderate or low repetitions
    Phase 3: Hypertrophy Training
  16. Phase of training that:
    Increase Peak Force
    Motor Unit recruitment
    Frequency of motor unit recruitment
    Utilize active flexibility
    High Loads, low reps
    Longer rest periods
    Phase 4: Maximum Strength Training
  17. Phase of training that:
    Increase rate of force productions
    Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
    Enhance prime mover strength
    Enhance speed strength
    Utilize dynamic flexibility
    Superset 1 strength & 1 power exercise
    Perform power exercises as fast as can be controlled
    Phase 5: Power Training
  18. Lower body exercise progression
    • Two-leg
    • Split stance
    • Single-leg
  19. Upper body exercise progression
    • Two-arm
    • Alternating arm
    • Single-arm
  20. A resistance training system that is a variation of curcuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the curcuit is called
    Peripheral heart action
  21. A squat, curl, to two arm press exercise is an example of an exercise from which phase in the OPT model?
    Strength
  22. Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles within the same muscles; this phenomenon is called?
    a. Reciprocal inhibition 
    b. Override mechanism 
    c. Autogenic inhibition 
    d. Neural inhibition
    c. Autogenic inhibition
  23. What is the best example of a zone two cardiorespiratory workout?
    a. Walking at a medium pace 
    b. Taking a group exercise class 
    c. Sprinting 
    d. Jogging at a slow pace
    b. Taking a group exercise class
  24. What is the low-end percentage of maximum heart rate used in zone three?
    a. 65%-75% 
    b. 76%-79% 
    c. 91%-94% 
    d. 86%-90%
    86%-90%
  25. The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?
    Flexibility
  26. What is the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns?
    a. Postural distortion patterns 
    b. Relative flexibility 
    c. Muscle imbalance 
    d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction
    b. Relative flexibility
  27. Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?
    a. Core-Stabilization 
    b. Core Strength 
    c. Core-Power 
    d. Core-Reactive
    c. Core-Power 
  28. Which of the following is an example of a Core  Stabilization level exercise?
    a. Ball crunch 
    b. Back extensions 
    c. Two-leg floor bridge 
    d. Rotation chest pass
    c. Two-leg floor bridge
  29. With the movement compensation of arms fall forward, for what area would a client use foam rolling and static stretching techniques?
    a. Latissimus dorsi 
    b. Rhomboids 
    c. Lower trapezius 
    d. Upper trapezius
    a. Latissimus dorsi 
  30. During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, what muscles would most likely be underactive?
    Mid and lowertrapezius 
  31. During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive? 
    a. Gluteus medius 
    b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO) 
    c. TFL (Tensor Fascia Latae) 
    d. Medial hamstrings
    c. TFL (Tensor Fascia Latae)
  32. What describes the alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows our center of gravity to be maintained over our base of support?
    a. Posture 
    b. Structural efficiency 
    c. Postural equilibrium 
    d. Neuromuscular efficiency
    b. Structural efficiency 
  33. Which of the following would be for best for measuring body fat percentages in an obese client?
    a. Circumference measurements 
    b. Body mass index 
    c. Skin fold measurements 
    d. Waist to hip ratio
    a. Circumference measurements 
  34. When performing the overhead squat assessment from the anterior view, which areas should the fitness professional focus on?
    Feet, ankles, and knees 
  35. Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?
    a. Davies test 
    b. Overhead squat assessment 
    c. Shark skill test 
    d. Lower extremity strength assessment: squat
    Shark skill test 
  36. The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow agonists, antagonist, and stabilizers to work synergistically to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize the entire kinetic chain in all three planes of motion.
    Neuromuscular efficiency
  37. The concept of muscle inhibition, caused by a tight agonist, which inhibits its functional antagonist
    Altered reciprocal inhibition
  38. The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover
    Synergistic dominance
  39. Cumulative injury cycle
    • Tissue trauma
    • Inflammation
    • Muscle spasm
    • Adhesions (knots)
    • Altered neuromuscular control
    • Muscle imbalance
  40. States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress, creating alterations in normal tissue extenibility and causes relative flexibility
    Davis's law
  41. Flexibility continum
    • Corrective flexibility
    • Active flexibility
    • Functional flexibility
  42. Stretching techniques that focuses on the fiberous tissue that surrounds and separates muscle tissue, by applying gentle force to adhesions (knots)
    Self-Myofascial release
  43. The state in which the body's metabolism is elevated after exercise; meaning the body is burning more calories after exercise than before the exercise was initiated
    Excess post exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC)
  44. Programs consisting of a series of resistance training exercises that an individual performs, one after the other, with minimum rest.
    Circuit training
  45. The lumbo-pelvic-hip complex and the thoracic and cervical spine, where the body's center of gravity is located
    Core
  46. How many muscles are attached to the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
    29
  47. The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle. The muscles need to sustain contractions for 6-20 seconds
    Intramuscular coordination
  48. The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all musclesto work together with proper activation and timing between them; primarily geared toward movement of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex.
    Intermuscular coordination
  49. Muscles of the core
    • Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex
    • Thoracic
    • Cervical spine
  50. The __________ system consists of:
    Transverse abdominis
    Internal obliques
    Pelvic floor musculature
    Diaphragm
    Transversospinalis
    Multifidus
    Slow twitch type I muscle fibers
    Core-stabilization system
  51. The _______system consists of:
    Rectus abdominis
    Erector spinae
    External obliques
    Latissimus dorsi
    Adductors
    Hamstrings
    Iliopsoas
    Core-movement system
  52. Exercises designed to improve functional capacity (and examples)
    • Core-Stabilization
    • Marching
    • Floor bridge
    • Floor prone cobra
    • Prone iso-ab
  53. Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movements of the spine throughout a full range of motion
    (and examples)
    • Core-Strength
    • Ball crunch
    • Back extensions
    • Reverse crunch
    • Cable rotations
  54. Exercises designed to improve rate of force production (and examples)
    • Core-Power
    • Rotation chest pass
    • Ball medicine ball pullover throw
    • Front MD oblique throw
    • Woodchop throw
  55. Fitness assessment
    Subjective information
    • General & Medical history:
    •    Occupation
    •    Lifestyle
    •    Medical
    •    Personal info
  56. Fitness assessment
    Objective information
    • Physiologic assessments
    • Body composition testing
    • Cardiorespiratory assessments
    • Static and Dynamic postural assessments
    • Performance assessments
  57. PAR-Q
    Physical Activity Readiness Questionaire
  58. PAR-Q Sample Questions
    • 1. Has your Dr ever said that you have a heart condition
    • 2. Do you feel pain in your chest when you perform    physical activity or when not doing PT
    • 3. Do you lose balance because of dizziness
    • 4. Do you have bone or joint problems
    • 5. Do you take blood pressure medication
    • 6.  Do you know of any other reason why you should not engage in physical activity
  59. Client occupation sample questions:
    • 1.  What is your current occupation
    • 2.  Does your occupation require extended periods of sitting
    • 3.  Does your occupation require extended periods of repetitive movements
    • 4.  Do you wear shoes with heels
    • 5.  Does your occupation cause anxiety
  60. Client lifestyle sample questions
    • 1.  Do you partake in any recreational activities (golf, tennis, skiing, etc.)
    • 2.  Do you have any hobbies (reading, gardening, working on cars, etc.)
  61. Client medical history sample questions
    • 1. Have you ever had any pain or injuries
    • 2. Have you ever had any surgeries
    • 3. Has a medical Dr. ever diagnosed you with a chronic disease
    • 4. Are you currently taking any medications
  62. A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following?
    a. Leg-power 
    b. Leg-stabilization 
    c. Balance-stabilization 
    d. Balance-power
    d. Balance-power 
  63. A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called?
    a. Overworking 
    b. Alarm reaction 
    c. Exhaustion 
    d. Resistance development
    c. Exhaustion 
  64. A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model?
    a. Stabilization 
    b. Strength 
    c. Power 
    d. Reactive
    b. Strength 
  65. Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following?
    a. The top number in the blood pressure reading 
    b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts 
    c. The larger of the two numbers 
    d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
    d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
  66. During the pushing assessment, you notice your client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them?
    a. Chin tuck 
    b. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise 
    c. Ball wall squats 
    d. Ball cobra
    d. Ball cobra
  67. For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid?
    a. Treadmills 
    b. Bicycles 
    c. Elliptical trainers 
    d. Group exercise classes
    b. Bicycles 
  68. If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?
    a. Soleus 
    b. Biceps femoris (short head) 
    c. Medial gastrocnemius 
    d. TFL
    c. Medial gastrocnemius 
  69. Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system?
    a. Multiple set 
    b. Pyramid 
    c. Circuit training 
    d. Vertical loading
    b. Pyramid 
  70. The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements?
    a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation 
    b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation 
    c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and internal rotation 
    d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
    d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation 
  71. What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability?
    a. Shark skill 
    b. Upper extremity strength 
    c. Davies 
    d. Overhead squat
    c. Davies 
  72. What effect do beta-blockers have on a client’s blood pressure?
    Decreases blood pressure
  73. What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system?
    The amount of time typically spent resting can addup to more time than the workout 
  74. What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment?
    a. 1%-2% 
    b. 5%-10% 
    c. 10%-15% 
    d. 15%-20%
    b. 5%-10% 
  75. What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as?
    Plyometric-power 
  76. When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, what kinetic chain checkpoints are observed
    Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
  77. When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscles?
    Adductor complex
  78. When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform?
    a. Romanian deadlift 
    b. Squat Jump 
    c. Seated row 
    d. Single-leg cable row
    c. Seated row 
  79. When performing theoverhead squat assessment, your client’s arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive?
    a. Rhomboids 
    b. Supraspinatus 
    c. Teres major 
    d. Teres minor 
    c. Teres major 
  80. When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression?
    a. Single-leg, alternating arm 
    b. Single-leg, single-arm 
    c. Two legs 
    d. Seated 
    c. Two legs 
  81. When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?
    a. Balance-power 
    b. Balance-strength 
    c. Balance-stabilization 
    d. Balance-plyometric 
    b. Balance-strength 
  82. When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground?
    Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed 
  83. Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?
    a. Seated cable row 
    b. Standing cable row 
    c. Medicine ball pull over throw 
    d. Seated lat pull down 
    b. Standing cable row 
  84. Which of the following exercises is the best example of a stabilization level exercise?
    a. Lunge to two-arm press 
    b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press 
    c. Barbell squat 
    d. Squat jumps to stabilization 
    b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press 
  85. Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?
    a. Tuck jump 
    b. One-ins 
    c. Ice skaters 
    d. Power step-ups 
    b. One-ins 
  86. Which of the following is considered a core power exercise?
    a. Cable rotation 
    b. Back extension 
    c. Rotation chest pass 
    d. Marching 
    c. Rotation chest pass 
  87. Which of the following muscles is considered part of the global stabilization system?
    a. Internal oblique 
    b. External oblique 
    c. Diaphragm 
    d. Hip flexors 
    b. External oblique 
  88. You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use?
    a. Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching 
    b. Self-myofascial release only 
    c. Self-myofascial release and static stretching 
    d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching 
    d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching 
  89. You observe that your client’s knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment; what muscle would you foam roll and static stretch?
    a. TFL 
    b. Glute medius 
    c. VMO 
    d. Medial hamstring
    TFL (Tensor Fascia Latae)
  90. What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test?
    a. Zone 1 
    b. Zone 2 
    c. Zone 3 
    d. Zone 4
    b. Zone 2 
  91. A client with goal of improving general performance should specifically be cycled through which phases
    • Phase 1: Stabilization
    • Phase 2: Strength endurance
    • Phase 5: Power
  92. How long does it take for the body to replenish 100% of its ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) supplies?
    3 minutes
  93. Performing two exercises in rapid succession with minimal rest
    Superset
  94. Which phase(s) of training uses superset techniques?
    • Phase 2: Strength endurance
    • Phase 5: Power
  95. Acute variables determine which of the following?
    a. What type of workout is being done 
    b. Progression of the exercise 
    c. Proper kinetic chain alignment 
    d. The amount of stress placed on the body 
    d. The amount of stress placed on the body 
  96. During a Phase 3: Hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval?
    0-60 seconds 
  97. During the stabilization phase, which tempo would be most appropriate for resistance training exercises?
    a. 3/2/1 
    b. 2/0/2 
    c. 4/2/1 
    d. 1/1/1 
    c. 4/2/1 
  98. In Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise should be completed?
    2-4 
  99. In Phase 3: Hypertrophy training, what is the appropriate tempo to use for a core exercise?
    a. Slow 
    b. Medium 
    c. Fast 
    d. Explosive 
    b. Medium 
  100. In the power phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate?
    a. Step-up followed by tuck jump 
    b. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump 
    c. Step-up followed by barbell squat 
    d. Barbell squat followed by step-up 
    b. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump 
  101. In the strength endurance phase, which exercise superset would be most appropriate?
    a. Bench press followed by a push-up 
    b. Push-up followed by bench press 
    c. Push-up followed by a seated cable row 
    d. Bench press followed by a soccer throw
    a. Bench press followed by a push-up
  102. The adaptation ofmuscular endurance is achieved by which of the following?
    a. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM 
    b. 2-4 sets, 12-25 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM 
    c. 2-4 sets, 12-25 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM 
    d. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM 
    d. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM 
  103. When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum a client would not exceed a workout volume of?
    a. 20 reps 
    b. 10 reps 
    c. 60 reps 
    d. 30 reps 
    d. 30 reps 
  104. When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per exercise should be performed?
    a. 6-10 
    b. 1-5 
    c. 8-12 
    d. 4-8
    b. 1-5 
  105. Mechanoreceptor that:
    Senses tension and rate of tension developed and cause relaxation
    Golgi tendon organs
  106. Mechanoreceptor that:
    Senses pressure, acceleration, and deceleration at a joint
    Joint receptors
  107. Mechanoreceptor that:
    Senses length and rate of length change, causing contraction
    Muscle spindles
  108. What kind of muscle fibers are "fast twitch"?
    Type II
  109. All movement is directly dictated by the nervous system.
    True
    False
    True
  110. The 3 components of the cardiovascular system
    • Heart
    • Blood 
    • Blood vessels
  111. Sagittal plane exercises:
    • Biceps curl
    • Triceps pushdowns
    • Squat
    • Front lunge 
    • Calf raise
    • Walking running
  112. Frontal plane exercises
    • Side lateral raise
    • Side lunge
    • Side shuffle
  113. Transverse plane exercises
    • Trunk rotation
    • Throwing
    • Golfing
    • Swinging a bat
  114. Abduction and adduction occur in which plane of motion
    Frontal
  115. Arterioles branch out into vessels know as:
    a. Venules 
    b. Capillaries 
    c. Bloodvessels 
    d. Veins
    b. Capillaries 
  116. What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat?
    a. Cardiac output 
    b. Heart rate 
    c. Stroke volume 
    d. Blood pressure 
    a. Cardiac output 
  117. Where does reoxygenated blood leave the heart and go to the entire body?
    a. Right ventricle 
    b. Left ventricle 
    c. Right atrium 
    d. Left atrium
    b. Left ventricle 
  118. Which of the following are the two most important functions of the skeletal system?
    a. Transference of energy and support 
    b. Transference of energy and movement assistance 
    c. Leverage and movement assistance 
    d. Leverage and support 
    d. Leverage and support 
  119. Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds?
    a. ATP-CP 
    b. Glycolysis 
    c. Oxidative 
    d. Krebs cycle 
    b. Glycolysis 
  120. Which of the following is an example of a force-couple
    relationship?
    a. Posterior deltoid and pectoralis major during a bench press 
    b. Gluteus maximus and psoas during a lunge 
    c. Internal and external oblique during a medicine ball side throw 
    d. Deltoid and latissimus dorsi during a shoulder press 
    c. Internal and external oblique during a medicine ball side throw 
  121. Responsible for movement of bones around a joint?
    Torque
  122. The primary function of the muscular system
    To be commanded to move the skeletal system 
  123. Which of the following muscles aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints?
    a. Pectoralis minor 
    b. Lower trapezius 
    c. Serratus anterior 
    d. Rhomboids
    a. Pectoralis minor 
  124. A cellular structure that supplies energy for many biochemical cellular processes by undergoing enzymatic hydrolysis is known as:
    a. adenenosine triphosphate. 
    b. blood. 
    c. neurotransmitters. 
    d. mitochondria. 
    a. adenenosine triphosphate
  125. After completing the three-minute step test, the client falls into the category of fair. What training zone would ideally fit this client's current cardiorespiratory capabilities?
    Zone 1 
  126. All of the following items are potential responses in the system when a stressor is too much to handle EXCEPT:
    a. Stress fracture 
    b. Muscle strain 
    c. Emotional fatigue 
    d. Muscle spasm 
    d. Muscle spasm 
  127. Amino acids that are manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen and fragments of carbohydrate and fat are termed what?
    Non-essential 
  128. Ankle sprains have been shown to decrease neural control to which of the following muscles?
    a. Gluteus medius 
    b. Tensor fascia latae 
    c. Lateral gastrocnemius 
    d. Anterior tibialis 
    a. Gluteus medius 
  129. Balance and neuromuscular efficiency are improved through repetitive exposure to a variety of which of the following kinds of conditions?
    a. Multisensory conditions 
    b. Unusual conditions 
    c. Motor conditions 
    d. Progressive conditions 
    a. Multisensory conditions 
  130. Skin-fold, bioelectrical impedance, and underwater weighing assess which of the following?
    Body fat 
  131. If a client demonstrates the movement compensation of an arching low back (anterior pelvic tilt) during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following choices would be implicated as being tight (overactive)?
    a. Rectus abdominus 
    b. Multifidi 
    c. Erector spinae 
    d. Adductor complex 
    c. Erector spinae 
  132. If a client demonstrates the movement compensation of feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak (underactive)?
    a. Psoas 
    b. Lateral gastrocnemius 
    c. Soleus 
    d. Medial gastrocnemius 
    d. Medial gastrocnemius 
  133. If a client's low back arches while pressing overhead, it could be indicative of which of the following?
    a. Overactive intrinsic core stabilizers 
    b. Overactive latissimus dorsi 
    c. Underactive hip flexors 
    d. Overactive biceps femoris 
    b. Overactive latissimus dorsi 
  134. If it is noticed that a client's arms fall forward during the descent part of the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak
    (underactive)?
    a. Latissimus dorsi 
    b. Pectoralis minor 
    c. Lower trapezius 
    d. Teres major 
    c. Lower trapezius 
  135. If protein intake exceeds the need for synthesis and energy needs are met, what then happens next?
    a. It is excreted through the system 
    b. It is used for muscle growth 
    c. It is deaminated and stored as fat 
    d. It reduces water retention 
    c. It is deaminated and stored as fat 
  136. In the integrated flexibility continuum, static stretching is considered what type of flexibility?
    a. Corrective 
    b. Active 
    c. Functional 
    d. Neuromuscular 
    a. Corrective 
  137. Knowing that a client wears dress shoes to work is helpful for the Health and Fitness Professional to know during an assessment because:
    it indicates that the client's ankle complex willbe in a plantar flexed position for extended periods of time. 
  138. Alterations in length-tension relationships, force-couple
    relationships, and arthrokinematics can decrease what
    Neuromuscular control 
  139. Amino acids that are manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen and fragments of carbohydrates and fats are termed what?
    Non-essential 
  140. Prolonged golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle, resulting in:
    a. reciprocal inhibition. 
    b. excitation inhibition. 
    c. facilitation inhibition. 
    d. autogenic inhibition. 
    d. autogenic inhibition. 
  141. If a client demonstrates the movement compensation of feet turning out during the overhead squat assessment, which of the following options would likely be considered weak (underactive)?
    a. Psoas 
    b. Lateral gastrocnemius 
    c. Soleus 
    d. Medial gastrocnemius 
    d. Medial gastrocnemius 
  142. What is the recommended rest interval between pairs when training in the Power Level of the Optimum Performance Training Model?
    1 - 2 minutes 
  143. What is the term given to an anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body?
    a. Contralateral 
    b. Abduction 
    c. Lateral 
    d. Ipsilateral 
    d. Ipsilateral 
  144. What motion is the rectus abdominus responsible for?
    a. Concentrically accelerating spinal extension 
    b. Eccentrically decelerating spinal flexion 
    c. Eccentrically decelerating ipsilateral rotation only 
    d. Concentrically accelerating spinal flexion 
    d. Concentrically accelerating spinal flexion 
  145. Which of the following heart rate training zones increases endurance and trains the anaerobic threshold?
    a. Zone 1 
    b. Zone 2 
    c. Zone 3 
    b. Zone 2 
  146. The idea that there is a certain/optimum length at which a muscle can produce the greatest amount of force is termed what?
    a. Force-Velocity curve 
    b. Force-Couple relationship 
    c. Muscular leverage 
    d. Length-Tension relationship 
    d. Length-Tension relationship 
  147. The single most functional unit of the nervous system is a neuron. What are its three major components?
    • Cell body
    • Axon
    • Dendrites
  148. Which of the following energy source(s) are used while training in the first Phase of the OPT Model, Stabilization Endurance Training?
    Oxidative and Glycolyisis
  149. The amino acid that is missing or present in the smallest amount is termed:
    a. lacking factor. 
    b. limiting factor. 
    c. essential amino acid. 
    d. incomplete protein. 
    b. limiting factor. 
  150. Metabolic specificity is best defined as:
    a. the weights and movements placed on the body. 
    b. the speed of contraction and exercise selection. 
    c. the energy demand placed on the body. 
    d. the number of calories taken to complete the exercise.
    c. the energy demand placed on the body. 
  151. What four sites of the body are used to determine a sum for the Durnin-Womersley formula
    • Biceps
    • Triceps
    • Subscapular
    • Iliacncrest
  152. When performing the Shark skill test, how much time do you add to the completion time for each fault
    0.10 seconds

What would you like to do?

Home > Flashcards > Print Preview