Volume 3 (UREs)

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sisney
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19141
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Volume 3 (UREs)
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2010-05-13 11:33:00
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volume 3 ure
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  1. what voltages do the power supplies in the digital defensive ATE augmentation equipment (DAAE) power distribution group provide to the functional test groups (FTG)?
    a. 5 VDC, +-28 VDC, and 15 VDC
    b. 4 VDC, 12 VDC, and +-30 VDC
    c. 5 VDC, 12 VDC, and +-15 VDC
    d. +-1 VDC, 12 VDC, and +-28 VDC
    5 VDC, 12 VDC, and +-15 VDC
  2. the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) functional test group (FTG) that provides the programmed input/output (I/O) scenario and direct memory access for the control interface unit (CIU) line replaceable unit (LRU) is the
    a. test module adapter (TMA)
    b. avionics control unit (ACU)
    c. control interface unit (CIU)
    d. emitter simulator processor (ESP)
    avionics control unit (ACU)
  3. which functional test group (FTG) is used to test the control interface unit (CIU) line replaceable unit (LRU) in conjunction with the CIU FTG?
    a. test module adapter (TMA)
    b. avionics control unit (ACU)
    c. advanced tracking unit (ATU)
    d. emitter simulator processor (ESP)
    avionics control unit (ACU)
  4. the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) test adapter group (TAG) serves what testing purpose?
    a. digital DAAE selt-test
    b. digital (DIG) test station self-test
    c. test module adapter self-test
    d. DIG test station performance test
    digital DAAE self-test
  5. on the defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), what wire list includes columns labeled LEVEL 1 GOES TO and LEVEL 2 GOES TO?
    a. wire-wrap list
    b. signal family list
    c. cable termination list
    d. double-entry wire listing
    double-entry listing
  6. on the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), the SIGNAL NUMBER column of the double-entry wire list is used to cross-reference with what other list?
    a. wire-wrap
    b. signal name
    c. signal family
    d. cable termination
    signal family
  7. on the digital defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE), which of the following abbreviated test language for all systems (ATLAS) constructs is peculiar to the radio frequency (RF) DAAE only?
    a. DIRECTION-FINDING
    b. PATTERN-GENERATOR
    c. INTERFACE-START
    d. BUS-RESPONSE
    PATTERN-GENERATOR
  8. routing of alternating current (AC) power to line replaceable unit (LRU) power supplies in the radio frequency (RF) module is performed by the
    a. computer assembly
    b. controlled turn-on panel
    c. direct current (DC) power switching unit
    d. microwave signal conditioner
    controlled turn-on panel
  9. the FLAG OUT signal generated by the radio frequency (RF) module controlled turn-on panel assembly
    a. identifies a fault in the power supply sense lines
    b. enables the relays on the power switch driver circuit card assembly (CCA)
    c. tells the computer that one or more direct current (DC) power supplies are enabled
    d. denotes an overload condition in one or more of the DC power supplies
    tells the computer that one or more direct current (DC) power supplies are enabled
  10. the operation that best describes a radio frequency (RF) module direct current (DC) power switching assembly is it
    a. removes DC power from the RF module when the interface test adapter (ITA) interlock is enabled
    b. shuts down the DC power supplies when FLAG OUT occurs
    c. routes alternating current (AC) power to the line replaceable unit (LRU) power supplies
    d. routes DC power to the test station interface connector assembly (ICA)
    routes DC power to the test station interface connector assembly (ICA)
  11. the reference frequency for the radio frequency (RF) module microwave signal conditioner (MSC) and spectrum analyzer is provided by the RF synthesizer
    a. 3A1A4
    b. 3A1A3
    c. 3A1A2
    d. 3A1A1
    3A1A4
  12. phase shifting of a pulsed radio frequency (RF) input by 0 and 180 degrees defines
    a. biphase modulation
    b. pulse modulation
    c. phase noise
    d. carrier noise
    biphase modulation
  13. which radio frequency (RF) module tester replaceable unit (TRU) is used specifically for making measurements?
    a. microwave signal conditioner (MSC)
    b. phase noise analyzer
    c. MSC power supply
    d. spectrum analyzer
    spectrum analyzer
  14. which characteristic is necessary to make a phase noise measurement?
    a. identical frequency, constantly changing amplitude
    b. differenty frequencies, constantly changing amplitude
    c. identical frequency, constantly changing phase relationship
    d. different frequencies, constantly changing phas relationship
    identical frequency, constantly changing phase relationship
  15. the radio frequency (RF) module power meter is capable of measureing RF power with a range of
    a. -90 to +20 decibels referenced to one milliwatt (dBm)
    b. -70 to +70 dBm
    c. -70 to +35 dBm
    d. -35 to +70 dBm
    -70 to +35 dBm
  16. the signal characteristics that can be measured by the microwave signal conditioner (MSC) in the radio frequency (RF) module are
    a. power, pulse repetition frequency (PRF), and rise/fall time
    b. frequency deviation, modulation frequency, and power
    c. rise/fall time, PRF, and modulation frequency
    d. percent of modulation, frequency, and power
    rise/fall time, PRF, and modulation frequency
  17. frequency modulation (FM) deviation is
    a. variations in amplitude of a radio frequency (RF) signal
    b. the amplitude of the modulating signal
    c. the phase shifting of a pulsed RF input by 0 and 180 degrees
    d. two signals of identical frequency experience a constantly changing phase relationship
    the amplitude of the modulating signal
  18. the signals required by the microwave signal conditioner (MSC) when making a biphase measurement are biphase modulated radio frequency (RF),
    a. LO1, LO2 and line replaceable unit (LRU) 50 MHz REF (reference)
    b. LO1, LO2, and LRU 75 MHz REF
    c. amplitude modulation (AM) REF, LO1, and LRU 50 MHz REF
    d. amplitude modulation REF, LO1, and LRU 75 MHz REF
    LO1, LO2, and line replaceable unit (LRU) 50 MHz REF (reference)
  19. abbreviated test language for all systems (ATLAS) statements peculiar to radar/electronic warfare (R/EW) test stations are used for all of the following except
    a. radio frequency synthesizers
    b. spectrum analyzer
    c. 5.6 kilohertz (kHz) power sourced
    d. fixed direct current (DC) power supplies
    5.6 kiloherts (kHz) power sourced
  20. the abbreviated test language for all systems (ATLAS) command that can be used only during internal confidence testing, when you are programming the fixed direct current (DC) power supply is
    a. APPLY
    b. SETUP
    c. CLOSE
    d. OPEN
    SETUP
  21. the abbreviated test language for all systems (ATLAS) command that performs the same function as the VERIFY command, but without the evaluation field, is
    a. READ
    b. APPLY
    c. MEASURE
    d. MONITOR
    MEASURE
  22. where are the entry and exit ports, respectively, for airflow through the station cabinets?
    a. top, rear
    b. side, top
    c. rear, top
    d. front, top
    rear, top
  23. during the testing of the radio frequency (RF) source (RFS) band 4 through band 8 line replaceable unit (LRU), what provides the digital signal processing and control in response to the intermediate automatic test equipment's (IATE) program?
    a. RF defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE)
    b. radar/electronic warfare (R/EW) test station
    c. monitor and control system
    d. band 4 through band 8 receiver functional test group (FTG)
    RF defensive auutomatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE)
  24. what radio frequency (RF) defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) functional test group (FTG) consists of processors, receivers, and pulse generators under test module adapter (TMA) FTG control?
    a. frequency encoder
    b. waveform generator
    c. tail warning receiver
    d. emitter simulator processor
    frequency encoder
  25. which self-test configuration uses the defensive automatic test equipment (ATE) augmentation equipment (DAAE) interface adapter (ITA), intermediate automatic test equipment (IATE) ITA, self-test adapter (STA), and self-test cables but nothing is required to be connected to the RF DAAE?
    a. R/EW self-test
    b. RF DAAE self-test
    c. RF DAAE test adapter group (TAG) self-test
    d. digital (DIG) self-test
    RF DAAE test adapter group (TAG) self-test
  26. the cable termination list can be used for
    a. wire tracing
    b. assembly procedures
    c. disassembly procedures
    d. troubleshooting and assembly procedures
    troublshooting and assembly procedures
  27. where does facility alternatingg current (AC) power enter the advanced digital test station?
    a. primary AC box
    b. secondary AC box
    c. control panel assembly
    d. master power distribution unit
    primary AC box
  28. in the advanced digital test station, what is the output range of the six direct current (DC) source meters?
    a. 1 microvolt to 45 volts
    b. 1 microvolt to 63 volts
    c. 5 microvolts to 45 volts
    d. 5 microvolts to 63 volts
    5 microvolts to 63 volts
  29. how many and of what size are the removable mass storage drives used in the advanced digital test station controller?
    a. 1, 40 gigabyte (GB)
    b. 2, 40 GB
    c. 1, 80 GB
    d. 2, 80 GB
    2, 80 GB
  30. on the advanced digital test station, which interface uses the Resource Manager (ResMan) communication utility program to establish a bus communication path?
    a. VXI
    b. data acquisition (DAQ)
    c. general-purpose interface bus (GPIB)
    d. ethernet
    VXI
  31. on the advanced digital test station, what components must be removed and replaced as a set because of factory calibration?
    a. the two VM2601 14-bit digitizers
    b. the SMP1200-S-11267 attenuator and the VM2164 two channel time interval counter (TIC)
    c. the VM2164 two channel TIC and one VM2601 14-bit digitizer
    d. the VM2164 two channel TIC, two VM2601 14-bit digitizers, and the SMP1200-S-11267 attenuator
    the VM2164 two channel TIC, two VM2601 14-bit digitizers, and the SMP1200-S-11267 attenuator
  32. in the advanced digital test station's Agilent 33250A arbitrary waveform generator, what are the upper-frequency limits for sine and square wave outputs and for pulse waveform outputs, respectively?
    a. 50 MHz, 80 MHz
    b. 80 MHz, 50 MHz
    c. 50 GHz, 80 GHz
    d. 80 GHz, 50 GHz
    80 MHz, 50 MHz
  33. the flow rate of cooling oil from the oil-cooling cart to the line replaceable unit (LRU) being tested is determined by the
    a. requirements of the unit under test (UUT)
    b. viscosity of the cooling cart
    c. temperature of the coolant
    d. number of LRUs being tested
    requirements of the unit under test (UUT)
  34. which of the following is true about the operation of the oil-cooling cart?
    a. up to four line replaceable units (LRU) can be cooled at one time
    b. the flow rate of coolant is indicated on pressure guages
    c. the flow rate of the hydraulic circuits is not independently variable
    d. unused hydraulic circuit is bypassed with a jumper hose assembly
    unused hydraulic circuit is bypassed with a jumper hose assembly
  35. in the L939 test system, all of the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's line replaceable unit test software is executed in what program?
    a. world view
    b. board watch
    c. virtual memory system
    d. Hewlett-Packard Visual Engineering Environment
    Hewlett-Packard Visual Engineering Environment
  36. in the L939 test system, which communication system connects all of the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's computer systems together?
    a. ethernet
    b. recommended standard 232
    c. Hewlett-Packard interface bus
    d. general-purpose interface bus
    ethernet
  37. in the L939 test system, which component alerts the operator to problems with the communication system that connects all of the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's computers together?
    a. Digital Equipment Corporation (DEC) 90T
    b. ST500 ethernet transceiver
    c. DEC bridge 90FL
    d. DEC server 700
    ST500 ethernet transceiver
  38. how many Hewlett-Packard inter face buses does the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System test station have, and how are they identified?
    a. 4; A, B, C, and D
    b. 4; W, X, Y, and Z
    c. 3; A, B, and C
    d. 3; X, Y, and Z
    4; A, B, C, and D
  39. what lines make up the 16 signal lines of the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers-488 bus in the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System?
    a. data, handshake, interface management, and ground
    b. data handshake, interface management, and parity
    c. handshake, interface management, and ground
    d. data, handshake, and interface management
    data, handshake, and interface management
  40. which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers-488 bus signal lines provide for the process that guarantees information on the bus is sent and received without any transmission errors in the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System?
    a. data
    b. parity
    c. handshake
    d. interface management
    handshake
  41. which Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers-488 bus interface management signal is an interrupt that can be sent by any device on the bus line in the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System?
    a. service request
    b. end or identify
    c. interface clear
    d. attention
    service request
  42. in which alternating current box are fuses F2 and F3, which protect the input power of the stations 24-volt transformers, located in the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System?
    a. upper
    b. lower
    c. primary
    d. secondary
    primary
  43. in which alternating current box are the circuit breakers for the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station's Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers-488 buses located?
    a. upper
    b. lower
    c. primary
    d. secondary
    upper
  44. the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's Hewlett-Packard 8110 pulse generators in bay 2 can supply high-resolution pulses in the range of
    a. 0.2 Hertz (Hz) to 150 megahertz (MHz)
    b. 0.2 Hz to 150 gigahertz (GHz)
    c. 10 Hz to 50 MHz
    d. 10 Hz to 50 GHz
    0.2 Hertz (Hz) to 150 megahertz (MHz)
  45. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System analog subsystem intrument can provide frequency resolution up to 12 digits?
    a. Hewlett-Packard (HP) 54542A digitizing oscilloscope
    b. AFG 2020 arbitrary function generator
    c. HP 8110 pulse generator
    d. HP 53132A counter
    HP 53132A counter
  46. what is the peak-to-peak voltage limit of the output of the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's AFG 2020 arbitrary function generator in bay 4?
    a. 2 volts (V)
    b. 5V
    c. 10V
    d. 25V
    10V
  47. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System component can supply a virtually limitless number of waveforms due to its ability to download waveforms through the general-purpose interface bus and its own front panel floppy drive?
    a. Hewlett-Packard (HP) 8110 pulse generator
    b. AFG 2020 arbitrary function generator
    c. wavetek 295 wave generator
    d. HP 3245A universal source
    wavetek 295 wave generator
  48. what are the limits for alternating current (AC)/direct current (DC) voltage, current, and resistance for the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's Hewlett-Packard 3458A multimeter?
    a. 1,000 volts (V), 1 amp (A), and 1 gigaohm (Gohm)
    b. 1,000V, 1 A, and 1 kiloohm (Kohm)
    c. 100V, 1 milliamp, and 1 Gohm
    d. 100V, 1 A, and 1 Kohm
    1,000 volts (V), 1 amp (A), and 1 gigaohm (Gohm)
  49. the frequency range of the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's Hewlett-Packard 8903B analyzer is 20 Hertz to 100
    a. Hertz
    b. kilohertz
    c. megahertz
    d. gigahertz
    kilohertz
  50. what are the frequency ranges of the low- and high-frequency paths, respectively, in the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's Hewlett-Packard 8760A signal switch matrix?
    a. 0-1 Hertz (Hz); 1-10 Hz
    b. 0-1 megahertz (MHz); 1-10 MHz
    c. 0-1 Hz; 1-50 Hz
    d. 0-1 MHz; 1-50 MHz
    0-1 MHz; 1-50 MHz
  51. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station power supply is capable of providing a wource voltage while measuring current or providing source current while measuring voltage?
    a. Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6675A
    b. Keithley 237
    c. TECHNOLOGY DYNAMICS, INC. HV350
    d. HP6674
    Keithley 237
  52. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station power supply is capable of providing up to 60 volts direct current and a current range of up to 30 amps?
    a. Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6642A
    b. Keithley 237
    c. TECHNOLOGY DYNAMICS, INC. (TDI) HV350
    d. HP 6674
    HP 6674
  53. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station power is capable of providing up to 120 volts direct current and a current range of up to 18 amps?
    a. Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6675A
    b. Keithley 237
    c. TECHNOLOGY DYNAMICS, INC. (TDI) HV350
    d. HP 6674
    Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6675A
  54. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System component provides safety interlock control for the high-voltage power supplies in bay 5?
    a. relay box A
    b. bus isolator/expander
    c. 1C026A interface converter
    d. direct connect analog interface
    relay box A
  55. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station power supply is capable of providing up to 20 volts direct current and a current range of up to 10 amps?
    a. Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6642A
    b. Keithley 237
    c. TECHNOLOGY DYNAMICS, INC. (TDI) HV350
    d. HP 6674
    Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6642A
  56. how many Hewlett-Packard 6050A load mainframes are in the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's bay 8, and how many different loads are they divided into?
    a. 1; 2
    b. 1; 3
    c. 2; 3
    d. 2; 4
    2; 3
  57. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station power supply is capable of providing up to 20 volts direct current and a current range of up to 30 amps?
    a. Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6033A
    b. HP 6038A
    c. HP 6672A
    d. HP 6673A
    Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6033A
  58. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station power supply is capable of providing up to 35 volts direct current and a current range of up to 60 amps?
    a. Hewlett-Packard (HP) 6033A
    b. HP 6038A
    c. HP 6672A
    d. HP 6673A
    HP 6673A
  59. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's tub circuit card assembly contains a time domain reflectometer circuit?
    a. period generator
    b. deskew measurement
    c. digital command processor
    d. backplane drive/continuous measurement system
    deskew measurement
  60. the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's driver/detector cards are connected to the memory test/signature analyzer hardware by the
    a. digital matrix circuit card
    b. general interface circuit card
    c. data acquisition controller circuit card
    d. digital command processor circuit card
    digital matrix circuit card
  61. vacuum control for the vacuum solenoids located in the rear deck of the Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station is provided by the
    a. right input/output board
    b. digital matrix circuit card
    c. data acquisition controller circuit card
    d. digital command processor circuit card
    right input/output board
  62. which Digital Integrated Fast Analog/Radio-Frequency Analog Digital System's test station component contains the 1553 bus module that testss the 1553 bus communications of the unit under test?
    a. tub assembly
    b. hybrid pin matrix
    c. direct connect analog interface
    d. Hewlett-Packard Versa Modulo Europa extension for instrumentation mainframe
    Hewlett-Packard Versa Modulo Europa extension for instrumentation mainframe
  63. how many Versa Modulo Europa extensions for instrumentation (VXI) controller cards does the C-17 automatic test equipment station use, and what slot do they occupy in the VXI chassis?
    a 4; 0
    b. 4; 10
    c. 2; 0
    d. 2; 10
    4; 0
  64. how many general -purpose interface buses does the C-17 automatic test equipment station have?
    a. 2
    b. 3
    c. 4
    d. 5
    3
  65. where does facility power enter the C-17 automatic test equipment station?
    a. primary alternating current box
    b. power distribution unit
    c. isolation transformer
    d. station control panel
    primary alternating current box
  66. what does the uniterruptible power supply provide power for in the C-17 automatic test equipment station?
    a. analog instruments
    b. station cooling fans
    c. computer and peripherals
    d. Versa Modulo Europa extensions for instrumentation chassis
    computer and peripherals
  67. pressing the off portion of the main power switch on the C-17 automatic test equipment station control panel removes input power to all components, except the
    a. power distribution unit and primary alternating current (AC) box
    b. station control panel and primary AC box
    c. power distribution unit
    d. primary AC box
    power distribution unit and primary alternating current (AC) box
  68. which power supply in the C-17 automatic test equipment station is actually four units set up as two master slave pairs?
    a. 6035A
    b. 66000
    c. CW2501P
    d. DLM60-10
    DLM60-10
  69. with the optional OP1 installed, which power supply in the C-17 automatic test equipment station can also be used as a measurement device?
    a. 6035A
    b. 2003RP
    c. CW2501P
    d. DLM60-10
    2003RP
  70. the C-17 automatic test equipment station digital test instruments are composed of
    a. one central resource board (CRB) and two channel cards
    b. one CRB and four channel cards
    c. two CRBs and two channel cards
    d. two CRBs and four channel cards
    one CRB and four channel cards
  71. in the C-17 automatic test equipment station, which component of the spectrum cross point matrix provides switching between 48 analog channels and 16 analog backplane lines?
    a. port module
    b. channel card
    c. matrix module
    d. central resource board
    matrix module
  72. in the C-17 automatic test equipment station Versa Modulo Europa extensions for instrumentation chassis 2A3, which component works with the slot 0 controller to control the switch assemblies in that chassis?
    a. 1260-100 carrier module
    b. 1260-172HV module
    c. option 01T module
    d. 1260-22S module
    option 01T module
  73. what components are located behind the interface connector assembly of the C-17 automatic test equipment station?
    a. Versa Modulo Europa extensions for instrumentation (VXI) chassis 1A4 and VXI chassis 1A5
    b. spectrum cross point matrix (SCPM) 1A3 and VXI chassis 1A4
    c. VXI chassis 1A5 and power distribution unit (PDU) 1A1
    d. PDU 1A1 and SCPM 1A3
    spectrum cross point matrix (SCPM) 1A3 and VXI chassis 1A4
  74. the interface connector assembly connector modules are connected to C-17 automatic test equipment station Versa Modulo Europa extensions for instrumentation components by interconnect adapters referred to as
    a. plugs
    b. routers
    c. funnels
    d. passive links
    funnels
  75. in the C-17 automatic test equipment stations VM 3640 arbitrary waveform generators, what are the frequency limits for the sine and square wave, and all other waveforms, respectively?
    a. 20 gigahertz (GHz); 1 GHz
    b. 20 megahertz (MHz); 1 MHz
    c. 20 GHz; 10 MHz
    d. 20 MHZ; 10 GHz
    20 megahertz (MHz); 1 MHz
  76. the C-17 automatic test equipment station's avionics interface controllers support what types of communication?
    a Recommended Standard (RS)-429, Aeronautical Radio Incorporated (ARINC)-573, and Military Standard (MIL-STD)-1553
    b. RS-232, RS-422, ARINC-573, and MIL-STD-1553
    c. RS-232, RS-422, RS-429, and ARINC-573
    d. RS-232 and RS-422
    RS-232, RS-422, RS-429, and ARINC-573
  77. which C-17 automatic test equipment station component can measure the harmonic frequencies of an input signal?
    a. Hewlett-Packard E1412A multimeter
    b. Racal 2461C frequency counter
    c. 227 phase angle voltmeter
    d. 5395 synchro/resolver
    227 phase angle voltmeter
  78. what idependent channels does the C-17 automatic test equipment's pneumatic pressure stimulus cart provide for units under testing?
    a. one for static and one for pitot
    b. one for static and two for pitot
    c. two for static and one for pitot
    d. two for static and two for pitot
    one for static and one for pitot
  79. what component(s) of the computer automated display test set is/are only used to test the C-17's heads-up display line replaceable unit?
    a. low-level photopic high-speed photomultiplier tube
    b. high-resolution telescope and intelligent radiometer
    c. triple-photomultiplier tube assembly and supplementary lens
    d. multifunction display holding fixture and supplementary lens
    low-level photopic high-speed photomultiplier tube
  80. what functions as the intelligent interface between the C-17 automatic test equipment test station and the measurement devices when testing the multifunction display and heads-up display?
    a. triple-photomultiplier tube assembly
    b. electrical equipment cabinet
    c. radiometer
    d. computer
    radiometer

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