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1. Freud's stages are psychosexual while Erik Erikson's stages are.
D. Let's begin with an easy one. Only one choice fits the bill here. The Freudian stages (oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital) emphasize sexuality. Erik Erikson's eight stages (e.g., trust vs. mistrust or integrity vs. despair) focus on social relationships and thus are described as psychosocial. To mention the other answer choices is to dispose of them. Psychometric simply refers to mental testing or measurement. Psychodiagnostic pertains to the study of personality through interpretation of behavior or nonverbal cues. In counseling, per say, it also can mean that the counselor uses the aforementioned factors or tests to label the client in a diagnostic category. Psychopharmacology studies the effects that drugs have on psychological functions.
2. In Freudian theory instincts are emphasized. Erik Erikson is an ego psychologist. Ego psychologists.
a.emphasize id processes.
b. refute the concept of the superego.
c. believe in man's powers of reasoning to control behavior.
d. are sometimes known as radical behaviorists.
C. To say that the id is the bad boy of Freudian theory is to put it mildly! The id is the seat of sex and aggression. It is not rational or logical, and it is void of time orientation. The id is chaotic and concerned only with the body, not with the outside world. Freud emphasized the importance of the id, while Erikson stressed ego functions. The ego is logical, rational, and utilizes the power of reasoning and control to keep impulses in check. Simply put, ego psychologists, unlike the strict Freudians, accent the ego and the power of control. The term superego in choice b refers to the moralistic and idealistic portion of the personality. The behaviorists, mentioned in choice d, do not believe in concepts like the id, the ego, and the superego. In fact, radical behaviorists do not believe in mental constructs such as the mind nor do they believe in consciousness. The behaviorist generally feels that if it can't be measured then it doesn't exist.
3. The only psychoanalyst who created a developmental theory which encompasses the entire life span was.
a. Erik Erikson.
b. Milton H. Erickson.
c. A. A. Brill.
d. Jean Piaget.
- In Freudian theory, the final stage (i.e., the genital stage) begins at age 12 and is said to continue throughout one's life span.
- A. Many scholars do not feel that Freud's theory truly covers the entire life span. They find it difficult to believe that a crisis at age 12 remains the central issue until senility sets in! Erikson, also a psychoanalyst and a disciple of Freud's, created a theory with eight stages in which each stage represents a psychosocial crisis or a turning point. Since the final stage does not even begin until age 60, most personality theorists believe that his theory actually covers the entire life of an individual. As for the other choices, Brill is analytic and will be discussed in the section on career theory. Milton H Erickson, not to be confused with Erik Erikson, has a c in his name and is generally associated with brief psychotherapy and innovative techniques in hypnosis. Piaget is the leading name in cognitive development in children.
4. The statement, the ego is dependent on the id, would most likely reflect the work of.
a. Erik Erikson.
b. Sigmund Freud.
c. Jay Haley.
d. Arnold Lazarus, William Perry, and Robert Kegan.
B. In Freudian theory the id is also called the pleasure principle and houses the animalistic instincts. The ego, which is known as the reality principle, is pressured by the id to succumb to pleasure or gratification regardless of consequences. Erikson, an ego psychologist, would not emphasize the role of the id, but rather the power of control or the ego. Jay Haley is known for his work in strategic and problem solving therapy, often utilizing the technique of paradox. He claims to have acquired a wealth of information by studying the work of Milton H. Erickson, who is mentioned in the previous question. Arnold Lazarus is considered a pioneer in the behavior therapy movement, especially in regard to the use of systematic desensitization, a technique which helps clients cope with phobias. Today his name is associated with multimodal therapy. Perry is known for his ideas related to adult cognitive development; especially college students. Exam hint: Throughout this text I will be giving you a wealth of exam hints. In fact, this edition contains considerably more exam hints than any earlier edition. These hints will often espouse concepts that go beyond merely answering the question because I have this uncanny notion that the extra information can boost your exam score. On occasion, I will repeat myself (often using a different explanation) because the concept is a tad fuzzy to grasp or just to make certain it won't appear to be a foreign language if the material is presented in a unique manner on the exam. Okay, enough filibustering, time for the first hint. Perry is known for his ideas related to adult cognitive development; especially regarding college students. For exam purposes I would commit to memory the fact that Perry stresses a concept known as dualistic thinking common to teens in which things are conceptualized as good or bad or right and wrong. Dualism has also been referred to as black and white thinking with virtually no ambiguity. Noted counseling author Ed Neukrug shares the fact that students in this stage assume that a professor has the answer. As they enter adulthood and move into relativistic thinking the individual now has the ability to perceive that not everything is right or wrong, but an answer can exist relative to a specific situation. In essence there is more than one way to view the world. Finally, Robert Kegan is another well-known figure in the area of adult cognitive development. Kegan's model stresses interpersonal development. Kegan's theory is billed as a constructive model of development, meaning that individuals construct reality throughout the lifespan.
5. Jean Piaget's theory has four stages. The correct order from stage 1 to stage 4 is.
a. formal operations, concrete operations, preoperations, sensorimotor.
b. formal operations, preoperations, concrete operations, sensorimotor.
c. sensorimotor, preoperations, concrete operations, formal operations.
d. concrete operations, sensorimotor, preoperations, formal operations.
C. Piaget was adamant that the order of the stages remains the same for any culture, although the age of the individual could vary. It is time for your first memory device. It would make sense that Piaget's first stage emphasizes the senses and the child's motoric skills, hence the name sensorimotor stage. I can remember the last stage by reminding myself that people seem to be more formal as they get older. The final stage is of course formal operations. As for the other two stages, the stage with pre (i.e., preoperations) must come before the remaining stage which is concrete operations. Do not automatically assume that my memory devices will be the best ones for you. Instead, experiment with different ideas. The memory strategies presented here are simply ones which my students and I have found helpful.
6. Some behavioral scientists have been critical of the Swiss child psychologist Jean Piaget's developmental research inasmuch as.
a. he utilized the t test too frequently.
b. he failed to check for type 1 or alpha errors.
c. he worked primarily with minority children.
d. his findings were often derived from observing his own children.
D. Piaget was trained as a biologist and then worked with Alfred Binet in France. Binet created the first intelligence test. Piaget's research methods, though very innovative, could be classified as informal ones. He sometimes utilized games and interviews. Who were his subjects? Well, often they were Lucienne, Laurent, and Jaqueline: his own children. Some researchers have been critical of his methods. Answer choice a is incorrect, as a t test is a parametric statistical test used in formal experiments to determine whether there is a significant difference between two groups. The t in t test should be written with a lower case t and is technically utilized to ascertain if the means of the groups are significantly different from each other. When using the t test the groups must be normally distributed. Some books will refer to the t test as the Student's t. Choice b will be discussed in much greater detail in the section on research and evaluation. This choice is incorrect inasmuch as Piaget generally did not rely on statistical experiments that would be impacted by type 1 or alpha errors.
7. A tall skinny pitcher of water is emptied into a small squatty pitcher. A child indicates that she feels the small pitcher has less water. The child has not yet mastered.
a. symbolic schema.
c. androgynous psychosocial issues.
d. trust versus mistrust.
B. This is a must-know principle for any major test in counseling! In Piagets theory the term conservation refers to the notion that a substance's weight, mass, and volume remain the same even if it changes shape. According to Piaget, the child masters conservation and the concept of reversibility during the concrete operations stage (ages 7 to 11 years). Now here is a super memory device. Both conservation and the ability to count mentally (i.e., without matching something up to something else physically) both occur in the concrete operational thought stage. Fortunately, conservation, counting, and concrete operations all start with a c. How convenient! And you thought memorizing these principles was going to be difficult. The other answer choices are ridiculous, and that's putting it mildly. In Piaget's theory, symbolic schema is a cognitive structure that grows with life experience. A schema is merely a system which permits the child to test out things in the physical world. Choice c, androgynous, is a term which implies that humans have characteristics of both sexes. (The Greek word andros means man while the Greek word for women is gyne.) And, of course, by now you know that trust vs. mistrust is Erikson's first psychosocial stage.
8. In Piagetian literature, conservation would most likely refer to.
a. volume or mass.
b. defenses of the ego.
c. the sensorimotor intelligence stage.
d. a specific psychosexual stage of life.
A. If you missed this question go back to square one! The answer given for question 7 clearly explains this principle. Again, a child who has not mastered conservation does not think in a very flexible manner. A child, for example, is shown a pie cut into 2 pieces. Next, the same pie is cut into 10 pieces. If the child has not mastered conservation he or she will say that the pie that is now cut into 10 pieces is bigger than when it was cut into just 2 pieces. You can't fool a child who has mastered conservation, however. This child will know that the pie has not changed in volume and mass. In general, the statistical research of David Elkind supports Piaget's notions regarding conservation. Piaget and Elkind report that mass is the first and most easily understood concept. The mastery of weight is next, and finally the notion of volume can be comprehended. (A good memory device might be MV, such as in most valuable player. The M, or mass, will come first and the V, or volume, will be the final letter. The W, or weight, can be squeezed in-between.)
9. A child masters conservation in the Piagetian stage known as.
a. formal operations 12 years and older.
b. concrete operations ages 7 to 11.
c. preoperations ages 2 to 7.
d. sensorimotor intelligence birth to 2 years.
B. Remember your memory device: conservation begins with a c and so does concrete operations. The other three stages proposed by Jean Piaget do not begin with a c.
10. _______ expanded on Piaget's conceptualization of moral development.
a. Erik Erikson
b. The Russian psychologist Lev Vygotsky
c. Lawrence Kohlberg
d. John B. Watson
- 11. According to Piaget, a child masters the concept of reversibility in the third stage, known as concrete operations or concrete operational thought. This notion suggests.
a. that heavier objects are more difficult for a child to lift.
b. the child is ambidextrous.
c. the child is more cognizant of mass than weight.
- d. one can undo an action, hence an object can return to its initial shape.
- D. Choice d is the definition of reversibility. The word ambidextrous, utilized in choice b, refers to an individual's ability to use both hands equally well to perform tasks.
12. During a thunderstorm, a 6-year-old child in Piaget's stage of preoperational thought (stage 2) says, The rain is following me. This is an example of.
d. abstract thought.
A. Expect to see a question on the test like this one and you can't go wrong. This is the typical or prototype question you will come across in order to ascertain whether you are familiar with the Piagetian concept of egocentrism. By egocentrism, Piaget was not really implying the child is self-centered. Instead, egocentrism conveys the fact that the child cannot view the world from the vantage point of someone else. Choice of d mentions abstract thought, which does not occur until Piaget's final or fourth stage known as formal operations.
13. Lawrence Kohlberg suggested.
a. a single level of morality.
b. two levels of morality.
c. three levels of morality.
d. preoperational thought as the basis for all morality.
C. Kohlberg's theory has three levels of moral development: the Preconventional, Conventional, and Postconventional level which is referred to in some texts as the Personal Integrity or Morality of Self-Accepted Principles level. Each level can be broken down further into two stages.
14. The Heinz story is to Kohlberg's theory as.
a. a brick is to a house.
b. Freud is to Jung.
c. the Menninger Clinic is to biofeedback.
d. a typing test is to the level of typing skill mastered.
- D. This is your first chance to wrestle with an analogy type question. The Heinz Story is one method used by Kohlberg to assess the level and stage of moral development in an individual. The story goes like this:
- A woman in Europe was dying of cancer. Only one drug (a form of radium) could save her. It was discovered by a local druggist. The druggist was charging $2,000, which was ten times his cost to make the drug. The woman's husband, Heinz, could not raise the money and even if he borrowed from his friends, he could only come up with approximately half the sum. He asked the druggist to reduce the price or let him pay the bill later since his wife was dying but the druggist said, No. The husband was thus desperate and broke into the store to steal the drug. Should the husband have done that? Why?
- The individual's reason for the decision (rather than the decision itself) allowed Kohlberg to evaluate the person's stage of moral development. In short, the reasoning utilized to solve a moral dilemma such as the Heinz story could be used to assess moral development. Kohlberg's stages and levels are said to apply to all persons and not merely to those living in the United States. Thus, it is evident that the Heinz Story is most like choice d, a typing test. C G Jung, mentioned in choice b, is the father of analytic psychology. Freud is the father of psychoanalysis. And lastly, the Menninger Clinic in Kansas is a traditional psychoanalytic foothold as well as the site of landmark work in the area of biofeedback, which is a technique utilized to help individuals learn to control bodily processes more effectively. And, oh yes, before you go out and have a good cry, let me emphasize that the story of Heinz is fictional and simply used as a research tool.
15. The term identity crisis comes from the work of.
a. counselors who stress RS involvement issues with clients.
B. Let's deal with choice a first, although it is incorrect. RS in our field means religious and spiritual. Addressing RS issues in counseling has increased in the last several years. In fact, the number of counselors who consider themselves spiritual (though not necessarily religious) is also climbing. RS factors are often examined by counselors who are attempting to integrate the practice of positive psychology into their work. Positive psychology is hot right now and I suspect you could see a question about it on your exam. The term, coined by Abraham Maslow and popularized by learned helplessness syndrome pioneer Martin Seligman, refers to the study of human strengths such as joy, wisdom, altruism, the ability to love, happiness, and wisdom. Keep in mind that I use the correct as well as correct answers to teach you key material. Now back to the correct answer for this question: Erikson felt that, in an attempt to find out who they really are, adolescents will experiment with various roles. Choice c refers to another name you should know, Alfred Adler, the founder of individual psychology, which stresses the inferiority complex.
16. Kohlberg's three levels of morality are.
a. preconventional, conventional, postconventional.
b. formal, preformal, self-accepted.
c. self-accepted, other directed, authority directed.
d. preconventional, formal, authority directed.
A. In the preconventional level the child responds to consequences. In this stage reward and punishment greatly influence the behavior. In the conventional level the individual wants to meet the standards of the family, society, and even the nation. Kohlberg felt that many people never reach the final level of postconventional or self-accepted morality. A person who reaches this level is concerned with universal, ethical principles of justice, dignity, and equality of human rights. Kohlberg's research indicated that under 40% of his middle-class urban males had reached the postconventional level. Ghandi, Socrates, and Martin Luther King Jr. have been cited as examples of individuals who have reached this level, in which the common good of society is a key issue.
17. Trust versus mistrust is.
a. an Adlerian notion of morality.
b. Erik Erikson's first stage of psychosocial development.
c. essentially equivalent to Piaget's concept of egocentrism.
d. the basis of morality according to Kohlberg.
B. Erikson proposed eight stages and this is the first. This stage corresponds to Freud's initial oral-sensory stage (birth to approximately 1 year). Each of Erikson's stages is described using bipolar or opposing tendencies. Although Piaget and Erikson are the most prominent stage theorists, you should also become familiar with the work of Harry Stack Sullivan, who postulated the stages of infancy, childhood, the juvenile era, preadolescence, early adolescence, and late adolescence. Sullivan's theory, known as the psychiatry of interpersonal relations, is similar to Erikson's theory in that biological determination is seen as less important than interpersonal issues and the sociocultural demands of society.
18. A person who has successfully mastered Erikson's first seven stages would be ready to enter Erikson's final or eighth stage.
a. generativity versus stagnation.
b. initiative versus guilt.
c. identity crisis of the later years.
d. integrity versus despair.
D. Each stage is seen as a psychosocial crisis or a turning point. Erikson did not imply that the person either totally succeeds or fails. Instead, he says that the individual leans toward a given alternative (e.g., integrity or despair). The final stage begins at about age 60. An individual who has successfully mastered all the stages feels a sense of integrity in the sense that his or her life has been worthwhile.
19. In Kohlberg's first or preconventional level, the individual's moral behavior is guided by.
a. psychosexual urges.
c. periodic fugue states.
B. In the consequences stage (called premoral), an M&M or a slap on the behind is more important than societal expectations and the law. In choice c the term fugue state refers to an individual who experiences memory loss (amnesia) and leaves home, often with the intention of changing his or her job and identity. What does this have to do with answering the question regarding Kohlberg, you ask? Nothing, that's decidedly why it's the wrong answer! In choice d you are confronted with the word counterconditioning. This is a behavioristic technique in which the goal is to weaken or eliminate a learned response by pairing it with a stronger or desirable response. Systematic desensitization is a good example, but more on that later.
20. Kohlberg's second level of morality is known as conventional morality. This level is characterized by.
a. psychosexual urges.
b. a desire to live up to society's expectations.
c. a desire to conform.
d. b and c.
D. At the conventional level the individual wishes to conform to the roles in society so that authority and social order can prevail. Kohlberg felt that attempts to upgrade the morals of our youth have failed and he has referred to some character-building education programs as Mickey Mouse stuff!
21. Kohlberg's highest level of morality is termed postconventional morality. Here the individual.
a. must truly contend with psychosexual urges.
b. has the so-called good boy/good girl orientation.
c. has self-imposed morals and ethics.
d. a and b.
C. Only one answer is correct here, folks. Choice a reflects the Freudian theory, while choice b is stage 3 of Kohlberg's theory, which occurs at the conventional level. In the good boy/good girl orientation the person is concerned with approbation and the ability to please others in order to achieve recognition.
22. According to Kohlberg, level 3, which is postconventional or self-accepted moral principles.
a. refers to the Naive Hedonism stage.
b. operates on the premise that rewards guide morals.
c. a and b.
d. is the highest level of morality. However, some people never reach this level.
D. Hedonism mentioned in choice a occurs in stage 2 of the preconventional level. Here the child says to himself, If I'm nice others will be nice to me and I'll get what I want.Choice b actually refers to the first stage of the preconventional level which is the punishment versus obedience orientation.
23. The zone of proximal development.
a. was pioneered by Lev Vygotsky.
b. was pioneered by Piaget and Kohlberg.
c. emphasized organ inferiority.
d. a, b, and c.
A. The zone of proximal development describes the difference between a child;s performance without a teacher versus that which he or she is capable of with an instructor. In choice c the concept of organ inferiority is mentioned. This term is primarily associated with the work of Alfred Adler, who created individual psychology.
24. Freud and Erikson.
a. could be classified as behaviorists.
b. could be classified as maturationists.
c. agreed that developmental stages are psychosexual.
d. were prime movers in the biofeedback movement.
B. In the behavioral sciences, the concept of the maturation hypothesis (also known as the maturation theory) suggests that behavior is guided exclusively via hereditary factors, but that certain behaviors will not manifest themselves until the necessary stimuli are present in the environment. In addition, the theory suggests that the individual's neural development must be at a certain level of maturity for the behavior to unfold. A counselor who believes in this concept strives to unleash inborn abilities, instincts, and drives. The client's childhood and the past are seen as important therapeutic topics.
25. John Bowlby's name is most closely associated with.
a. the work of psychologist and pediatrician, Arnold Gesell, a maturationist.
b. developmental stage theories.
c. bonding and attachment.
d. the unconscious mind.
C. Arnold Gesell was a pioneer in terms of using a one-way mirror for observing children. Maturationists such as Gesell feel that development is primarily determined via genetics/heredity. Hence, a child must be ready before he or she can accept a certain level of education (e.g., kindergarten). Bowlby's name starts with a B,as does the word bonding. Aren't memory devices wonderful? John Bowlby saw bonding and attachment as having survival value, or what is often called adaptive significance. Bowlby insisted that in order to lead a normal social life the child must bond with an adult before the age of 3. If the bond is severed at an early age, it is known as object loss,and this is said to be the breeding ground for abnormal behavior, or what is often called psychopathology. Mahler calls the child's absolute dependence on the female caretaker symbiosis.Difficulties in the symbiotic relationship can result in adult psychosis.
26. In which Eriksonian stage does the midlife crisis occur.
a. generativity versus stagnation
b. integrity versus despair
c. a and b
d. Erikson's stages do not address midlife issues
A. Most theorists believe that the midlife crisis occurs between ages 35 and 45 for men and about five years earlier for women, when the individual realizes his or her life is half over. Persons often need to face the fact that they have not achieved their goals or aspirations. Incidentally, the word generativity refers to the ability to be productive and happy by looking outside one's self and being concerned with other people. Some exams may refer to this stage as generativity versus self-absorption. Daniel Levinson, who wrote Seasons of a Man's Life and Seasons of a Woman's Life, viewed the midlife crisis as somewhat positive, pointing out that individuals who do not face it may indeed stagnate or become stale during their fifties. In other words, avoiding or bypassing the crisis can lead to lack of vitality in later years.
27. The researcher who is well known for his work with maternal deprivation and isolation in rhesus monkeys is.
a. Harry Harlow.
b. John Bowlby.
c. Lawrence Kohlberg.
d. all of the above.
A. Harlow's work is now well-known in the social sciences. Harlow believed that attachment was an innate tendency and not one which is learned. Monkeys placed in isolation developed autistic abnormal behavior. When these monkeys were placed in cages with normally reared monkeys some remission of the dysfunctional behavior was noted. Evidence that this is true in man comes from the work of Ren Spitz, who noted that children reared in impersonal institutions (and hence experienced maternal deprivation between the sixth and eighth month of life) cried more, experienced difficulty sleeping, and had more health-related difficulties. Spitz called this �anaclitic depression.� These infants would ultimately experience great difficulty forming close relationships.
28. The statement: �Males are better than females when performing mathematical calculations� is.
b. true due to a genetic flaw commonly found in women.
c. true only in middle-aged men.
d. true according to research by Maccoby and Jacklin.
D. Maccoby and Jacklin reviewed the literature and found very few differences that could be attributed to genetics and biological factors. The superiority of males in the area of mathematics, however, was not significant until high school or perhaps college. Girls who excelled in science and math often identified with their fathers and were encouraged to value initiative and were given independence. Thus, the major impetus for sex-role differences may come from child-rearing patterns rather than bodily chemistry.
29. The Eriksonian stage that focuses heavily on sharing your life with another person is.
a. actually the major theme in all of Erikson�s eight stages.
b. generativity versus stagnation�ages 35 to 60.
c. intimacy versus isolation�ages 23 to 34.
d. a critical factor Erikson fails to mention.
C. If you didn�t know the answer, did you guess? Yes, of course I�m being serious. Remember no penalty is assessed for guessing on the NCE/CPCE. An educated guess based on the fact that intimacy implies sharing one�s life would have landed you a correct answer here. Counselors need to be aware that an individual who fails to do well in this stage may conclude that he or she can depend on no one but the self.
30. We often refer to individuals as conformists. Which of these individuals would most likely conform to his or her peers.
a. a 19-year-old male college student.
b. 23-year-old male drummer in a rock band.
c. a 57-year old female stockbroker.
d. a 13-year-old male middle school student.
d. Conformity seems to peak in the early teens.
31. In Harry Harlow�s experiments with baby monkeys.
a. a wire mother was favored by most young monkeys over a terry cloth version.
b. the baby monkey was more likely to cling to a terry cloth mother surrogate than a wire surrogate mother.
c. female monkeys had a tendency to drink large quantities of alcohol.
d. male monkeys had a tendency to drink large quantities of alcohol.
B. Infant monkeys preferred the terry cloth mothers to wire mothers even though the wire mothers were equipped to dispense milk. Harlow concluded �contact comfort� is important in the development of the infant�s attachment to his or her mother. A 165-day experiment revealed that the monkeys were spending an average of 11/2 hours per day with the wire mother and 16 hours with the terry cloth mother. Bowlby, mentioned previously, would say that in humans the parents act as a �releaser stimulus� to elicit relief from hunger and tension through holding.
32. Freud postulated psychosexual stages.
a. id, ego, and superego.
b. oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital.
c. eros, thanatos, regression, and superego.
d. manifest, latent, oral, and phallic.
B. Choice �a� depicts Freud�s structural theory of the mind as being composed of the id, the ego, and the superego. In choice �c� the word eros refers to the Freudian concept of the life instinct while thanatos refers to the self-destructive death instinct. Analysis is just brimming with verbiage borrowed from Greek mythology. The term regression is used to describe clients who return to an earlier stage of development. In choice �d� you should familiarize yourself with the terms manifest and latent, which in psychoanalysis refer to the nature of a dream. Manifest content describes the dream material as it is presented to the dreamer. Latent content (which is seen as far more important by the Freudians) refers to the hidden meaning of the dream.
33. In adolescence.
a. females commit suicide more than males.
b. suicide is a concern but statistically very rare.
c. the teens who talk about suicide are not serious.
d. males commit suicide more often than females, but females attempt suicide more often.
D. Males commit suicide more often than females. This answer would apply not just to adolescence but to nearly all age brackets. One theory is that males are more successful in killing themselves because they use firearms whereas females rely on less lethal methods. Choice �b� is false inasmuch as suicide is generally the 11th or 12th leading cause of death in this country as well as the second or third leading killer of teens each year. And as far as choice �c� is concerned, a counselor should always take it seriously when a client of any age threatens suicide. The truth is that the vast majority of those who have killed themselves have communicated the intent to do so in some manner. So take clients� suicide threats seriously. Have I made myself clear?
34. In the general population.
a. the suicide rate is 2/100,000.
b. suicide occurs at the beginning of a depressive episode, but rarely after the depression lifts.
c. suicide rates tend to increase with age.
d. b and c.
C. Choice �b� is way off the mark. Suicidal clients often make attempts after the depression begins to lift! Official statistics indicate about 30,000 suicides each year in the United States. Suicidologists (and yes there is such a word!) believe that the actual number may be closer to 75,000 due to complications in accurately coding the cases. Choice �a� reflects the approximate suicide rate in black females. The overall suicide rate in the United States in any given year is about 11/100,000. Interestingly enough, personality measures such as the MMPI-2 and the Rorschach are not good predictors of suicide or for that matter of suicide attempts. In essence, test profiles of suicidal individuals generally are not distinguishable from those of persons who are not suicidal.
35. The fear of death.
a. is greatest during middle age.
b. is an almost exclusively male phenomenon.
c. is the number one psychiatric problem in the geriatric years.
d. surprisingly enough occurs in the teen years.
A. In Erikson�s stages the individual would accept the finality of life better during the final state than in the middle age years.
36. In Freudian theory, attachment is a major factor.
a. in the preconscious mind.
b. in the mind of the child in latency.
c. which evolves primarily during the oral age.
d. a and b.
C. This would make sense from a logical standpoint, because the oral stage is the first Freudian psychosexual stage and occurs while the child is still an infant (i.e., the stage goes from birth to one year). As mentioned earlier, attachments in human as well as animal studies indicate that the bonding process takes place early in life.
37. When comparing girls to boys, it could be noted that.
a. girls grow up to smile more.
b. girls are using more feeling words by age 2.
c. girls are better able to read people without verbal cues at any age.
d. all of the above.
D. Boys on the other hand are more physically active and aggressive, probably due to androgen hormones. Boys also seem to possess better visual�perceptual skills.
38. The Freudian developmental stage which �least� emphasizes sexuality is.
- D. Here�s an easy one. Remember how I mentioned in question 32 that the word latent refers to the hidden meaning of the dream?
- Well in the developmental stages the sexual drive seems hidden (or at least not very prominent) during latency. Sexual interests are replaced by social interests like sports, learning, and hobbies. Now this is very important: Latency is the only Freudian developmental stage which is not primarily psychosexual in nature. It occurs roughly between ages 6 and 12.
39. In terms of parenting young children.
a. boys are punished more than girls.
b. girls are punished more than boys.
c. boys and girls are treated in a similar fashion.
d. boys show more caregiver behavior.
A. Hint: Before you sit for the NCE/CPCE or written or oral boards, take a moment to review the major theories and research related to child rearing. Stanley Coopersmith, for example, found that child-rearing methods seem to have a tremendous impact on self-esteem. A study he conducted indicated that, surprisingly enough, children with high self-esteem were punished just as often as kids with low self-esteem. The children with high self-esteem, however, were provided with a clear understanding of what was morally right and wrong. This was not usually the case in children with low self-esteem. The children with high self-esteem actually had more rules than the kids with low self-esteem. When the child with high self-esteem was punished the emphasis was on the behavior being bad and not the child. Parents of children with high self-esteem were more democratic in the sense that they would listen to the child�s arguments and then explain the purpose of the rules. The Coopersmith study utilized middle-class boys, ages 10 to 12. Choice �d� stands incorrect since girls routinely display more caregiver behavior.
40. When developmental theorists speak of nature or nurture they really mean.
a. how much heredity or environment interact to influence development.
b. the focus is skewed in favor of biological attributes.
c. a and b.
d. a theory proposed by Skinner�s colleagues.
A. In this question the word nature refers to heredity and genetic makeup, while nurture refers to the environment. The age-old argument is whether heredity or environment has the greatest impact on the person�s development. Today theorists shy away from an extremist position and admit that both factors play a major role. Just for the record, choice �d� mentioned B. F. Skinner, who was the prime mover in the behavioristic psychology movement. Behaviorists, like Skinner, tend to emphasize the power of environment.
41. Stage theorists assume.
a. qualitative changes between stages occur.
b. differences surely exist but usually can�t be measured.
c. that humanistic psychology is the only model which truly supports the stage viewpoint.
d. b and c.
A. Choice �b� is incorrect inasmuch as differences can often be measured. Just ask any behaviorist! Choice �c� makes no sense because analysts (who are not considered humanistic) such as Freud and Erikson have supported the stage theory viewpoint.
a. begins at birth.
b. begins during the first trimester of pregnancy.
c. is a continuous process which begins at conception.
d. a and c.
C. Developmental psychologists are fond of looking at prenatal influences (i.e., smoking or alcohol consumption) that affect the fetus before birth.
43. Development is cephalocaudal, which means.
a. foot to head.
b. head to foot.
c. limbs receive the highest level of nourishment.
d. b and c.
B. The head of the fetus develops earlier than the legs. Cephalocaudal simply refers to bodily proportions between the head and tail.
a. assumes the normal person has 23 pairs of chromosomes.
b. assumes that heredity characteristics are transmitted by chromosomes.
c. assumes genes composed of DNA hold a genetic code.
d. all of the above.
D. Here is a vest pocket definition of heredity. You should also be familiar with the term heritability, which is the portion of a trait that can be explained via genetic factors.
45. Piaget�s final stage is known as the formal operational stage. In this stage.
a. abstract thinking emerges.
b. problems can be solved using deduction.
c. a and b.
d. the child has mastered abstract thinking but still feels helpless.
C. Again, unfortunately, Piaget felt a large number of individuals never really reach this stage; hence, the difficulty of subjects like algebra, physics, and geometry. Another characteristic of the formal operations stage is that the child can think in terms of multiple hypotheses. If you ask a child to answer a question such as, �Why did someone shoot the president?,� a child who has mastered formal operations (approximately age 11 and beyond) will give several hypotheses while a child in the previous stages would most likely be satisfied with one explanation. For exam purposes, remember that abstract concepts of time (e.g., What was life like 500 years ago?) or distance (e.g., How far is 600 miles?) can only be comprehended via abstract thinking, which occurs in this stage. Answer �d� is incorrect inasmuch as Piaget felt that when the child finally reached the final stage he or she would be ready for adulthood and would not experience childlike feelings of helplessness,
46. Kohlberg lists _______ stages of moral development which fall into _______ levels.
a. 6, 3
c. 3, 6
A. Here is a vest-pocket review of the stages and levels. Preconventional Level with Stage 1, Punishment/Obedience Orientation, and Stage 2, Naive Hedonism (also called instrumental or egotistic) Orientation. The entire first level is sometimes called the �premoral level.� Conventional Level with Stage 3, Good Boy/Good Girl Orientation, and Stage 4, Authority, Law, and Order Orientation. This entire level is often known as �morality of conventional rules and conformity.� Postconventional Level with Stage 5, Democratically Accepted Law or �Social Contract� and Stage 6, Principles of Self-Conscience and Universal Ethics. The last level is sometimes termed the �morality of self-accepted principles level.�
47. A person who lives by his or her individual conscience and universal ethical principles.
a. has, according to Kohlberg, reached the highest stage of moral development.
b. is in the preconventional level.
c. is in the postconventional level of self-accepted moral principles.
d. a and c.
D. Still confused? Review answer given in question 46.
48. Freud�s Oedipus Complex.
a. is the stage in which fantasies of sexual relations with the opposite-sex parent occurs.
b. occurs during the phallic stage.
c. a and b.
d. is a concept Freud ultimately eliminated from his theory.
C. The Oedipus complex is the most controversial part of Freud�s theory and choices �a� and �b� roughly describe it. The Oedipus complex, the boy�s secret wish to marry his mother, paired with rage toward his father, is said to occur between ages 3 and 5. Looking for a good memory device? Well here it is. The Oedipus complex occurs during the phallic stage and both words conveniently contain the letter �p.� Some tests may actually refer to this stage as the phallic�oedipal stage. Freud chose the name based on the Greek myth in which Oedipus, the mythical king of Thebes, unknowingly killed his father and married his mother.
49. In girls the Oedipus complex may be referred to as.
a. systematic desensitization.
b. covert desensitization.
c. in vivo desensitization.
d. the Electra complex.
D. In the Oedipus complex in boys and the Electra complex in girls (also grounded in Greek myth), the female child fantasizes about sexual relations with the parent of the opposite sex. This creates tension since this is generally not possible. Hence the child is said to have a fantasy in which he or she wishes to kill the parent of the opposite sex. Freud went on to hypothesize that eventually the child identifies with the parent of the same sex. This leads to internalization of parental values, and thus the conscience or superego is born. As for choices �a,� �b,� and �c,� they are all behavioral terms and hence incorrect. The term covert in choice �b� refers to any psychological process which cannot be directly observed, while in choice �c� I introduce you to �in vivo� which means the client is exposed to an actual situation which might prove frightful or difficult. The word desensitization refers to behavior therapy techniques that help to ameliorate anxiety reactions.
50. The correct order of the Freudian psychosexual stages is.
a. oral, anal, phallic, latency, and genital.
b. oral, anal, genital, phallic, and latency.
c. oral, phallic, latency, genital, and anal.
d. phallic, genital, latency, oral, and anal.
A. Freud is the father of psychoanalysis, which is the most comprehensive theory of personality and therapy ever devised.
51. Gibson researched the matter of depth perception in children by utilizing.
a. Piaget�s concept of conservation.
b. Erik Erikson�s trust versus mistrust paradigm.
c. Piaget�s formal operations.
d. a visual cliff.
D. It seems no child development book is complete without a picture of an infant crawling toward an experimenter on a visual cliff. The visual cliff is a device which utilizes a glass sheet which simulates a drop-off. Interestingly enough, infants will not attempt to cross the drop-off, thus indicating that depth perception in humans is inherent (i.e., an inborn or so-called innate trait). By approximately eight months of age the child begins to show stranger anxiety, meaning that he or she can discriminate a familiar person from a person who is unknown.
52. Theorists who believe that development merely consists of quantitative changes are referred to as.
a. organismic theorists.
b. statistical developmentalists.
d. all of the above.
C. Empiricism grew out of the philosophy of John Locke in the 1600s and is sometimes referred to as associationism. According to this theory scientists can learn only from objective facts. The word empiricism comes from the Greek word meaning experience. This philosophy adheres to the principle that experience is the source for acquiring knowledge. Remember that empiricism is often said to be the forerunner of behaviorism and you could pick up a point on the test you�ll be taking. Choice �a� mentions the organismic viewpoint, which is slanted toward qualitative rather than quantitative factors that can be measured empirically. Strictly speaking, organismic psychologists do not believe in a mind-body distinction. Since empiricists believe developmental changes can be measured and the organicists feel that change can be internal, the two views are sometimes said to be opposing viewpoints.
53. An empiricist view of development would be.
c. against the use of formal statistical testing.
d. a and c.
B. Here again, the empiricist view is behavioristic. Using a little logic you can see that answer �c� is false inasmuch as some behaviorists have literally gone on record as saying, �if you can�t measure it then it doesn�t exist!� In case I still haven�t made myself clear, behavioristic empiricist researchers value statistical studies and emphasize the role of the environment. Organismic supporters feel the individual�s actions are more important than the environment in terms of one�s development.
54. In the famous experiment by Harlow, frightened monkeys raised via cloth and wire mothers.
a. showed marked borderline personality traits.
b. surprisingly enough became quite friendly.
c. demonstrated a distinct lack of emotion.
d. ran over and clung to the cloth and wire surrogate mothers.
D. When given the choice of two cloth-covered mothers�one that provided milk and one that did not�the infant monkeys chose the one that gave milk. In a later experiment, Harlow and a colleague discovered that a warm mother and a mother who rocked were superior to a cool mother or a mother who did not rock.
55. A theorist who views developmental changes as quantitative is said to be an empiricist. The antithesis of this position holds that developmental strides are qualitative. What is the name given to this position.
c. statistical developmentalism.
d. all of the above.
B. The term organismic also has been used to describe Gestalt psychologists, such as Kurt Goldstein, who emphasize a holistic model.
56. In Piaget�s developmental theory, reflexes play the greatest role in the.
a. sensorimotor stage.
b. formal operational stage.
c. preoperational stage.
d. acquisition of conservation.
A. It would make sense that the child would use reflexes in the first stage, which is termed sensorimotor intelligence. Piaget has said that the term practical intelligence captures the gist of this stage. Piaget emphasized the concept of �object permanence� here. A child who is beyond approximately 8 months of age will search for an object that is no longer in sight (e.g., hidden behind a parent�s back or under a blanket). The child learns that objects have an existence even when the child is not interacting with them.
57. A mother hides a toy behind her back and a young child does not believe the toy exists anymore. The child has not mastered.
a. object permanence.
b. reflexive response.
c. representational thought.
d. a and c.
D. The child who has not mastered object permanence is still a victim of �out of sight, out of mind.� The child, needless to say, needs representational thought to master object permanence, which is also called object constancy. During this initial stage the child learns the concept of time (i.e., that one event takes place before or after another) and causality (e.g., that a hand can move an object).
58. The schema of permanency and constancy of objects occurs in the.
a. sensorimotor stage�birth to 2 years.
b. preoperational stage�2 to 7 years.
c. concrete operational stage�7 to 12 years.
d. formal operational stage�12 years and beyond.
A. If you missed this question take a break; you�ve probably been studying too long! After a little rest and relaxation, review questions 56 and 57. Incidentally, around the second month of age the child begins to smile in response to a face or a mask that resembles a face.
59. John Bowlby has asserted that.
a. attachment is not instinctual.
b. attachment is best explained via Skinnerian principle.
c. a and b.
d. conduct disorders and other forms of psychopathology can result from inadequate attachment and bonding in early childhood.
D. Remember, Bowlby starts with a �b� and so does bonding. Bowlby, a British psychoanalyst, felt that mothers should be the primary caretakers, while the father�s role is to support the mother emotionally rather than nurturing the child himself. Although this view was well accepted when it was proposed in the early 1950s, most counselors probably would not agree with it today.
60. The Harlow experiments utilizing monkeys demonstrated that animals placed in isolation during the first few months of life.
a. still developed in a normal fashion.
b. still related very well with animals reared normally.
c. appeared to be abnormal and autistic.
d. were fixated in concrete operational thought patterns.
C. The word autistic means extremely withdrawn and isolated.
61. According to the Freudians, if a child is severely traumatized, he or she may _______ a given psychosexual stage.
b. become fixated at
d. a and c
B. Here is a must-know term for any major exam. In psychoanalytic theory the word fixation implies that the individual is unable to go from one developmental stage to the next. The person literally becomes stuck (or fixated) in a stage where he or she feels safe. Therefore, when life becomes too traumatic, emotional development can come to a screeching halt, although physical and cognitive processes may continue at a normal pace.
62. An expert who has reviewed the literature on TV and violence would conclude that.
a. watching violence tends to make children more aggressive.
b. watching violence tends to make children less aggressive.
c. in reality TV has no impact on a child�s behavior.
d. what adults see as violent, children perceive as caring.
- A. Experiments have demonstrated that even nursery school age children display more violent behavior after observing violence.
- Other researchers emphasize that the more we see, hear, and read about violence, the less it bothers us; ergo, we behave in a more violent manner.
63. A counselor who utilizes the term instinctual technically means.
a. behavior results from unconscious aggression.
b. women will show the behavior to a higher degree than men.
c. a and b.
d. behavior that manifests itself in all normal members of a given species.
D. Instincts are innate behaviors that do not need to be practiced or learned. Instincts are not learned behavioral responses.
64. The word ethology, which is often associated with the work of Konrad Lorenz, refers to.
a. Piaget�s famous case study methodology.
b. the study of animals� behavior in their natural environment.
c. studies on monkeys raised in Skinnerian air cribs.
d. all of the above.
B. The study of ethology was developed by European zoologists who tried to explain behavior using Darwinian theory. Today, when counselors refer to ethology, it concerns field research utilizing animals (e.g., birds or fish). The term comparative psychology refers to laboratory research using animals and attempts to generalize the findings to humans. Konrad Lorenz is best known for his work on the process of imprinting, an instinctual behavior in goslings and other animals in which the infant instinctively follows the first moving object it encounters, which is usually the mother. Lorenz used himself as the first moving object, and the newborn geese followed him around instead of following the real mother! This illustrates the principle of �critical periods,� which states that certain behaviors must be learned at an early time in the animal�s development. Otherwise, the behaviors will never be learned at all. Just for the record, choice �c� mentions Burrhus Frederic Skinner�s air crib, which was a relatively bacteria-free, covered crib that Skinner relied on to help raise his daughter! Skinner is famous for his operant conditioning model. It will be examined in greater depth in future questions.
65. A child who focuses exclusively on a clown�s red nose but ignores his or her other features would be illustrating the Piagetian concept of.
c. formal abstract reasoning.
d. deductive processes.
B. Centration occurs in the preoperational stage and is characterized by focusing on a key feature of a given object while not noticing the rest of it. Egocentrism in choice �a� refers to the preoperational child�s inability to see the world from anyone else�s vantage point. Piaget and Inhelder showed children a model mountain from all sides. The children then sat in front of the model and were asked to pick a picture that best described what the experimenter was seeing. The experimenter was sitting in a different location. Children continually picked pictures of their own view. The abstract reasoning in choice �c� takes place in the final formal operational stage. Deductive thinking processes in choice �d� allow an individual to apply general reasoning to specific situations.
66. Piaget felt.
a. homework depresses the elementary child�s IQ.
b. strongly that the implementation of Glasser�s concepts in Schools Without Failure should be made mandatory in all elementary settings.
c. that teachers should lecture a minimum of four hours daily.
d. teachers should lecture less, as children in concrete operations learn best via their own actions and experimentation.
D. The only correct answer is �d� inasmuch as Piaget felt that before the final stage (i.e., formal operations, which begins at age 11 or 12) a child learns best from his or her own actions, not lectures, and his or her interactions and communications with peers rather than adults. Piaget, nevertheless, was quick to point out that he did not consider himself an educator but rather a genetic epistemologist. Epistemology is a branch of philosophy that attempts to examine how we know what we know. William Glasser in choice �b� is the Father of reality therapy.
67. Piaget�s preoperational stage.
a. is the final stage, which includes abstract reasoning.
b. includes mastering conservation.
c. includes the acquisition of a symbolic schema.
d. all of the above.
C. Symbolic mental processes allow language and symbolism in play to occur. A milk carton can easily become a spaceship or a pie plate can become the steering wheel of an automobile. The preoperational stage occurs from age 2 to 7. If you erroneously felt any of the other choices were correct review all the previous questions related to Piagetian theory.
68. Sigmund Freud and Erik Erikson agreed that.
a. each developmental stage needed to be resolved before an individual could move on to the next stage.
b. developmental stages are primarily psychosexual.
c. developmental stages are primarily psychosocial.
d. a person can proceed to a higher stage even if a lower stage is unsolved.
A. Freud felt the stages were psychosexual and his disciple Erikson felt they were psychosocial, yet both agreed that individuals must resolve one stage before forging on to the next. Another well-known figure in developmental processes is R. J. Having-hurst, who proposed developmental tasks for infancy and early childhood (e.g., learning to walk or eat solid foods); tasks for middle childhood, ages 6 to 12 years (e.g., learning to get along with peers or developing a conscience); tasks of adolescence, ages 12 to 18 years (e.g., preparing for marriage and an economic career); tasks of early adulthood ages, 19 to 30 years (e.g., selecting a mate and starting a family); tasks of middle age ages, 30 to 60 years (e.g., assisting teenage children to become responsible adults and developing leisure-time activities); and tasks of later maturity, age 60 and beyond (e.g., dealing with the death of a spouse and adjusting to retirement). Another popular stage theorist is Jane Loevinger, who focused on ego development via seven stages and two transitions, the highest level being �integrated� (being similar to Maslow�s self-actualized individual or Kohlberg�s self-accepted universal principles stage).
69. The tendency for adult females in the United States to wear high heels is best explained by.
a. the principle of negative reinforcement.
b. sex role socialization.
c. Konrad Lorenz�s studies on imprinting.
d. ethological data.
B. In the past the belief was that the differences between men and women were the result of biological factors. However, most counselors today feel that the child �learns� gender identity and male/female roles. Sandra Bem has spoken out against gender stereotyping (e.g., a woman�s place is in the home), and feels when males and females are not guided by traditional sex roles individuals can be more androgynous and hence more productive. Choice �a,� negative reinforcement, is a behavioristic term. Negative reinforcement occurs when the removal of a stimulus increases the probability that an antecedent behavior will occur. Never forget: All reinforcers�positive and negative�increase the probability that a behavior will occur. In positive reinforcement the addition of a stimulus strengthens or increases a behavior. If you still don�t understand, relax, there�s plenty more in the �Helping Relationships� section of this guide.
70. The sequence of object loss, which goes from protest to despair to detachment, best describes the work of.
b. Adler on birth order.
D. In psychoanalysis the term object describes the target of one�s love. Bowlby felt that if the child was unable to bond with an adult by age 3 he or she would be incapable of having normal social relationships as an adult.
71. A counselor who is seeing a 15-year-old boy who is not doing well in public speaking class would need to keep in mind that.
a. in general, boys have better verbal skills than girls.
b. in general, girls possess better verbal skills than boys.
c. in general, boys possess better visual�perceptual skills and are more active and aggressive than girls.
d. b and c.
D. The correct response is �d,� since choices �b� and �c� are both accurate according to research of Maccoby and Jacklin. Although I previously stated that most sex-role differences are the result of learning, not biological factors, the tendency for boys to be more aggressive is probably one of the behavioral differences which can be attributed to androgen hormone. Actually, this is a very tricky question indeed. Assuming you could separate fact from male/female fiction, you still might have marked choice �b� feeling that choice �c� was irrelevant in terms of counseling the client. My feeling is that �c� nevertheless is relevant since you might wish to emphasize positive qualities that the client possesses. Thus, if you marked choice �b,� give yourself a grade of A-, or convince yourself that I�m just plain wrong. After all, that�s what makes baseball games, political elections, oral and written boards, or even licensing and certification exams. Of course, since you�re dealing with your perfectionism in a rational manner, it really won�t matter now, will it?
72. Two brothers begin screaming at each other during a family counseling session. The term that best describes the phenomenon is.
a. the primal scene.
b. preconscious psychic processes.
c. sibling rivalry.
C. In counseling, sibling rivalry refers to competition between siblings (i.e., a brother and a brother, a brother and a sister, or a sister and a sister). The �primal scene� noted in choice �a� is a psychoanalytic concept that suggests that a young child witnesses his parents having sexual intercourse or is seduced by a parent. The incident, whether real or imagined, is said to provide impetus for later neuroses. Choice �b� is also an analytic term and is known as the �foreconscious� in some textbooks. The preconscious mind is deeper than the conscious but not as deep as the unconscious. Preconscious material is not conscious but can be recalled without the use of special psychoanalytic techniques. This will be examined in more detail in the �Helping Relationship� section. The final choice, BASIC-ID, is an acronym posited by behaviorist Arnold Lazarus who feels his approach to counseling is multimodal, relying on a variety of therapeutic techniques. BASIC-ID stands for: Behavior, Affective Responses, Sensations, Imagery, Cognitions, Interpersonal Relationships, and Drugs.
73. A preschool child�s concept of causality is said to be animistic. This means the child attributes human characteristics to inanimate objects. Thus, the child may fantasize that an automobile or a rock is talking to him. This concept is best related to.
a. Carl Jung�s concepts of anima, animus.
b. Freud�s wish fulfillment.
c. Piaget�s preoperational period, age 2 to 7 years.
d. ego identity.
C. Animism occurs when a child acts as if nonliving objects have lifelike abilities and tendencies. Choice �a� mentions two concepts of the Swiss psychiatrist C. G. Jung, the father of analytic psychology. The anima represents the female characteristics of the personality while the animus represents the male characteristics. (Two super memory devices are that men generally have muscles [ani�mus�] and ma means mother, who is female [ani�ma�].) Jung calls the anima and the animus �archetypes,� which are inherited unconscious factors. Choice �b,� wish fulfillment, is a Freudian notion that dreams and slips of the tongue are actually wish fulfillments. The term ego identity, used in choice �d,� is most often associated with Erikson�s fifth stage: identity versus role confusion. When an adolescent is able to integrate all his or her previous roles into a single self-concept, the person has achieved ego identity. An inability to accomplish this task results in role confusion, which is known as an identity crisis.
74. Elementary school counseling and guidance services.
a. have been popular since the early 1900s.
b. became popular during World War II.
c. are a fairly new development which did not begin to gain momentum until the 1960s.
d. none of the above.
C. Choice �a� would be true for secondary school counseling and guidance fueled by the work of Frank Parsons. Secondary school counseling services increased rapidly in the 1960s. Now let�s turn our attention to elementary school counseling. Three key reasons have been cited for the slow development of elementary school counseling. First, the majority of people believed that schoolteachers could double as counselors. Second, counseling was conceptualized as focusing on vocational issues. This would not be a primary issue in the elementary years. Finally, secondary schools utilized social workers and psychologists who would intervene if emotional problems were still an issue as the child got older. In the 1980s some state departments of education made elementary school counselors mandatory and needless to say the number of jobs in this area flourished. Surprisingly, middle-school/junior high counseling is an even more recent phenomenon than elementary school counseling. Except for the fact that these children (ages 10 to 14, also known as bubblegummers!) experience more anxiety than their elementary or high school counterparts, we know less about this population than any other in the K-12 system. There are over 100,000 school counselors in the United States.
75. Research related to elementary school counselors indicates that.
a. counselors of this ilk work hard, but just don�t seem to have an impact on youngsters� lives.
b. these counselors are effective, do make a difference in children�s lives, and more counselors should be employed.
c. counselors of this ilk could be helpful if they would engage in more consultation work.
d. should be used primarily as disciplinarians, but this is not happening in most districts.
B. In reference to choice �c� elementary counselors do indeed perform a host of useful consultation services with teachers and other professionals. Elementary school counseling has been defined as the only organized profession to work with individuals from a purely preventive and developmental standpoint. Let�s hear it for all those wonderful elementary school counselors out there!
76. According to the Yale research by Daniel J. Levinson.
a. Erikson�s generativity versus stagnation stage simply doesn�t exist.
b. Eighty percent of the men in the study experienced moderate to severe midlife crises.
c. an �age 30 crisis� occurs in men when they feel it will soon be too late to make later changes.
d. b and c.
D. Levinson and his colleagues were surprised to discover that adult developmental transitions in white-collar and blue-collar men seemed to be relatively universal. Sheehy has pointed out that both men and women tend to experience typical crises, or so-called �passages,� and each passage can be utilized to reach one�s potential.
77. Erikson�s middle age stage (ages 35�60) is known as generativity versus stagnation. Generativity refers to.
a. the ability to do creative work or raise a family.
b. the opposite of stagnation.
c. the productive ability to create a career, family, and leisure time.
d. all of the above.
D. Choice �d� gives you a thumbnail sketch of Erikson�s seventh, or second-to-last, stage. A person who does not master this stage well becomes self-centered; hence, you also will see the stage termed �generativity versus self-absorption.� A nice memory device here is that �generativity� sounds like �generation� and a successful individual in this stage plans for the next generation. Havinghurst, mentioned earlier, would refer to this stage as the middle adult years (he also mentions young adult and old adult periods). Havinghurst feels that the middle adult should achieve civic responsibility, maintain a home, guide adolescents, develop leisure, adjust to bodily changes, and learn to relate to a spouse. Good advice, but if it seems a little dated, it is; 1952 vintage. The 1950s were the golden years for developmental psychology.
78. A person who can look back on his or her life with few regrets feels.
a. the burden of senile psychosis.
b. ego-integrity in Erikson�s integrity versus despair stage.
c. despair, which is the sense that he or she has wasted life�s precious opportunities.
d. the burden of generalized anxiety as described in the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, published by the American Psychiatric Association (DSM).
B. According to Erikson, successful resolution of this stage results in the belief that one�s life served a purpose. Choice �a� introduces the term senile psychosis, which is decidedly incorrect but a relevant term nevertheless. The word psychosis refers to a break from reality which can include hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders. In senile psychosis this condition is brought on via old age. At times, the term will be used in a looser sense to imply a loss of memory. Choice �d� throws out two other �must-know� new terms. In counseling, anxiety (or generalized anxiety) refers to fear, dread, or apprehension without being able to pinpoint the exact reason for the feeling. Anxiety is in contrast to a phobia, in which the client can pinpoint the cause or source of fear (e.g., riding an elevator). The DSM is a manual used to classify and label mental disorders so that all mental health practitioners will mean roughly the same thing (i.e., regarding symptomatology, etc.) when they classify a client. The branch of medicine which concerns itself with the classification of disease is known as �nosology.� Thus counselors use the DSM as their primary nosological guide.
79. Sensorimotor is to Piaget as oral is to Freud, and as _______ is to Erikson.
a. integrity versus despair
c. trust versus mistrust
d. play therapy
C. This is the analogy question mentioned earlier, and identifying the correct answer is actually quite simple. The question matches Piaget�s name to his first stage (i.e., sensorimotor) and Freud�s name to his first stage (i.e., oral). Thus you will match Erikson�s name to his first stage, which is trust versus mistrust. Play therapy choice �d� and art therapy is often preferable to traditional counseling and therapy because cultural differences have less impact on these types of intervention.
80. Which theorist was most concerned with maternal deprivation.
a. A. Lazarus
b. H. Harlow
c. J. Wolpe
B. Harry Harlow was born in 1905 and died in 1981. He is best known for his work with rhesus monkeys at the University of Wisconsin. Choice �c� mentions Joseph Wolpe, who pioneered the technique of systematic desensitization, a behavioristic technique used to ameliorate phobic reactions. Albert Ellis (Choice �d�) is a New York clinical psychologist who developed a form of treatment known as Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT), which teaches clients to think in a more scientific and logical manner. Ellis was originally trained as an analyst and is a very prolific writer.
81. When development comes to a halt, counselors say that the client.
a. has �learned helplessness� syndrome.
b. suffers from a phobia.
c. suffers from fixation.
d. is displaying the risky shift phenomenon.
C. This is primarily an analytic concept. Freud felt that frustration and anxiety are normal when passing through a developmental stage, but when they become too powerful emotional growth will literally stop and the person becomes stuck (fixated) in the current stage. Learned helplessness in choice �a� connotes a pattern in which a person is exposed to situations that he or she is truly powerless to change and then begins to believe he or she has no control over the environment. Such a person can become easily depressed. This concept is generally associated with the work of Martin E. P. Seligman, who experimentally induced learned helplessness in dogs via giving them electric shocks while placed in a harness. These dogs�unlike untrained dogs�did not even try to escape the painful shocks when the harnesses were removed. Choice �b� is phobia, which is a known fear, such as a fear of furry animals or flying in an airplane. Key exam hint: In counseling, a phobia is often distinguished from anxiety. In an anxiety reaction, the client is unaware of the source of the fear. The final choice, risky shift phenomenon, describes the fact that a group decision is typically more liberal than the average decision of an individual group member prior to participation in the group. Simply put, the individual�s initial stance will generally be more conservative than the group�s decision.
82. Kohlberg proposed three levels of morality. Freud, on the other hand, felt morality developed from the.
A. Eric Berne, the father of Transactional Analysis, put Freudian lingo in everyday language and spoke of the Parent ego state, which is roughly equivalent to the superego. The Parent ego state is filled with the shoulds, oughts, and musts which often guide our morality.
83. Which theorist would be most likely to say that aggression is an inborn tendency.
a. Carl Rogers
b. B. F. Skinner
c. Frank Parsons, the Father of Guidance
d. Konrad Lorenz
D. Bad news, folks; Konrad Lorenz compared us to the wolf or the baboon and claimed that we are naturally aggressive. According to Lorenz, aggressiveness is part of our evolution and was necessary for survival. The solution according to Lorenz is for us to utilize catharsis and get our anger out, using methods such as competitive sports. Choices �a� and �c� cite two of the most influential names in the history of counseling. Carl Ransom Rogers created nondirective counseling, later called client-centered counseling, and more recently, person-centered counseling. Frank Parsons has been called the father of guidance. In the early 1900s Parsons set up centers to help individuals in search of work.
84. The statement, �Bad behavior is punished, good behavior is not,� is most closely associated with.
a. Kohlberg�s premoral stage at the preconventional level.
b. Kohlberg�s conventional level.
c. the work of Carl Jung.
d. Piaget�s autonomous stage, which begins at about age 8.
A. In the initial stage, morality is guided by a fear of punishment. Choice �d� is concerned with the Piagetian conceptualization of moral development. Piaget suggested two major stages: the heteronomous stage and the autonomous stage, which begins at approximately age 10. Heteronomous morality occurs between ages 4 and 7, when the child views rules as absolutes that result in punishment. Autonomous morality is characterized by the child�s perception that rules are relative and can be altered or changed.
85. A critical period.
a. makes imprinting possible.
b. emphasizes manifest dream content.
c. signifies a special time when a behavior must be learned or the behavior won�t be learned at all.
d. a and c.
D. A critical period is a time when an organism is susceptible to a specific developmental process. A critical period marks the importance of heredity and environment on development. In humans, for example, language acquisition is thought to begin at around age 2 and ends at about age 14.
86. Imprinting is an instinct in which a newborn will follow a moving object. The primary work in this area was done by.
a. Erik Erikson.
b. Milton H. Erickson.
c. Konrad Lorenz.
d. Harry Harlow.
C. Some behavioral scientists refer to instinctual behavior as �species-specific,� meaning that the behavioral trait occurs in every member of the species. The behavior is unlearned and universal.
87. Marital satisfaction.
a. is usually highest when a child is old enough to leave home.
b. often decreases with parenthood and is lowest prior to a child leaving home.
c. correlates high with performance IQ.
d. is highest among couples who have seven or more college-educated children.
B. Despite a divorce rate of nearly 50% in the United States, most Americans still desire to marry.
88. Maslow, a humanistic psychologist, is famous for his �hierarchy of needs,� which postulates.
a. lower-order physiological and safety needs and higher-order needs, such as self-actualization.
b. that psychopathology rests within the id.
c. that unconscious drives control self-actualization.
d. that stimulus-response psychology dictates behavioral attributes.
A. Answers �b,� �c,� and �d� are necessarily incorrect inasmuch as Abraham Maslow rejected both analytic psychology and behaviorism; he felt they dehumanized men and women. Maslow�s theory has been dubbed �humanistic psychology,� or a �third force� psychology. Maslow felt the person first needs to satisfy immediate or basic needs such as food and water. Next, safety and security must be dealt with. Next, a need for love, affection, and belonging emerges. The highest level is termed self-actualization, meaning the person becomes all he or she can be. A word to the wise: Some tests may refer to higher-order needs (i.e., any need which is not physiological) as �metaneeds.�
89. To research the dilemma of self-actualization, Maslow.
a. used goslings as did Konrad Lorenz.
b. psychoanalyzed over 400 neurotics.
c. worked exclusively with schizophrenics in residential settings.
d. interviewed the best people he could find who escaped �the psychology of the average.�
D. You didn�t mark choice �a,� did you? Imagine trying to learn about self-actualization from studying baby goslings! No, Maslow didn�t utilize goslings, nor did he turn to persons with severe psychological problems. Maslow said if you research the �psychopathology of the average� you will have a sick theory of human behavior! The answer: work with those who have transcended the so-called average or normal existence.
a. a maturationist.
b. a behaviorist.
c. a structuralist who believes stage changes are qualitative.
C. According to the structuralist viewpoint, each stage is a way of making sense out of the world. Choice �d,� cognitive-behavioral, generally applies to counselors who emphasize thought processes in terms of their impact on emotions as well as behavioristic strategies (e.g., reinforcement or homework assignments).
91. _______ factors cause Down syndrome, which produces mental retardation.
c. Chemical dependency
B. Persons with Down syndrome have a rather flat face, a thick tongue, and slanted eyes. Down syndrome, which is the result of a chromosomal abnormality (an additional chromosome or two), causes brain damage which results in an IQ of 50 or less (100 is normal). Down syndrome also has been called �mongolism,� which was inspired by the slanted, almost Asiatic eyes. Other genetic or hereditary conditions include: Phenylketonuria (PKU), which is an amino acid metabolic difficulty that causes retardation unless the baby is placed on a special diet; Klinefelter�s syndrome, in which a male shows no masculinity at puberty; and Turner�s syndrome, where a female has no gonads or sex hormones.
92. Piaget referred to the act of taking in new information as assimilation. This results in accommodation, which is a modification of the child�s cognitive structures (schemas) to deal with the new information. In Piagetian nomenclature, the balance between assimilation and accommodation is called.
c. balance theory.
d. ABA design.
B. Choice �a� refers to an experimental process in which a researcher varies the order of conditions to eliminate irrelevant variables. Choice �c,� balance theory, suggests that individuals avoid inconsistent or incompatible beliefs. In other words, people prefer consistent beliefs. This is sometimes known as the tendency to maintain �cognitive consistency.� ABA design, noted in choice �d,� is experimental and research lingo. The A stands for the baseline, which is the behavior before an experimental or treatment procedure is introduced. B is the treatment. After the treatment is implemented the occurrence of A (the behavior in question) is measured to see if a change is evident.
93. There are behavioral, structural, and maturational theories of development. The maturational viewpoint utilizes the plant growth analogy, in which the mind is seen as being driven by instincts while the environment provides nourishment, thus placing limits on development. Counselors who are maturationists.
a. conduct therapy in the here-and-now.
b. focus primarily on nonverbal behavior.
c. believe group work is most effective.
d. allow clients to work through early conflicts.
D. Counselors of this persuasion allow the client to work through the old painful material. Theoretically, the counselor acts almost like a perfect nonjudgmental parent. And thus the client can explore the situation in a safe, therapeutic relationship. Psychoanalysts and psychodynamic therapists fall into this category.
94. Ritualistic behaviors, which are common to all members of a species, are known as.
c. fixed-action patterns elicited by sign stimuli.
d. dysfunctional repetition.
C. Theoretically, a fixed-action pattern (abbreviated FAP) will result whenever a releaser in the environment is present. The action, or sequence of behavior, will not vary. In choice �a� the word hysteria is presented. Hysteria is said to occur when an individual displays an organic symptom (e.g., blindness, paralysis, or deafness), yet no physiological causes are evident. Choice �b,� pica, is a condition in which a person wishes to eat items that are not food (i.e., the item has no nutritional value), such as consuming a pencil or perhaps a watch band. Just in case you�re wondering, fast-food consumption is not considered a sign of pica in our society�yet!
95. Robert Kegan speaks of a �holding environment� in counseling in which.
a. the client is urged to relive a traumatic experience in an encounter group.
b. biofeedback training is highly recommended.
c. the client can make meaning in the face of a crisis and can find new direction.
d. the activity of meaning making is discouraged.
C. Choice �d� is necessarily incorrect inasmuch as Kegan encourages �meaning making.� Kegan suggests six stages of life span development: incorporative, impulsive, imperial, interpersonal, institutional, and interindividual.
96. Most experts in the field of counseling agree that.
a. no one theory completely explains developmental processes; thus, counselors ought to be familiar with all the major theories.
b. Eriksonian theory should be used by counselors practicing virtually any modality.
c. a counselor who incorporates Piaget�s stages into his or her thinking would not necessarily need knowledge of rival therapeutic viewpoints.
d. a realistic counselor needs to pick one developmental theory in the same manner he or she picks a psychotherapeutic persuasion.
A. Since each theorist�s work has a slant to it (e.g., Freud�psychosexual factors; Kohlberg�moral factors; Piaget�intellectual/ cognitive factors, etc.), a well-rounded counselor will necessarily need a basic knowledge of all the popular theories.
97. Equilibration is.
a. a term which emphasizes the equality between the sexes.
b. performed via the id according to the Freudians.
c. a synonym for concrete operational thought.
d. the balance between what one takes in (assimilation) and that which is changed (accommodation).
D. In case you haven�t caught on, I�m banking on the fact that repetition can do wonders for your exam review. So one more time, just for the record: equilibration (or equilibrium) occurs when the child achieves a balance. When new information is presented, which the child�s current cognitive structures, known as �schemas� cannot process, a condition referred to as �disequilibrium� sets in. The child therefore changes the schemas to accommodate the novel information, and equilibration or equilibrium is mastered.
98. A counselor is working with a family who just lost everything in a fire. The counselor will ideally focus on.
a. Maslow�s higher-order needs, such as self-actualization.
b. building accurate empathy of family members.
c. Maslow�s lower-order needs, such as physiological and safety needs.
d. The identified patient.
C. Maslow, a pioneer in third force or humanistic psychology, suggested the following hierarchy of needs: survival, security, safety, love, self-esteem, and self-actualization. The assumption is that lower-order needs must be fulfilled before the individual can be concerned with higher-order needs.
99. The anal retentive personality is.
d. thinks very little about money matters.
B. To put it bluntly, the anal retentive character is said to be cheap!
100. From a Freudian perspective, a client who has a problem with alcoholism and excessive smoking would be.
a. considered an oral character.
b. considered an anal character.
c. considered a genital character.
d. fixated at the latency stage.
A. Here is where good old common sense comes in handy. The oral region of the body (i.e., the mouth) would be the portion of the body most closely related to smoking and alcoholism.
101. America has been called the most diverse country on the face of our planet. Counseling a client from a different social and/or cultural background is known as.
a. cross-cultural counseling.
b. multicultural counseling.
c. intercultural counseling.
d. all of the above.
D. Although �b� is the term we hear most often, choices �a,� �b,� and �c� are roughly synonymous and hence mean approximately the same thing when you encounter them in the literature. Some research indicates that clients from minorities have been misdiagnosed, misunderstood, and found counseling less helpful than those from the majority culture. Clients from minority cultures tend to seek out counseling less and drop out sooner. Nevertheless, a culturally competent counselor can be successful regardless of the client�s background. Thus, this is an important area of study. The ACA division that deals explicitly with this topic is the Association for Multicultural Counseling and Development (AMCD). The division is intended to raise cultural, racial, and ethnic understanding and empathy. Multicultural counseling�that emphasizes respect for differences�has been dubbed as the �fourth force of counseling theory.� Key exam hint: The term multicultural implies that we champion the idea of celebrating diversity. Some exams use the term cultural pluralism in an identical manner; however, some students are thrown a curve ball when they discover that cultural pluralism can also imply that a certain group (e.g., women, the disabled, senior citizens etc.) has special needs.
102. Culture refers to.
a. customs shared by a group which distinguish it from other groups.
b. values shared by a group that are learned from others in the group.
c. attitudes, beliefs, art, and language which characterize members of a group.
d. all of the above.
- D. The sum of choices �a,� �b,� and �c� add up to a wonderful little definition of culture. A person�s culture can really be delineated by those customs which set him or her apart from another culture. Immigrants or persons who must live in a culture which is different from their native culture often experience �culture conflict.� By definition culture conflict manifests itself whenever a person experiences conflicting thoughts, feelings, or behaviors due to divided cultural loyalties (i.e., loyalty to two or more cultures). Culture conflict also can describe the difficulties which arise when persons of different cultures live in the same geographical area. How will you know which definition of cultural conflict applies to a test question? Well, the only good answer is that you must read every question very carefully in order to ferret out the context of the question.
- Hint: The term macroculture or majority culture on comprehensive exams refers to the dominant culture or the culture that is accepted by the majority of citizens in a given society.
103. Our culture is more diverse than in the past. Multicultural counselors often work with persons who are culturally different. This means the client
a. is culturally biased.
b. suffers from the diagnosis of cultural relativity.
c. belongs to a different culture from the helper.
d. presents problems which deal only with culturally charged issues.
C. Here is a very important distinction. Multicultural counselors work with the entire range of human difficulties just like other counselors. Yes, multicultural counselors do indeed deal frequently with cultural issues and therefore choices �a� and �b� could be true, but they are decidedly not the best answers. Choice �d� is easy enough to eliminate if you read it carefully and noted the word only. Let�s zero in for a moment on the term noted in choice �b,� cultural relativity, also described as cultural relativism on some exams. Cultural relativity connotes that a behavior cannot be assessed as good or bad except within the context of a given culture. The behavior must be evaluated relative to the culture. In the United States, for example, teen pregnancy prior to marriage is considered a negative behavior and viewed as a difficulty. In other parts of the world premarital pregnancy may be seen as something which is positive because it establishes the woman�s fertility. Such a woman may even be described as more �marriageable.� The multicultural counselor must assess the client�s behavior based on the client�s own culture�not merely based on the counselor�s culture. The meaning or desirability of a given behavior, trait, or act is based on the culture. It is said that effective counselors must transcend the �culture-bound values� barrier in which the counselor is �bound� to his or her own values and tries to impose them on clients.
104. In order to diagnose clients from a different culture.
a. the counselor ideally will need some information regarding the specifics of the culture.
b. the counselor will find the DSM useless.
c. the counselor will find the ICD diagnosis useless.
d. NBCC ethics prohibit the use of DSM diagnosis when counseling clients from another culture.
A. Some of the literature in this area distinguishes �material culture� (e.g., books, paintings, homes, and tools) from what is termed �nonmaterial culture� (e.g., customs, values, humor, social ideas, or traditions). Some exams will refer to material culture items as �artifacts.� In any case, the current trend in counseling suggests that the counselor must understand cultural factors. This trend is known as �cultural awareness� and it is contrasted by a position of �cultural tunnel vision.� A good cross-cultural counselor will not impose his or her values on a client from a different cultural perspective. Another term you may see on an exam is culture epoch theory which suggests that all cultures�like children�pass through the same stages of development in terms of evolving and maturing. In regard to choice �d,� ethics stipulate that counselors must incorporate �culturally relevant techniques into their practice� and should acquire �cultural sensitivity� to client populations served. The appropriateness of a given DSM diagnosis is not specifically addressed. Nevertheless, experts seem to agree on the fact that the DSM is most applicable to those of European descent.
105. In the United States, each socioeconomic group represents.
a. a separate race.
b. a separate culture.
c. the silent middle class.
d. a separate national culture.
B. Choice �a,� race, refers to the identification of individuals via distinct physical or bodily (somatic) characteristics such as skin color or facial features. The assumption is thus made that a given race is based on genetic origin. Many racial groups can be distinguished from others by virtue of their looks. Social scientists have questioned whether race is indeed a valid concept since it is sometimes questionable as to what constitutes a given race. Choice �d,� national culture, is a term used to describe the cultural patterns common to a given country. Nevertheless, keep in mind that in reality there is the �ideal culture,� which is the way individuals are supposed to behave, as well as the �real culture,� which encompasses all behaviors within the culture, even those which are illicit or frowned upon. When a group of persons vehemently opposes the values of the culture, they are said to be members of a �counterculture.�
106. Which therapist was not instrumental in the early years of the social psychology movement.
D. Eric Berne, the Father of Transactional Analysis (choice �d�) is the only answer which makes sense here. Here�s why. Freud (choice �a�) is known for his influential 1921 book, Group Psychology and the Analysis of the Ego, which suggested that the group was held together by a bond between the leader and the group members that was seen as somewhat analogous to a hypnotist and his or her subject. This is a bit far-fetched according to some, but clearly indicative of Freud�s fascination with the power of hypnosis. The Frenchman Emile Durkheim (choice �b�) is considered one of the founders of modern sociology. His principles were first outlined in his 1895 work, Rules of Sociological Method. He is also well-known for his research into suicide, which culminated in another literary work, Suicide, two years later. Durkheim is said to have taken group phenomena beyond the armchair speculation stage into formal research. William McDougall (choice �c�) is the father of �Hormic Psychology,� a Darwinian viewpoint which suggested that individuals in or out of groups are driven by innate, inherited tendencies. Although this approach began to lose ground after the behaviorist movement picked up steam, McDougall is well-remembered for his 1908 landmark work, Introduction to Social Psychology He also believed in the concept of eugenics or the notion that genetics (e.g., selective breeding of those with high intelligence) would improve the gene pool and the human condition. Unfortunately, this position has often viewed in a negative light and has been dubbed as �scientific rascism.�
107. _______ and _______ would say that regardless of culture, humans have an instinct to fight.
a. Maslow; Rogers
b. Ellis; Harper
c. Freud; Lorenz
d. Glasser; Rogers
C. Freud believed that man was basically driven by the instincts of sex and aggression. Lorenz�partially basing his theory on the fact that certain tropical fish will attack an alternate target even when the actual target of aggression is removed�is another believer in the so-called �innate aggression theory.� I find this logic a tad fishy when applied to the genus Homo sapiens. P.S. McDougall, mentioned in the previous question, could also join the ranks of Freud and Lorenz as an �instinct theorist.�
108. _______ believe that aggression is learned. Thus, a child who witnesses aggressive behavior in adults may imitate the aggressive behavior.
a. Instinct theorists
b. Innate aggression theorists
c. Social learning theorists
d. Followers of Erik Erikson
C. If you marked choices �a� or �b� then it�s crystal clear that you are not reading the answers carefully enough. Review the last question. The social learning theory contradicts the �innate/instinct aggression theory� by emphasizing the environment rather than genetics or inborn tendencies. This model is generally associated with the work of Albert Bandura and his associates, who noted that children who viewed live or filmed aggression imitated the behavior. This is known as social learning theory or observational learning. The phenomenon is greatest when the adult is admired, powerful, or well-liked. Hmmm. I wonder how many television personalities, rock stars, and sports figures are keeping abreast of the findings in social psychology? Just for the record, adolescents often model angry or aggressive parents, even in homes where the parents discourage hostile behavior.
109. The APGA, which became the AACD until 1992 and is now the ACA, contributed to the growth of cross-cultural counseling by.
a. the 1972 formation of the Association for Non-White Concerns in Personnel and Guidance, later known as the Association for Multicultural Counseling and Development.
b. the 1972 ethic which made it unethical to see culturally different clients without three hours of relevant graduate work in this area.
c. the 1972 ethic which required a 3,000-hour practicum in order to work with culturally different clients.
d. urging nonwhites to take graduate counseling courses.
A. The Civil Rights Act of 1964 (P.L. 88�352) prohibiting discrimination for reasons of gender, race, religion, or national origin was instrumental in terms of setting the stage for minority concerns.
110. Daniel Levinson proposed a theory with several major life transitions. He.
a. is the Father of Multicultural Counseling.
b. wrote the 1978 classic Seasons of a Man�s Life and the sequel Seasons of a Woman�s Life in 1997.
c. postulated a midlife crisis for men between ages 40�45 and for women approximately five years earlier.
d. b and c.
D. Middle-aged readers: listen up! Subsequent research indicates that Levinson�s theory of a midlife crisis for men or for women doesn�t really hold water. Levinson�s theory, originally derived by interviewing middle-aged men from different backgrounds, suggested three major transitions. Levinson provides no statistical analysis. The first transition is known as early adult transition and is said to occur between the ages of 17 and 22. In this stage the individual makes decisions about college, the military, and breaking away from one�s parents. This is the �leaving the family stage.� A dream of the ideal adult life is formulated. Next, he proposes the age 30 transition (ages 28�33) in which the person attempts to make the dream a reality. After this stage the man experiences a. settling down period. Next, comes the midlife transition (ages 40�45 or approximately five years earlier for women). This stage is seen as stressful. The person questions his dream and acknowledges that goals may not be met. Moreover, one�s mortality becomes an issue (i.e., being young versus being old). An age 50 transition occurs. The final transition is later adulthood (ages 60 to 65) where the individual makes peace with the world.
111. The three factors which enhance interpersonal attraction are.
a. assertiveness, anxiety, ego strength.
b. close proximity, physical attraction, similar beliefs.
c. culture, race, assertiveness.
d. ego strength, anxiety, race.
B. Proxemics, or the study of proximity, relates to personal space, interpersonal distance, and territoriality. Leon Festinger discovered that friendship and attraction were highest for apartment dwellers living next door to each other. Social psychologists refer to the tendency for people who are in close proximity (say working at the same office or living close) to be attracted to each other as propinquity. The attraction waned even among people living two or three doors away. Although we like attractive people, the research shows that we generally end up with mates who are on our own level of attractiveness. Studies have literally shown that voters prefer attractive candidates though they are unaware of their bias. I often do a mini-experiment in my classes in which I pass out a picture of a very attractive individual and one who is very plain. I then ask the class to rate both individuals in regard to IQ and salary. True to the research, my class generally gives the good-looking individual an inflated IQ and salary. Studies also indicate that attractive people fare better in legal altercations (yes, even when they have committed a crime). Moreover, they are more likely to receive help during a time of need, and they are better able to sway the opinions of an audience. Compliments, or what some of the literature refers to as �rewardingness� (a genuine caring), could also be added to the list of factors which helps to intensify attraction.
112. The term contextualism implies that.
a. multicultural counseling is the oldest subspecialty in the profession.
b. behavior must be assessed in the context of the culture in which the behavior occurs.
c. the notion of worldview is highly inaccurate.
d. projective tests are more accurate than objective measures when performing cross-cultural counseling.
B. Let�s dispense of choice �a� by pointing out that although Frank Parsons, the Father of Guidance, acknowledged the significance of culture, it did not really begin to emerge as a true accepted subspecialty until the 1970s. A person�s perception of his or her relationship to the world as a whole is often termed a worldview. Choice �b� is a textbook definition of contextualism.
113. Carol Gilligan was critical of Lawrence Kohlberg�s theory of moral development.
a. as she felt it was too psychoanalytic.
b. as she felt it was too behavioristic.
c. as she felt it was not applicable to African Americans.
d. as she felt it was more applicable to males than females.
D. According to Gilligan, Kohlberg�s theory did not delineate the fact that women place more emphasis on caregiving and personal responsibility than do men, who focus more on individual rights and justice.
114. _______ helped to abet the multicultural counseling movement.
a. Arthur Jensen�s views on IQ testing (also known as Jensenism)
b. The civil rights movement
c. Jung�s feeling that all men and women from all cultures possess a collective unconscious
d. The Tarasoff Duty
B. First remember that intercultural counseling means the same thing as multicultural counseling. Jensen, choice �a,� tried to prove that Blacks had lower IQs due to genetic factors, while the Tarasoff case mentioned in choice �d� resulted in the counselor�s duty to warn an intended victim who might be the target of danger or violence.
115. When a counselor speaks of a probable outcome in a case, he or she is technically referring to.
a. the prognosis.
b. the diagnosis.
c. the intervention.
d. attending behavior.
A. Prognosis refers to the probability that one can recover from a condition. When dictating on cases the counselor would do well to discuss the length of treatment and the status expected at the end of treatment.
116. When a counselor speaks of what he or she believes must transpire from a psychotherapeutic standpoint, he or she technically is referring to.
b. the diagnosis.
c. the prognosis.
d. the notion of transference.
A. One difficulty with formal diagnosis (i.e., using the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM) of the American Psychiatric Association) is that a given diagnosis does not imply or recommend a given treatment process. The DSM will not tell you, for example, to treat a major depression with reality therapy or an adjustment disorder with mixed emotional features using a client-centered approach.
117. Some research suggests that very poor economic conditions correlate very highly with.
b. nonassertive behavior.
c. a and b.
D. This is not a new phenomenon. Research indicates that in the late 1800s and the first 30 years of the 20th century lynchings in the South increased as cotton prices dropped!
118. A wealth of research demonstrates that.
a. surprisingly enough, African Americans generally request Asian counselors.
b. surprisingly enough, Asians generally request African-American counselors.
c. in most instances, clients prefer a counselor of the same race and a similar cultural background.
d. in most instances, clients prefer a counselor of the same race, yet a different culture.
C. In multicultural counseling, �likes attract.� Social psychologists who have studied attraction tell us that similarity increases attraction. The phrase �in most instances� was intentional. Research demonstrates that if the other person is a member of a different nationality, race, or culture but is perceived as �similar� (i.e., more like you than someone of the same race and culture), then you still will be more attracted to the individual perceived as �similar� despite race or cultural barriers.
119. The frustration-aggression theory is associated with.
a. Albert Ellis.
b. Robert Havighurst, who created the idea of the developmental task concept.
c. Eric Berne, the creator of transactional analysis (TA).
d. John Dollard and Neal Miller.
D. Frustration occurs when an individual is blocked so that he or she cannot reach an intended goal (or the goal is removed). The Dollard/Miller hypothesis asserts that frustration leads to aggression. Albert Ellis (note choice �a�), the Father of Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT), does not agree with the theory. He feels that unfortunately many clients do indeed believe that frustration causes aggression. Ellis maintains that this transpires due to the client�s irrational thought process (i.e., actually believing it is true) rather than some automatic response pattern. Some social psychologists believe that when individuals lose their identity (sometimes called �deindividuation�) they are likely to become aggressive or violent. It has been found that the presence of weapons raises the level of violence as well as the probability that it will occur. Counselors need to keep this in mind when dealing with suicidal and homicidal clients (e.g., an individual who owns a gun is more likely to turn his or her aggression against the self; firearms constitute the number one method of committing suicide in our country).
120. A popular balance theory in social psychology is _______ cognitive dissonance theory.
a. Dollard and Miller�s
b. Crites and Roe�s
d. Holland and Super�s
C. Choices �b� and �d� are names primarily associated with the career counseling movement. The concept of balance theory suggests that people strive for consistency/balance in terms of their belief systems. Simply put, individuals attempt to reduce or eliminate inconsistent or incompatible actions and beliefs. A state of incompatibility is known as �dissonance,� which literally means discord. Leon Festinger, in 1957, suggested that individuals are motivated to reduce tension and discomfort, thus putting an end to the dissonance. A statement like, �I�d rather smoke three packs of cigarettes a day and enjoy myself than quit and live an extra year or two,� would be an example of cognitive dissonance in action. The person in this example has �changed the balance� by making his or her thinking consistent. People don�t like inconsistency in their thoughts. Dissonance is often reduced using denial. Thus the individual who says, �Sure I smoke, but the research which suggests it is harmful is not accurate,� is also practicing cognitive dissonance, since he or she is using a form of denial.
121. Culture is really a set of rules, procedures, ideas, and values shared by members of a society. Culture is said to be normative. This implies that.
a. one culture will have norms which differ only slightly from another.
b. culture excludes customs.
c. culture provides individuals with standards of conduct.
d. culture is never socially learned.
C. Cultures often differ markedly from each other, and most experts would agree that the customs are nearly always learned and shared with members of the society.
122. A statistical norm measures actual conduct, while a cultural norm.
a. describes how people are supposed to act.
b. has little to do with expectations.
c. is irrelevant when counseling a client.
d. all of the above.
A. Choice �b� is the direct antithesis of the correct alternative choice �a.� Some multicultural practitioners suggest that culture is really a system of norms. Here is an important distinction: A statistical norm measures actual conduct, while a cultural norm describes the expectations of how one should act.
123. Mores are beliefs.
a. regarding the rightness or wrongness of behavior.
b. which should be the central focus in multicultural counseling.
c. that are conscious decisions made by persons in power.
d. that are identical with the folkways in the culture.
A. Mores�the plural of mos, which is rarely used in the literature�develop as a given group decides what is good and bad for the welfare of the people. People are generally punished for violating the mores. On an exam you may be asked to distinguish �folkways� (see choice �d�) from mores. Folkways, like mores, describe correct, normal, or habitual behavior. The difference is that breaking folkways generally results in embarrassment, while breaking mores causes harm to others or threatens the existence of the group. If, for example, you are an American and you drink a large bowl of soup directly from a soup bowl rather than using a spoon, then you have violated an American folkway. Your behavior won�t really win you friends or positively influence people, but you won�t be asked to spend time in a maximum security correction facility either. If, on the other hand, you kill three people and rob a bank, you have violated mores and your behavior could indeed result in serious punishment. Some of the literature does not attempt to describe mores as a separate entity but rather as a type of folkway, and thus choice �d� isn�t really that far off the mark. If you�re looking for a simple memory device, why not try the fact that �mores� begins with an �m� as does the word �morals.� Mores are behaviors that are based on morals. If you drink your soup out of a large bowl or pot, you may be in violation of an American folkway or in dire need of a course in etiquette, though I doubt whether your friends will classify you as immoral! Keep in mind that in other cultures a behavior such as this might not be in violation of a folkway. For example, in some Japanese cultures it is considered good table manners to drink soup out of a bowl as if it were a cup. As I pointed out earlier when I mentioned the concept of cultural relativism: a behavior can only be judged within the context of a person�s culture.
124. _______ was the first pioneer to focus heavily on sociocultural issues.
a. Mark Savickas�a major figure in career counseling
b. Alfred Adler�the Father of Individual Psychology
c. Maxie Maultsby�the Father of Rational Behavior Therapy (RBT)
d. Frank Parsons�the Father of Guidance, who wrote Choosing a Vocation
D. Frank Parsons and his associates are considered the first social reformers concerned with guidance in the United States.
125. A counselor who is part of a research study will be counseling clients in the Polar Regions and then at a point near the equator. Her primary concern will be
a. universal culture.
b. national culture.
c. ecological culture.
d. b and c.
D. Clemmont Vontress suggested that multicultural counselors would do well to remember that we are all part of a universal culture (choice �a�). We all have similar or universal needs (e.g., the hierarchy proposed by Maslow) and requirements for food, water, air, and sleep regardless of our cultural affiliation. Vontress noted that universal culture can be distinguished from national, regional, racio-ethnic, and ecological culture. Ecological culture implies that cultural norms are often the result of practical and survival behaviors related to the climate or the resources in a given physical or geological environment. Eating, drinking, clothing, and shelter behaviors would clearly be different in the Polar Regions than at the equator, desert region, or New York City. From a personal standpoint the counselor�s primary concern would probably be the ecological culture, and choice �b� (national culture) would no doubt run a close second.
126. Biological similarities and sameness are indicated by.
a. ecological culture.
c. regional and national culture.
d. universal culture.
D. The Human Genome Project has verified that biologically we are all more alike than different. The adept multicultural counselor will always keep in mind that he or she�like the client�is a product of universal culture.
127. Early vocalization in infants.
a. is more complex in African-American babies.
b. is more complex in Caucasian babies.
c. is nearly identical in all cultures around the globe.
d. is the finest indicator of elementary school performance.
C. From one side of the globe to the other, the initial sounds made by babies are very similar. The cultural environment then strengthens certain verbalizations via the process of reinforcement. The first word usually is spoken after approximately one year of life. The child may use one- or two-word phrases (e.g., �me eat� or �I Betty�) initially. These are known as �holophrases.� Initially, the child�s language is egocentric. By the fourth year most children can construct simple sentences. Children in middle-class homes usually have richer language patterns than those in lower socioeconomic homes. Lack of environmental stimulation (referred to as an �unstimulating� environment on some exams) does indeed hinder vocalization development.
128. In the 1920s, Emory Bogardus developed a social distance scale which evaluated.
a. socioeconomic trends.
b. how an individual felt toward other ethnic groups.
c. disadvantaged youth.
d. language barriers between Blacks and Asians.
B. Ethnicity can be defined as that which pertains to a large group of individuals who are categorized by national, religious, linguistic, or cultural attributes. Measurement of attitudinal attributes began in the 1920s. The Bogardus data were indicative of negative attitudes toward a number of groups, including Blacks, Jews, Mexicans, and Turks. A replication of the study in 1947 revealed that the negative attitudes still prevailed.
129. According to the foot-in-the-door technique, which has two distinct steps, a counselor who needs to make a home visit to a resistant client�s home.
a. should conduct the interview from the porch.
b. should double-bind the client.
c. should ask to come in the home.
d. should exude accurate empathy, but never ask to enter the home.
C. Choices �a,� �b,� and �d� could be utilized; nonetheless, they do not describe the �foot-in-the-door� obedience technique. The phenomenon asserts that when a person agrees to a less repugnant request (step 1), then he or she will be more likely to comply with a request which is even more distasteful (step 2). Thus, a counselor who first asks to come in the house (a small request) and receives an answer of �yes,� can then, for example, ask for medical information (a bigger request or so-called target request) related to a possible case of child abuse. Social science researchers report that trivial commitments lead to a so-called �momentum of compliance.� The notion is generally related to a 1966 study by Freedman and Fraser in which housewives who were first asked to sign a safe driving petition were more apt to comply with the request to put a large �Drive Carefully� sign on their front lawns. The moral of the experiment is to always ask for a small favor and you�ll have a better chance of getting a person to say �yes� when you ask for a bigger favor. Could a memory device which takes advantage of the fact that Freedman and Fraser start with an �f� like the word foot help you to remember the researchers whose often-quoted studies support this principle?
130. Most countries have an official language, a stated viewpoint, and a central government. This is reflected mainly by.
a. national culture.
b. human culture.
c. regional culture.
d. ecological culture.
A. Hint: Although choice �b� is not the correct answer, don�t let it throw you if your exam refers to �universal culture� as �human culture.� The above statement best describes national culture. Big business and high-tech media are lessening the gap between national cultures. In this day and age an individual living on the opposite side of the earth could be wearing the same prestigious pair of designer jeans as you. Thus, some experts have suggested that traditional cultures will eventually be supplanted by a �unified world culture� or a �unified global culture.� As of late, the term third cultures has been used to describe financial markets, international law, and other elements which transcend national culture.
131. Whereas a culture is defined primarily via norms and values, a society differs from a culture in that a society.
a. is defined as a set of mores.
b. has a distinct lack of norms.
c. is a self-perpetuating independent group which occupies a definitive territory.
d. none of the above.
C. The boundaries of a culture and a society are not the same. Cultures operate within societies; however, all members of a given society may not share the same culture.
a. uses one�s own culture as a yardstick to measure all others.
b. means race.
c. is a genetic term.
d. all of the above.
A. Statements like �superior race,� �savages,� �backward people,� or �the chosen few� capture the essence of the concept of ethnocentrism. In short, all societies are ethnocentric in the sense that they use their own view as a standard of reference and view themselves as superior. Again, ethnocentrism conveys the notion that one�s own group is superior.
133. All of these statements are ethnocentric except.
a. you can�t trust anyone over the age of 40.
b. Americans are generous.
c. Blue-collar workers are mean and selfish.
d. the Gross Domestic Product in the United States exceeds the figure in Mexico.
D. Ethnocentrism is based on opinion while choice �d� is fact. Ethnocentrism was clearly expressed in the World War II joke which suggested that Hitler couldn�t build a race of supermen because Superman could only be an American.
a. is not universal.
b. promotes a sense of patriotism and national sovereignty.
c. promotes stability and pride, yet danger in the nuclear age.
d. b and c.
D. According to researchers Levine and Campbell you can scratch off choice �a,� because ethnocentrism is truly a universal phenomenon in which the ethnic group tries to prove it is superior. Our government (as well as others) engages in choice �b� (a form of ethnocentrism) deliberately. Choice �c� reminds us of the ultimate danger in trying to prove sovereignty in a nuclear age. Key concept: Expect to see the term acculturation on exams related to multicultural studies. The term suggests that ethnic and racial minorities integrate or adopt cultural beliefs and customs from the majority or dominant culture. Assimilation is said to occur when the individual has such a high level of acculturation that he or she becomes part of the dominant, macro, or majority culture.
135. Regardless of culture, the popular individual.
a. has good social skills.
b. values race over ethnicity.
c. dresses in the latest styles.
d. never possesses a modal personality.
A. My best guess would be that most of you correctly chose the best alternative (choice �a�) based on common sense. So save your money on clothes (choice �c�) and fine tune your social skills! The only thing which might have made the question difficult was the introduction of the term modal personality in choice �d.� The term�derived from the statistical concept of the mode, which is used to describe the score which occurs most frequently�refers to a composite personality, which is the most typical profile of a given group of people. A modal personality is the personality which is characteristic or typical of the group in question.
136. Social exchange theory postulates that.
a. a relationship will endure if both parties are assertive.
b. a relationship will endure if the rewards are greater than the costs.
c. a relationship will endure if both parties are sexually attracted to each other.
d. men work harder to keep a relationship strong.
B. Social exchange theory assumes that rewards are things or factors we like, while costs are things we dislike. The theory assumes that a positive relationship is characterized by �profit�: Reward minus cost equals profit. Some counselors are understandably turned off by this �vest pocket definition of relationships� based on behavioral psychology and economic theory. A client who says to a family member, �As long as I pay the bills, you�ll do your chores,� is basing a relationship on rewards and costs. An alternative explanation of relationships is provided by the �complementarity theory,� which states that a relationship becomes stronger as the two people�s personality needs mesh. The word complementary indicates that one personality can make up what is lacking or missing in the other personality. For example, according to this theory, a dominant man and a non-dominant woman would have a fine chance of relating well toward each other.
137. Balance theory postulates.
a. a move from cognitive consistency to inconsistency.
b. a move from cognitive inconsistency to consistency.
c. a tendency to achieve a balanced cognitive state.
d. b and c.
D. Here�s a minireview: Inconsistent thoughts are often referred to as �dissonance.� Most counselors agree that dissonance is a distasteful state of mind which the individual will attempt to change.
138. Most individuals believe that people whom they perceive as attractive.
a. are nonassertive.
b. are aggressive.
c. have other positive traits.
d. are socially adept but not very intelligent.
C. This can cause the professional counselor difficulty if he or she tends to minimize a client�s problems merely because he or she is good-looking. For example, a thought such as �with looks like that she is no doubt the life of the party� demonstrates how the counselor erroneously assumes that a woman who is good-looking will have good social skills and feel comfortable at a social gathering. Clients�like books�cannot be judged by their covers, yet this tendency is quite common.
139. A counselor who works primarily with a geriatric population needs to be aware that.
a. African-American counselees make the best clients.
b. Native Americans do not believe in cognitive interventions.
c. surprisingly enough, attractiveness is a fine predictor of retirement adjustment.
d. surprisingly enough, financial security and health are the best predictors of retirement adjustment.
D. Yes, an old adage which suggests that money can help buy (or at least abet) happiness might just have a grain of truth. Here�s why. Approximately 9.8% of all Americans (about 3.5 million people) age 65 and older have an income below the poverty level! The prevailing feeling is that counselors of the future will be increasingly forced to deal with an older population as the U.S. population in general ages (the so-called �Age Wave�). In 1900 only 4% of the U.S. population was over 65; as of this writing the total is over 12% and growing, If I were you, another question I�d expect to see on my exam would relate to myths which impact upon counselors working with the aged. Two of the most popular myths are that (a) intelligence declines in old age (in reality only 8% of the aged are truly senile) and (b) the elderly are incapable of sex. In regard to the former, some exam questions could disagree with this generalization slightly, as the theory of �terminal drop� or �terminal decline� postulates that a dramatic decrease in intellectual functioning does occur, but even according to this theory, it only occurs during the final five years of life. Counseling older adults will become more common in the future: the human life expectancy has almost doubled since the turn of the century. Are you old if you have reached the big four-O? Certainly not in my estimation; however, employment agencies often view those who are over 40 as �older� and thus those who fit into this age bracket experience longer periods of unemployment than folks who are under 40.
140. Most experts would agree that a multicultural counselor�s diagnosis.
a. must be performed without regard to cultural issues.
b. must be done within a cultural context.
c. a and b.
d. none of the above.
B. The �cultural approach to normality� suggests that the behavior of the majority of the people defines what is considered �normal.� An important point to note, however, is that deviant behavior, such as in the case of a very powerful leader or a genius, may be lauded.
141. A counselor who is seeing a client from a different culture would most likely expect _______ social conformity than he or she would from a client from his or her own culture.
c. the same
d. more realistic
A. We demand more rigid standards from our own culture.
142. In terms of diagnosis,
a. a client�s behavior could be sane and appropriate in one culture, yet disturbed and bizarre in another.
b. culture is irrelevant in children under 14.
c. culture is an issue with males, but not with females.
d. culture is an issue with females, but not with males.
A. Again, the concept of �cultural relativism� implies that one�s behavior can only be evaluated in relation to the culture. Behavior in one culture cannot be judged by that which is considered normal in another culture. Behavioral scientists have thus attempted to create �cultural free� diagnostic instruments, but as of this date none has been totally effective.
143. In the United States, a frequent practice is to see a perfect stranger for therapy.
a. This trend seems to be true in any area of the world.
b. This is true for LPCs but not true for MSW therapists.
c. This is true for LPCs and MSWs but not clinical psychologists.
d. However, in other cultures it would not be the norm to see a stranger and receive pay for providing help.
D. In E. Fuller Torrey�s thought-provoking book, The Mind Game: Witch Doctors and Psychiatrists, he explains that in Nigeria, helpers have accepted a female client as a wife in lieu of a fee! He also notes that in other cultures a therapist cannot accept a fee unless the treatment is successful.
144. According to the cognitive dissonance theory of Leon Festinger, a man who buys a $20,000 platinum watch would most likely.
a. feel intense guilt.
b. read test reports after the purchase to justify his behavior.
c. harbor severe hatred regarding his mother.
d. harbor severe hatred regarding his father.
B. Although all the choices are plausible, choice �b� best expresses the tendency to justify behavior to create a state of �consonance� (a fancy word for harmony) between attitudes and behavior. Hence, if a test report states that the watch is a good buy, the belief and the behavior are consistent. In case you haven�t picked it up yet, I�m betting you�ll see at least one question regarding cognitive dissonance on your exam.
145. A woman who is being robbed.
a. would probably get the most assistance in a crowd with a large number of bystanders.
b. would find that the number of people who would respond to her distress actually decreases as the number of bystanders increases.
c. would rarely have a bystander from a different race try to help her.
d. none of the above.
B. Here is a principle which is often quoted: The number of people who will help a victim in distress decreases, and the time it will take to intervene increases, as the number of bystanders increases. Helping an individual in distress is generally called �altruism� in the literature. This same principle could conceivably apply in a psychological sense when you are working with groups and a client is the victim of scapegoating.
146. A counselor reading this book says, �I couldn�t care less about passing the NCE or licensing exam.� This.
a. is displacement.
b. is an attempt to reduce dissonance via consistent cognitions.
c. is an attempt to reduce dissonance by denial, thus minimizing tension.
d. is projection.
C. Choices �a� and �d� are ego defense mechanisms. This topic is covered in the Helping Relationships section of this book. Choice �b� is incorrect since reading this book to pass the exam and not caring about passing are �inconsistent.�
147. The statement, �Even though my car is old and doesn�t run well, it sure keeps my insurance payments low,�
a. is displacement.
b. is an attempt to reduce dissonance via consistent cognitions.
c. is projection.
d. would never reduce dissonance in an individual.
B. This also could be described as the �sweet lemon� variety of rationalization (see the Helping Relationships section of this book).
148. In the case of the individual who purchased the $20,000 watch, cognitive dissonance theory postulates that.
a. he or she might ignore positive information regarding other models and secure a lot of information regarding the $20,000 platinum model.
b. he or she might sell the $20,000 watch immediately following the purchase.
c. he or she might focus heavily on negative information regarding rival models.
d. a and c.
D. This is a tough question since the alternatives are a bit complex. Remember: cognitive dissonance theory predicts that the person will look for things which are consistent with his or her behavior. Is choice �a� consistent? Of course; yet choice �c� is also possible since the individual could ignore positive attributes of the competition (i.e., choice �a�) or maximize their negative features (i.e., choice �c�). Counselors should keep in mind that consistency is considered a desirable personality trait in most cultures.
149. In the United States, middle- and upper-class citizens seem to want a counselor who.
a. will give them �a good talking to.�
b. gives a specific and steady stream of advice.
c. helps them work it out on their own.
d. is highly authoritarian and autocratic.
C. The theory here is that middle- and upper-class citizens are taught that independence is a virtue. The person would not want to be dependent on a therapist, parents, or others, as is implied in choices �a,� �b,� and �d.�
150. In a traditional culture which places a high premium on authority figures.
a. passivity on the part of the counselor would be viewed in a negative manner.
b. a client would be disappointed if he or she did not receive advice.
c. assigning homework and teaching on the part of the counselor would be appropriate.
d. all of the above.
D. An active-directive model works best with persons who respond well to an authority figure.
151. Cognitive dissonance research deals mainly with.
b. cognition and attitude formation.
c. cognitions and emotion.
d. none of the above.
B. The notion is that the discrepancies or inconsistencies that create tension are caused by cognitions and attitudes.
152. Parents who do not tolerate or use aggression when raising children produce.
a. less aggressive children.
b. more aggressive children.
c. passive-aggressive children.
d. passive-dependent children.
A. Children who are abused by their parents are more likely to be abusers when they have children of their own. Remember that counselors are legally required to report child abuse, neglect, sexual abuse, or exploitation.
153. Overall, Rogerian person-centered counseling.
a. is rarely utilized in cross-cultural counseling.
b. is too nondirective for intercultural counseling.
c. a and b.
d. has been used more than other models to help promote understanding between cultures and races.
D. In the 1970s, Rogers conducted workshops to enhance cross-cultural communication. People from all over the world participated. Person-centered techniques are popular in Japan. Person-centered therapy is nonjudgmental and thus is considered a superb modality for multicultural/multiracial usage. The exception (mentioned earlier) could occur when counseling an ethnic or racial group that demands structure or authority from a helper. Lower-class clients generally view the helper as an advice giver. Estimates indicate that approximately 50% of all ethnic minority clients quit counseling after the first session feeling they will not secure what they want from the helper.
154. In intercultural/multicultural counseling the term therapeutic surrender means.
a. nothing�it is not a valid term.
b. most therapists will give up in 16 sessions or less if progress is not evident.
c. the client psychologically surrenders himself or herself to a counselor from a different culture and becomes open with feelings and thoughts.
d. the therapist assumes a passive therapeutic stance.
C. Therapeutic surrender occurs when a client is able to trust the counselor and self-discloses. Contrary to choice �a,� the term is used frequently in intercultural counseling.
155. The literature suggests these factors as helpful in promoting therapeutic surrender:
a. an analysis of cognitive dissonance.
b. rapport, trust, listening, conquering client resistance, and self-disclosure.
c. paradoxing the client.
d. analyzing flight-to-health variables.
B. Choice �d� is an analytic concept which asserts that the client has improved too rapidly and the real difficulty (i.e., unconscious conflicts) has not been resolved. A similar term, flight from reality, is used when the client resorts to psychosis (i.e., losing touch with reality) to avoid dealing with current life difficulties.
156. In terms of trust and therapeutic surrender,
a. it is easier to trust people from one�s own culture.
b. lower-class people often don�t trust others from a higher social class.
c. lower-class clients may feel that they will end up as losers dealing with a counselor from a higher social class.
d. all of the above.
D. Language barriers, on the part of the client or the counselor, intensify the difficulty of therapeutic surrender. One good technique is to steer clear of slang or fancy therapeutic jargon and try to speak in a clear, concise, and direct manner.
157. A(n) _______ client would most likely have the most difficulty with self-disclosure when speaking to a Caucasian counselor.
a. middle-class Caucasian female
b. upper-class African-American female
c. lower-class African-American male
d. upper-class Caucasian male
C. Males in general have difficulty expressing feelings. African-American males are especially hesitant about revealing themselves to Caucasians.
158. According to assimilation-contrast theory, a client will perceive a counselor�s statement that is somewhat like his or her own beliefs as even more similar (i.e., an assimilation error). He or she would perceive any dissimilar attitudes as.
a. even more dissimilar (i.e., a contrast error).
c. similar to his or her own.
A. In any case, if a counselor is highly regarded and trustworthy, his or her statements will be better accepted than if the helper has poor credibility.
159. When counseling a client from a different culture, a common error is made when negative transference.
a. is interpreted as positive transference.
b. is interpreted as therapeutic resistance.
c. is interpreted as White privilege.
d. none of the above.
B. Okay, there are some terms you just have to know for this section of the exam and one of those terms (note choice �c�) is White privilege. The term has been used to focus on the special advantages, privileges, and opportunities that nonwhites don�t have. Since transference relates to incidents which occurred prior to treatment, such issues must be distinguished from the current helping relationship. This is sometimes difficult to accomplish.
160. Counselors who have good listening skills.
a. facilitate therapeutic surrender.
b. hinder therapeutic surrender.
c. often have a monolithic perspective.
d. are too nondirective to promote therapeutic surrender.
A. Let�s place choice �c� under our trusty microscopes for just a moment. A monolithic perspective indicates that the counselor perceives all the people in a given group (say African Americans or Hispanic/Latino/a Americans) as being identical�hey, not a good thing folks! Counselors are urged to adopt an individualistic, rather than a monolithic perspective. Good listening facilitates any type of helping.
161. Counselors can more easily advise.
a. clients from their own culture.
b. clients from a different culture.
c. clients of a different race.
d. clients utilizing ethnocentric statements.
A. To persuade someone is easiest when he or she has similar views, ideas, and background to one�s own. It is entirely possible that a client of a different culture has been taught not to trust persons with the counselor�s cultural background.
162. To empathize is easiest with.
a. a client who is similar to you.
b. a client who is dissimilar to you.
c. lower-class Hispanic clients.
d. upper-class Asian-American male clients.
A. Clients who have counselors of the same ethnicity tend to stay in counseling longer. See the last answer if this one seemed a tad difficult�ditto!
163. In cross-cultural counseling, structuring is very important. This concept asserts that counseling is most effective.
a. when structured exercises are utilized.
b. when a counselor takes an active�directive stance.
c. when nondirective procedures are emphasized.
d. when the nature and structure of the counseling situation is described during the initial session.
D. Structure has a number of meanings in the field of professional counseling (see the Groups section of this book for additional meanings). In the context of multicultural counseling, structure indicates that the counselor will explain the role of the helper as well as the role of the helpee. This helps ward off embarrassment and further enhances the effectiveness of the counseling process. The greater the social/cultural gap, the more important the need for structuring. Despite the merits of the Rogerian model, some would claim that it falls short of the ideal paradigm when a high degree of structure is the treatment of choice. As mentioned earlier, clients from other cultures can harbor gross misconceptions of what represents the helping process.
164. A client from another culture will.
a. talk to the counselor the same as he or she would to a peer.
b. speak to the counselor differently from the way he or she would when speaking to someone of his or her own background.
c. generally use slang on purpose to confuse the counselor.
d. generally play dumb to receive the counselor�s sympathy.
B. Often individuals are courteous and polite with those who are of the same cultural origin, but are suspicious and don�t trust outsiders.
165. An African-American client tells a Caucasian counselor that things are �bad� though she literally means something is good. The counselor�s misunderstanding could best be described as a.
a. client of color error.
b. cognitive dissonance error.
c. connotative error.
d. confounding variable.
C. According to some experts in this field, the three major barriers to intercultural counseling are culture-bound values (mentioned earlier), class-bound values, and language differences. Connotation applies to the emotional content of a word, which is different from the true or dictionary definition. The tendency for words to convey different connotations is often referred to as a �semantic differential.� Choice �d,� a confounding variable, is an extraneous variable which is not purposely introduced by an experimenter conducting research. This difficulty is inherent in correlational data. One more quick quip here: The phrase �people of color� refers to Asian Americans or Asian Pacific Americans, Hispanic or Latino/a Americans, African Americans, and Native Americans. During the 21st century these groups will eventually outnumber Whites of European descent in the United States.
166. A monolingual U.S. counselor.
a. speaks only English.
b. speaks English and Spanish.
c. works as a counseling interpreter.
d. fits the definition of bilingual.
A. Mono literally means �one� or �single.� Persons who are bilingual (i.e., speak two languages) can be employed as counselors or interpreters to facilitate efficacious intervention. In order to reduce the difficulty introduced by �semantic differential� and �connotative errors��mentioned in the answer to the previous question�the bilingual individual would ideally be bicultural (i.e., have familiarity with the culture of the counselor and the client).
167. _______ was a prime factor in the history of multicultural counseling.
a. Frankl�s experience in a concentration camp.
b. Perl�s use of the German concept of Gestalt.
c. Freud�s visits to the United States.
d. The 1954 Supreme Court decision, Brown vs. the Board of Education, which outlawed public school segregation.
D. Choice �a� mentions Viktor Frankl, the Father of Logotherapy, an existential form of treatment which stresses �healing through meaning.� Choice �b� mentions Fritz Perls, the Father of Gestalt Therapy, which attempts to ameliorate a mind/body split supposedly responsible for emotional distress. Gestalt is a German word which roughly means the �whole� form, figure, or configuration. The final alternative is correct. Desegregation created culturally different populations for school counselors.
168. Multicultural counseling promotes.
c. psychodynamic models.
d. neurolinguistic programming.
A. Most experts would insist that choice �a� is best inasmuch as intercultural counselors need to be flexible. An �eclectic� position (i.e., selecting treatment intervention strategies from diverse counseling models) would generally come closest to meeting this requirement.
169. Multicultural counselors often adhere to the emic viewpoint.
The word emic.
a. is associated with the Supreme Court decision of 1954 outlawing segregation.
b. suggests that all clients are alike regardless of culture.
c. is associated with Rational Behavior Therapy (RBT).
d. is a �culture specific� perspective, from the word phonemic meaning sounds in a particular language.
D. J. G. Draguns suggested the emic�etic distinction in cross-cultural counseling. Emic can be defined as an insider�s perception of the culture. A researcher or counselor using an emic frame of reference wants to know what somebody participating in the culture thinks. The emic viewpoint emphasizes that each client is an individual with individual differences, while the etic view adheres to the theory that humans are humans�regardless of background and culture�thus, the same theories and techniques can be applied to any client the counselor helps. Hence, a counselor who values the �emic� view will try to help clients by understanding the client�s specific culture, while the �etic� counselor emphasizes the sameness among clients�a universalism perspective�that literally transcends cultural boundaries. Universal helping principles transcend culture. The �etic� counselor would not alter his or her technique when working with a client from a different culture or a minority group. Distinctions such as etic/emic are often easiest to remember if you rely on a memory device. Can you come up with one?
170. A practicum supervisor who says to his or her supervisee, �You can deal with your Asian-American clients the same as you deal with anybody else,� is espousing the.
a. emic viewpoint.
b. alloplastic viewpoint.
c. etic viewpoint, derived from the term phonetic referring to sounds that remain the same in any language.
d. autoplastic viewpoint.
C. Here�s help for those of you who came up empty-handed in terms of snaring a suitable memory device (and hence may have struggled with the question). I like to remember that �etic,� which sports a �t,� and sounds remarkably similar to �etiquette,� is similar in the sense that when practicing etiquette we practice good manners with all individuals whether they are Black, White, Asian, and so on. Likewise, counselors who espouse the etic viewpoint will use the same strategies and techniques on virtually any client. In this case, for example, the Asian client will be treated no differently from an American, a Native American, a French Canadian, or for that matter anybody else. Actually the etic distinction also reminds me of the educational concept of �mainstreaming,� which asserts that all children�even those with disabilities and handicaps�can benefit from placement in a regular classroom. But just when you thought the coast was clear you were confronted with another distinction or dilemma (see choices �b� and �d�) for the multicultural helper.
171. The statement, �All humans, from all cultures, all races, and all nations, are more alike than different,� is based on the.
a. emic viewpoint.
b. alloplastic viewpoint.
c. etic viewpoint.
d. autoplastic viewpoint.
C. If you chose an alternative other than �c,� then you need to reread answers to questions 169 and 170.
172. A counselor is confronted with his or her first Native-American client. Native Americans (also called American Indians or Indian Americans on exams) are descendents of the original inhabitants of North America. After the initial session, the counselor secures several books which delineate the cultural aspects of Native-American life. She discovers that there are over 560 federally recognized tribes and that there are nearly 3 million Native Americans in the United States. This counselor most likely believes in the.
a. emic viewpoint.
b. alloplastic viewpoint.
c. etic viewpoint.
d. autoplastic viewpoint.
A. The �emic� view holds that an approach which is culturally specific is generally the most effective. Exam hint: Native Americans are sometimes classified as American Indians or Alaskan Natives.
173. An Asian counselor says to an African-American client, �If you�re unhappy with the system, get out there and rebel. You can change the system.� This is the _______ viewpoint for coping with the environment.
a. emic viewpoint
b. alloplastic viewpoint
c. etic viewpoint
d. autoplastic viewpoint
B. This question is testing your knowledge of the autoplastic/alloplastic dilemma in intercultural helping. The �autoplastic� view asserts that change comes from within, while the �alloplastic� conceptualization is that the client can cope best by changing or altering external factors in the environment (as alluded to in this question). Memory devices, anyone?
174. A young Hispanic male is obviously the victim of discrimination. His counselor remarks, �I hear what you are saying and I will help you change your thinking so this will not have such a profound impact on you.� In this case the counselor had suggested.
a. an alloplastic method of coping.
b. an autoplastic method of coping.
c. the emic�etic distinction.
d. the emic viewpoint.
B. Try this memory device on for size. The word auto generally refers to changing the �self� rather than altering the environment. Consider the technique of �autosuggestion� or �autohypnosis,� or how about the act of writing an �autobiography?� In each of the aforementioned cases, the person works to create the project, solve the difficulty, or, simply put, change the self. In the �autoplastic� approach the counselor helps the client change him- or herself (as in this question). And if you think of a more elegant memory device�then I say �go for it!� It will come in mighty handy on the test date!
175. African-American ghetto clients are generally.
a. very open and honest with their feelings.
b. the most amenable group in regard to psychotherapeutic intervention.
c. a and b.
d. not very open with their feelings.
D. They are often taught not to trust the establishment. A lack of trust usually results in a lack of openness and self-disclosure.
176. Positive transference is to love as negative transference is to hostility, and as ambivalent transference is to.
C. Ambivalent transference, a term popular in multicultural counseling settings, occurs when the client rapidly shifts his or her emotional attitude toward the counselor based on learning and experiences related to authority figures from the past. The �Helping Relationship� section of this book goes into more depth regarding the notion of transference.
177. The word personalism in the context of multicultural counseling means.
a. all people must adjust to environmental and geological demands.
b. the counselor must adjust to the client�s cultural mores.
c. a counselor who personalizes the treatment is most effective.
d. biologically speaking, there is no reason why humans must adjust to environmental demands.
A. Culture must mold itself such that individuals can best thrive and survive in a given environment. Personalism implies that the counselor will make the best progress if he or she sees the client primarily as a person who has learned a set of survival skills rather than as a diseased patient. Fierce environmental conditions, such as living in a desert or a poverty-stricken neighborhood, cause individuals to cooperate with each other more and stick together as a group. This, nevertheless, can cause problems for the counselor who has never lived in a ghetto or a desert and hence is seen as an outsider. The �person,� who has lived in the ghetto or the desert, will want to check out the counselor�s authenticity as a �person,� and a counselor who keeps his or her �professional distance� runs the risk of being seen as superficial. A comment such as, �You don�t care about me, you just care about your paycheck (or �the agency,� or �the court,� or �your stupid report,� etc.) indicates that the multicultural counselor is being perceived as remote and not very personal. This could create problems for the counselor since (a) in the United States �professionalism� is stressed more than �personalism� in the sense that a good counselor is not �supposed� to get very close to clients and if (b) the counselor has not necessarily grown up in a culture that stresses such a high level of interpersonal cooperation.
178. A client whose counselor pushes the alloplastic viewpoint may believe his counselor is simply.
a. too Rogerian.
b. attacking the system.
c. too Freudian.
d. too cognitive.
B. The salient point here is that generally a synthesis, rather than a pure alloplastic or autoplastic position, will be the most effective.
179. Good multicultural counselors are.
c. utilize Eric Berne�s transactional analysis (TA), Fritz Perl�s Gestalt therapy and/or William Glasser�s reality therapy in nearly every case.
d. generally behavioristic.
A. Although choices �c� and �d� are not the best choices, a case could certainly be made for using these modalities in an intercultural helping relationship. Transactional analysis (TA), reality therapy, and behavioral interventions all stress �contracting.� The process of contracting has its merits in cross-cultural situations because it keeps the counselor from shoving a dose of his or her own cultural values down the clients throat (i.e., the client has input before signing or agreeing with the contract). Furthermore, TA has been praised for illuminating cultural and ethnic injunctions. On the other hand, TA lingo is often complex for a client with a different background. Quite unlike behaviorism, Gestalt is a superb modality for cultures that need to liberate their feelings. In addition, it is helpful when working with a population which emphasizes nonverbal communication. The danger in utilizing Gestalt comes from pushing techniques (i.e., trying to insist upon them before clients are ready for them) that emphasize the expression of feelings on a cultural or ethnic group which views the expression of feelings as a sign of weakness. Practitioners are warned that behaviorism (choice �d�) is not a panacea in multicultural work inasmuch as some cultures do not value assertiveness. Every brand of therapy has its merits and its disadvantages: It is therefore best if the multicultural counselor remains flexible.
180. A client remarks, �Hey, I�m Black and it�s nearly impossible to hide it.� This is illustrative of the fact that.
a. race is not the same as ethnicity.
b. African Americans struggle when expressing feelings.
c. a connotative impediment exists.
d. severe ambivalent transference exists.
A. This question attempts to see whether you can discern race from ethnicity. The assumption here is that you can generally see racial differences since they are the result of genetics. If a client really made this type of statement, the counselor might wish to deal directly with the racial issue. The counselor could inquire, �In what way do you feel that the fact that I�m White and you�re Black will affect the counseling process?� Experts often assert that such a question should be asked no later than the second session. Choice �d� would not be totally outlandish, although the question does not provide enough information to make it the best choice.
181. Experts in the field of multicultural counseling feel that the counselor�s training.
a. must come from an APA-approved graduate program.
b. must come from a CACREP-approved graduate program.
c. should be broad and interdisciplinary.
d. need not include REBT.
C. Choice �d,� REBT or rational-emotive behavior therapy, certainly can be helpful when counseling clients from another culture because it does not stress mental illness. The perception of the REBT practitioner as a �teacher� makes the process of helping more palatable to some populations. Choice �c� is the best answer. An adept multicultural helper ideally would study topics which go beyond traditional counseling theory. Some educators have even suggested that an exchange program in which counselors study in foreign universities could be beneficial.
182. Doing cross-cultural counseling.
a. makes counselors increasingly aware of cultural differences.
b. allows counselors to see that culture is merely a matter of semantics.
c. is different since clients are more likely to return for help after the first session.
d. allows counselors to ignore the concept of pluralism.
A. Choice �c� is incorrect. Preliminary studies, as I hinted at earlier, indicate that clients from other cultures do not use counseling as often as they could. Moreover, the dropout rate is premature, perhaps 20% higher after the initial session than relationships which are not intercultural. The concept of �pluralism� literally means that an individual exists in more than one category. A condition known as �separatism� exists when a group of people totally withdraw from the political majority. Pluralism presents a less extreme option. Cultural pluralism occurs when persons of a cultural heritage retain their traditions and differences, yet cooperate in regard to social, political, and economic matters. In counseling per se, the term suggests that certain categories of individuals (e.g., women, older adults, minorities, alternative cultures, or the disabled) often need special services. An Asian American, for example, could feel torn between adhering to Asian culture while trying to become more Americanized. The counselor must show respect for these individuals in order to do effective treatment; hence, the notion of pluralism cannot be ignored.
183. F. H. Allport created the concept of social facilitation. According to this theory, an individual who is given the task of memorizing a list of numbers will.
a. perform better if he or she is alone.
b. perform better if he or she is part of a group.
c. perform better if he or she has undergone psychotherapy.
d. perform better if he or she is an auditory learner.
B. This is indeed an interesting phenomenon. The presence of other persons (e.g., coworkers, other athletes, fellow students,) improves an individual�s performance even when there is no verbal interaction!
184. In social psychology, the sleeper effect asserts that.
a. sleep learning facilitates social skills.
b. after a period of time, one forgets the communicator but remembers the message.
c. after a period of time, one remembers the communicator but forgets the message.
d. REM sleep facilitates insight.
B. Perhaps more importantly, the so-called sleeper effect asserts that when you are attempting to change someone�s opinion the change may not occur immediately after the verbal exchange. In other words, when a counselor provides guidance to a client a delay may occur before the client accepts the message. The communication may have more impact after some time has passed.
185. In 1908, books by _______ helped to introduce social psychology in America.
a. Moreno and Yalom
b. Holland and Roe
c. Barber and Salter
d. McDougall and Ross
D. William McDougall wrote Introduction to Social Psychology, which expounded on his �hormic psychology� position that individual as well as group behavior is the result of inherited tendencies to seek goals. Edward Alsworth Ross authored Social Psychology. Other famous names noted in the alternatives include Jacob Moreno, who pioneered psychodrama and coined the term group therapy; Irvin Yalom, an existentialist, well known for his strides in group work; John Holland, who stressed that a person�s occupational environment should be congruent with his or her personality type; Anne Roe, who postulated that jobs can compensate for unmet childhood needs; T. X. Barber, who espoused a cognitive theory of hypnotism; and Andrew Salter, a pioneer in the behavior therapy creating a paradigm dubbed conditioned reflex therapy, and a behavioristic theory of hypnosis, and autohypnosis.
186. _______ is associated with obedience and authority.
a. Stanley Milgram, a noted psychologist,
b. Arthur Janov, who created Primal Scream therapy,
c. A. T. Beck, a cognitive therapy pioneer,
d. Robert Harper, a pioneer in the REBT bibliotherapy movement,
A. In one of the most shocking and frightening investigations of all time, Milgram discovered that people who were told to give others powerful electric shocks did so on command. Subjects were told that they were to punish a learner strapped to an electric chair when he gave an incorrect answer. Out of 40 experimental subjects, only 14 refused to go to the highest level of shock (i.e., in excess of 435 volts)! And get this�in some of the experiments the persons administering the shocks (which, unbeknownst to them, were unreal) were actually given a 45-volt shock themselves so they could feel the intensity of this punishment. So much for accurate empathy! Even when the subjects heard the person receiving the shocks screaming they often continued to raise the level of voltage when told to do so. This principle is often used to explain �obedience to authority� in social situations such as the Salem witch hunts or Nazi war crimes. Fortunately, follow-up research indicated that most of the individuals who participated in the Milgram experiment did not feel they were harmed by the experience.
187. Milgram discovered that normal people would administer seemingly fatal electric shocks to others when instructions to do so were given by a person perceived as.
a. a peer.
b. an equal.
c. an individual from another culture.
d. an authority figure.
D. Prior to the experiment, psychiatrists predicted that only 1% would administer the highest level of shock. In reality, 62% dished out �fatal shock punishment� in response to an incorrect answer. If the experimental authority figure was in the room, the tendency to obey was higher than if he or she was not physically present. In a related study by Bickman, individuals told to give a dime or a paper bag to a stranger did so twice as often when the person giving the orders was dressed as a guard rather than a peer.
188. The tendency to affiliate with others.
a. is highest in the middle child.
b. is highest in dysthymics.
c. is highest in firstborns and only children,
d. is based on hormonal output.
C. Choice �b� refers to a diagnostic label from the DSM. Dysthymia�which might also be called �neurotic depression� or �depressive neurosis� on your exam�is a longstanding depressed mood; to qualify as dysthymic it should aQhave existed for at least a year in children and adolescents or two years in adults. The depression from dysthymia is not as intense as that which occurs in clinical depression. In the behavioral sciences the word affiliation refers to the need one has to associate with others. Choice �c� correctly reflects the landmark research of Stanley Schachter, which concluded that the need to affiliate decreases for later-born children.
189. A client tells his counselor that he has a choice of entering one of two prestigious PhD counseling programs. Kurt Lewin would call this an.
a. approach�avoidance conflict.
b. approach�approach conflict.
c. avoidance�avoidance conflict.
d. avoidance vector.
B. Choices �a,� �b,� and �c� indicate the three basic categories of conflict which result in frustration. In the approach-approach format (suggested in this question) the individual is presented with two equally attractive options simultaneously. Of the three types, counselors believe that approach-approach is the easiest to help clients cope with since in most cases (unlike the situation presented in this question) the client can attempt both options: first one, then the other. Moreover, approach�approach conflicts typically instill less anxiety than the other two types.
190. When a person has two negative alternatives, it is called an.
a. approach�approach conflict.
b. approach vector.
c. avoidance�avoidance conflict.
d. avoidance cohesiveness.
C. When a client says, �I don�t know whether to pay the hefty fine or go to jail,� he is struggling with an avoidance�avoidance conflict in which both choices are undesirable, to say the least. Clients in this position often daydream, flee from the situation, or regress instead of confronting the choices. The client also may waver or vacillate when he or she comes close to making a choice.
191. A male client tells his counselor that he is attracted to a gorgeous woman who is violent and chemically dependent. This creates an.
a. approach�avoidance conflict.
b. avoidance�avoidance conflict.
c. avoidance of life space.
d. approach affiliation.
A. The approach�avoidance conflict presents a positive factor (a terrific-looking woman) with a negative factor (she is a substance abuser prone to violent behavior) at the same time. Most counselors would agree this is the toughest type of conflict for the client to tackle as it generates the highest level of frustration.
192. According to Charles Osgood and Percey Tannenbaum�s congruity theory, a client will accept suggestions more readily if.
a. the client likes the counselor.
b. the client dislikes the counselor.
c. the client distrusts the counselor.
d. the counselor is in a higher economic bracket.
A. Here again, the tendency is based on �balance theory.� If you like your counselor, your tendency to accept a suggestion would be balanced (i.e., consistent with your opinion). If you did not like or trust the counselor, then accepting his or her suggestions would produce an imbalance (i.e., an inconsistent attitude).
193. An adept multicultural counselor.
a. generally believes in the melting pot concept.
b. has a strong ethnocentric worldview.
c. will not ask the client for information related to religion or level of faith development.
d. usually supports the salad bowl model of diversity.
D. Choices �a,� �b,� and �c� are all characteristics of ineffective multicultural helpers leaving choice �d� as the lone hero. The melting pot concept�that different cultures assimilate or melt into the dominant culture�has been deemed a myth. The ethnocentric position holds that a given culture is the best or superior to others. The concept can also mean that the counselor falsely believes that the client views the world in the same manner as the helper. Efficacious helpers do attempt to elicit information regarding the client�s religious and spiritual life. In the salad bowl analogy�preferred over the antiquated melting pot notion�people are mixed together, but like lettuce and tomatoes in a salad, they retain their unique cultural identity.
194. A classic experiment in social psychology was conducted by the social psychologist Muzafer Sherif et al. at the boys� summer camp near Robbers Cave, Oklahoma. The important finding in this study was that.
a. most people cooperate in a social setting.
b. competition plays a small role in most of our lives.
c. a and b.
d. a cooperative goal can bring two hostile groups together, thus reducing competition and enhancing cooperation.
D. Sometimes loosely called the �Robbers� Cave experiment,� this study set up two distinct groups of 11-year-old boys who were hostile toward each other. The study concluded that the most effective way to reduce hostility between groups was to give them an alternative goal which required a joint effort and could not be accomplished by a single group.
195. Sex role stereotyping would imply that.
a. a counselor would only consider traditional feminine careers for his female client.
b. a male counselor would rate a female client�s emotional status differently than he would a male client�s.
c. female clients are treated the same as male clients.
d. choices a and b.
D. According to studies, counselors are prejudiced toward women. Prejudice means that we are negative or have a rigid inflexible attitude toward a given group of people and can often act on our unfavorable thoughts. Moreover, the prejudiced individual often �prejudges� others without substantial evidence. Choices �a� and �b� are illustrative of stereotyping in which the counselor has generalized feelings about a given group (in this case women). Unfortunately, research would suggest that the response in choice �a� might well be a typical one. In a 1973 study by Schlossberg and Pietrofesa, counselor trainees were instructed to help a female counselee choose between an engineering and a teaching career. All the counselor trainees tried to steer her clear of engineering, typically a masculine career. Horrors! As for choice �b,� I can only say �ditto.� A 1970 study by Broverman, Broverman, Clarkson, Rosenkrantz, and Vogel found that all the therapists who filled out a questionnaire used a different standard of mental health when rating men from the one they used for women. Women and other minorities are sometimes said to be victims of a �caste system.� The term caste system implies that there are fixed layers of superiority and inferiority which you are born into and thus cannot escape. Hint: My guess is that in the coming years women�s issues, men�s issues, older adults, single-parent families, blended families, bereavement, and gay concerns will be important topics on the Social and Cultural Foundations area on your exam. Please make it a priority to keep up with the literature in these key areas. This guide is not intended to do justice to these topics.
196. The statement, �Whites are better than Blacks,� illustrates.
a. a weakening of the caste system in the U.S.
B. Choice �a� is definitely wrong since the view that Whites are better than Blacks is indicative of a caste system mentality (see the answer to the previous question). Choice �d,� codependency, is a term which grew mainly out of the chemical dependency movement. The word has various definitions, although it mainly refers to an individual who is emotionally involved with a chemically dependent person (perhaps even members of his or her family) and/or is addicted to a relationship with another person or drugs. �Racism,� the correct answer, occurs when an assumption is made that some races are better than others. Hence, the race which feels superior can deny the other race rights and respect.
Sexism is an analogous term. In sexism, one sex assumes that the other is inherently inferior.
197. In terms of research related to affiliation.
a. misery loves miserable company.
b. firstborns are more likely to affiliate than other children born later.
c. people affiliate in an attempt to lower fear.
d. all of the above.
D. Often the statement is made that misery loves more than company; it loves miserable company. Stanley Schachter set up an experiment in which subjects were informed that they were going to receive a very painful electrical shock (high anxiety), or a very weak one which would merely tingle. The subjects were told that they could wait alone for 10 minutes before receiving the shock or wait with others participating in the study. Of those subjects who were told they would receive a mere �tingle� only one third chose to wait with others, while over 62% of the high-anxiety group decided to do so. Follow-up research seems to indicate that a person with high anxiety will not choose to be with others unless the other individuals are in a similar situation. Samoff and Zimbardo discovered in a 1961 study that males placed in extremely embarrassing situations in which they would need to act like infants were much less willing to affiliate with others going through the same thing. One interpretation would be that individuals are more comfortable sharing real fear than anxiety which could result in embarrassment or shame. This research is somewhat similar to Leon Festinger�s �Theory of Social Comparison,� which postulates that people have a need to compare themselves with others to assess their own abilities and options. The theory further asserts that we will compare ourselves to others who are basically similar to us. Important reminder: Researchers in the field of counseling are somewhat critical of most psychosocial experiments since the experimental situations are often artificial and the studies lack external validity, which is the ability to help understand behavior outside the experimental setting.
198. Six persons attend a counseling group. After the group, five members praise the merits of a group activity assigned by the group leader. The sixth person, who has heard the opinion of the other five people, felt the activity was useless and boring. According to studies on social behavior, about one third of the time the sixth individual would most likely tell the other five that.
a. he totally disagreed with their assessment.
b. he too felt the group activity was very helpful.
c. he really wasn�t certain how he felt about the activity.
d. a and c.
B. Experiments by Solomon Asch and Muzafer Sherif would predict that the person would most likely �sell out� and agree with the other five. In one study Asch discovered that approximately 35% of the persons tested in a perceptual activity gave an answer which was clearly incorrect in order to conform! Social researchers consistently have discovered that people will conform to an obviously incorrect unanimous decision one third of the time. Moreover, studies indicate that as few as three other people can abet conformity in a social setting. Who conforms the most? The answer includes individuals who are authoritarian and thus are heavily influenced by authority figures, people who are external approval seekers, and persons who feel that outside external factors control them.
199. The client who would most likely engage in introspection would be a.
a. 52-year-old single African-American male school administrator.
b. 49-year-old Caucasian homeless male.
c. 40-year-old divorced Caucasian female who is out of work and has three children.
d. 19- year-old Hispanic mother on welfare with two children.
- A. The key to this question is to focus on social class rather than acculturation (i.e., integrating one�s own cultural beliefs and behaviors with the dominant culture), minority status, or sex.
- Clients in higher social classes have more time to �look within themselves� (introspect) since they need not dwell as much on external survival needs.
200. A Japanese client who was reluctant to look you in the eye during her counseling session would most likely be displaying.
a. severe negative transference.
b. positive transference.
c. normal behavior within the context of her culture.
d. ambivalent transference.
C. Here is where a knowledge of culture would come in handy. Asians are often brought up with the belief that it is a sign of respect to avoid eye contact with an authority figure. In addition, it is considered proper to talk no more than is necessary, which of course is not congruent with the way most Americans think. Moreover, many Asian clients have been taught that it is shameful to brag or to express one�s own desires, ambitions, or strong feelings. This background could well present a roadblock for a counselor operating under a paradigm that stresses abreaction. Some Asians have been brought up to believe that all problems are solved only within the privacy of family meetings. If mental illness does exist, it is considered a genetic flaw and a family secret. Hence, Asians place a very high premium on self-control, which is an issue that can be examined in counseling. Thus, Sue and Sue suggested that Asian Americans respond best to brief therapy that is directive and structured with specific problem-solving goals. Often our somewhat scientific approaches to counseling really reflect what mainstream American society views as real or scientific. Hispanic Americans (meaning of Spanish origin and sometimes referred to as Latinos or Latinas in some of the literature) often value folk healing which is very spiritual, such as going into a trancelike state and talking with God.
201. Sigmund Freud is the father of psychoanalysis, which is both a form of treatment and a very comprehensive personality theory. According to Freud�s theory, inborn drives (mainly sexual) help form the personality. _______ and _______, who originally worked with Freud, created individual psychology and analytic psychology, respectively..
a. Carl Jung; Alfred Adler.
b. Alfred Adler; Carl Jung.
c. Joseph Breuer; A. A. Brill.
d. Alfred Adler; Rollo May.
B. Alfred Adler was the father of individual psychology, and Carl Gustav Jung (correctly pronounced �Yung�) founded analytic psychology. But a word of caution is in order here: read all test questions carefully. Since the question utilizes the word respectively Adler�s name (i.e., individual psychology) must come before Jung�s name (i.e., analytic psychology), hence choice �a� is false. The question itself also emphasizes the key point that psychoanalysis is both a form of therapy as well as a theory of personality. Joseph Breuer was a Viennese neurologist who taught Freud the value of the talking cure, which is also termed catharsis. Brill�s name is usually associated with the impact that Freudian theory has on career choice, and Rollo May was a prime mover in the existential counseling movement.
202. Eric Berne�s transactional analysis (TA) posits three ego states: the Child, the Adult, and the Parent. These roughly correspond to Freud�s structural theory that includes.
a. oral, anal, phallic.
b. unconscious, preconscious, and conscious.
c. a and b.
d. id, ego, and superego.
D. I must emphasize that neither Freud nor Berne characterized these ego states as biological entities. That is to say, a neurologist could not open up an individual�s brain and map out the id or dissect the Parent ego state. Instead, the id, ego, and superego, and the Child, Adult, and Parent are hypothetical constructs used to explain the function of the personality. In Freudian theory, as well as in TA, experts in the field often refer to the aforementioned entities as the �structural theory.� You will recall that the entities in choice �a� (oral, anal, and phallic) are the names of Freud�s first three psychosexual stages. The unconscious, preconscious, and conscious noted in choice �b� relates to Freud�s topographic notion that the mind has depth like an iceberg. The word topography means mapping, in this case that the Freudians, have mapped the mind.
203. In transactional analysis, the _______ is the conscience, or ego state concerned with moral behavior, while in Freudian theory it is the _______.
a. Adult; unconscious.
b. Parent; ego.
c. Parent; superego.
d. Parent; id.
C. Hint: Read test questions of this ilk very carefully. If I had a dollar for every instance that a counselor read conscience as conscious (or vice versa) I�d surely have a larger bank balance! Don�t be a victim�read the question carefully. Eric Berne�s transactional analysis utilizes popular terminology. The Parent ego state has been likened to Freud�s superego. If a child has nurturing caretakers, he or she is said to develop �nurturing parent� qualities such as being nonjudgmental and sympathetic to others. The Parent ego state, however, may be filled with prejudicial and critical messages. Persons who fall into this category will tend to be intimidating, bossy, or know-it-alls. An individual whose caretaker left or died at an early age might be plagued with what TA refers to as the �incomplete parent.� This person could expect others to parent him or her throughout life, or might use the lack of parenting as an excuse for poor behavior. (�Of course, I can�t keep a job; I never had a mother to teach me how.� TA calls this the game of �Wooden Leg.�).
204. Freud felt that successful resolution of the Oedipus complex led to the development of the superego. This is accomplished by.
a. identification with the aggressor, the parent of the same sex.
b. analysis during the childhood years.
c. identification with the parent of the opposite sex, the aggressor.
A. Oedipus means �swollen feet� and comes from the Greek tragedy by Sophocles. In the story Oedipus is unaware that he has killed his father and married his mother. According to Freudian theory, the child�s libido or sex energy is directed toward the parent of the opposite sex. The child, nevertheless, realizes that retaliation would result if he (or she in the case of the Electra complex) would act on these impulses. The child thus strives for identification with the parent of the same sex to achieve vicarious sexual satisfaction. Now I must be honest and remind you that many behavioral scientists find this notion a bit far fetched. The word transference in choice �d� is also a psychoanalytic concept. Transference implies that the client displaces emotion felt toward a parent onto the analyst, counselor, or therapist.
205. Freudians refer to the ego as.
a. the executive administrator of the personality and the reality principle.
b. the guardian angel of the mind.
c. the pleasure principle.
d. the seat of libido.
A. Some scholars refer to the ego as the �executive administrator� since it governs or acts as a police officer to control the impulses from the id (instincts) and the superego (the conscience). The ego is a mediator. The ego is also called the reality principle and houses the individual�s identity. Choices �d� and �c� describes the id. And just in case you chose choice �b,� I can only say, �the guardian angel of the mind��get serious, I just made it up!�
206. Freud�s theory speaks of Eros and Thanatos. A client who threatens a self-destructive act is being ruled primarily by.
b. Eros and the id.
d. both Eros and Thanatos.
C. Is it Greek or is it Freudian theory? You decide. Eros is the Greek god of the love of life. To the Freudians this means self-preservation. Thanatos is the Greek word for death. Later Freudian writings use the word to describe a death wish or what is sometimes called the death instinct. Today we call specialists who study death thanatologists.
207. The id is present at birth and never matures. It operates mainly out of awareness to satisfy instinctual needs according to the.
a. reality principle.
b. notion of transference.
c. Eros principle.
d. pleasure principle.
D. The id is the pleasure principle, the ego is the reality principle, and the superego is the ego ideal.
208. If you think of the mind as a seesaw, then the fulcrum or balancing apparatus would be the.
a. id, which has no concept of rationality or time.
c. superego, which judges behavior as right or wrong.
B. If you missed this one, review the answer to question 205. Counselor educators often utilize the seesaw or fulcrum analogy when explaining the relationship of the id, ego, and superego.
209. A therapist who says to a patient, �Say whatever comes to mind,� is practicing.
a. directive counseling.
d. free association.
D. Free association is literally defined as instructing the client to say whatever comes to mind. True to the tinsel town version, classical analysts have the client (known as an analysand) lie on a couch and free associate. The analyst remains out of sight. This is more or less the antithesis of directive approaches (choice �a�) in which the client is asked to discuss certain material. Paraphrasing (choice �c�) results whenever a counselor restates a client�s message in the counselor�s own words.
210. The superego contains the ego ideal. The superego strives for _______, rather than _______ like the id.
a. perfection; pleasure.
b. pleasure; perfection.
c. morals; ethics.
d. logic; reality.
A. The superego is more concerned with the ideal than what is real. The superego is composed of values, morals, and ideals of parents, caretakers, and society. And oh yes, as for choice �c,� the id ethical�with the possible exception of handling biological needs like hunger and thirst�never! The id is chaotic and has no sense of time.
211. All of these theorists could be associated with the analytic movement except.
D. Read this question very carefully. This is the so-called reverse or negative type question, and questions of this ilk do appear on the NCE/CPCE and other major exams. Questions of this nature ask you to ferret out the �incorrect� rather than the �correct� response. In this case, all of the choices except �d� name therapists in the psychoanalytic movement. Joseph Wolpe developed a paradigm known as �systematic desensitization� which is useful when trying to weaken (i.e., desensitize) a client�s response to an anxiety-producing stimuli. Systematic desensitization is a form of behavior therapy based on Pavlov�s classical conditioning.
212. Most scholars would assert that Freud�s 1900 work entitled The Interpretation of Dreams was his most influential work. Dreams have.
a. manifest and latent content.
b. preconscious and unconscious factors.
c. id and ego.
d. superego and id.
A. For Freud, the dream was the royal road to knowledge of the unconscious activities of the mind. According to Freud, the dream is composed of a surface meaning, which is the manifest content, and then a hidden meaning or so-called latent content. In therapy, dream work consists of deciphering the hidden meaning of the dream (e.g., symbolism) so the individual can be aware of unconscious motives, impulses, desires, and conflicts.
213. When a client projects feelings toward the therapist that he or she originally had toward a significant other, it is called.
a. free association.
C. Some counselors feel that transference is actually a form of projection, displacement, and repetition in which the client treats the counselor in the same manner as he or she would an authority figure from the past (e.g., a mother, a father, a caretaker, or significant other). Just for review purposes, choice �a,� free association, is an analytic technique in which the client is instructed to say whatever comes to mind. Choice �b,� insight, refers to the process of making a client aware of something which was previously unknown. This increases self-knowledge. Insight is often described as a novel sudden understanding of a problem. Choice �d� is resistance. Psychoanalysts believe that a client who is resistant will be reluctant to bring unconscious ideas into the conscious mind. Nonanalytic counselors generally utilize the term in a looser context and use the word to describe clients who are fighting the helping process in any manner.
214. Which case is not associated with the psychodynamic movement.
a. Little Hans.
b. Little Albert.
c. Anna O.
B. Little Albert was a famous case associated with the work of John Broadus Watson, who pioneered American behaviorism. In 1920, John Watson and his graduate student, who later became his wife, Rosalie Rayner conditioned an 11-month-old boy named Albert to be afraid of furry objects. First Albert was exposed to a white rat. Initially the child was not afraid of the rat: however, Watson and Rayner would strike a steel bar, which created a loud noise whenever the child would get near the animal. This created a conditioned (i.e., learned) fear in the child. This experiment has been used to demonstrate the behavioristic concept that fears are learned rather than the analytic concept that they are somehow the result of an unconscious process. Incidentally, rumor has it that Albert (who was used to prove that Pavlovian conditioning could instill a fear in humans) was never cured of his experimentally induced affliction. Horrors! Choices �a,� �c,� and �d� refer to landmark psychoanalytic cases, which are often cited in the literature. The 1880s case of Anna O. (actually a client named Berta Pappenheim) was considered the first psychoanalytic patient. Anna O. was a patient of Freud�s colleague Joseph Breuer. She suffered from symptoms without an organic basis, which was termed hysteria. In hypnosis she would remember painful events, which she was unable to recall while awake. Talking about these traumatic events brought about relief and this became the talking cure or catharsis. Although Freud became disenchanted with hypnosis, his association with Breuer led him to his basic premise of psychoanalysis; namely, that techniques which could produce cathartic material, were highly therapeutic. The case of Little Hans is often used to contrast behavior therapy (Little Albert) with psychoanalysis. It reflects the data in Freud�s 1909 paper, �An Analysis of a Phobia in a Five-Year-Old Boy,� in which this child�s fear of going into the streets and perhaps even having a horse bite him were explained using psychoanalytic constructs such as the Oedipus complex and castration anxiety. Thus, Little Hans reflects psychoanalytic explanations of behavior, while Little Albert is indicative of the behaviorist paradigm. Daniel Paul Schreber has been called the �most frequently quoted case in modern psychiatry.� In 1903 Schreber�after spending nine years in a mental hospital�wrote Memoirs of a Mental Patient. His family was rather wealthy and bought almost every copy in circulation. Nevertheless, Freud got his hands on one and in 1911 published Psychoanalytical Notes upon an Autobiographical Account of a Case of Paranoia. Schreber�s major delusion was that he would be transformed into a woman, become God�s mate, and produce a healthier race. Freud felt that Schreber might have been struggling with unconscious issues of homosexuality.
215. In contrast with classical psychoanalysis, psychodynamic counseling or therapy.
a. utilizes fewer sessions per week.
b. does not utilize the couch.
c. is performed face to face.
d. all of the above.
D. Classical psychoanalysis is quite lengthy�three to five sessions per week for several years is not unusual�not to mention expensive. A complete analysis could cost well over $100,000 in some parts of the nation and virtually no forms of insurance or managed care will pay for this type of treatment. Psychodynamic therapy and counseling make use of analytic principles (e.g., the unconscious mind) but rely on fewer sessions per week to make it a bit more practical. Psychodynamic therapists generally dispense with the couch and sit face to face as in other forms of counseling and therapy. Freud once commented in regard to the merits of the couch that he could not stand to be stared at for many hours during the day. Moreover, he felt the couch could enhance the free association process.
216. Talking about difficulties in order to purge emotions and feelings is a curative process known as.
a. catharsis and/or abreaction.
c. accurate empathy.
d. reflection of emotional content.
A. Hard-core analysts often prefer the word abreaction to the nontechnical term catharsis. Other writers use the word catharsis to connote mild purging of emotion, and abreaction when the repressed emotional outburst is very powerful and violent. Freud and Breuer initially used the term to describe highly charged repressed emotions, which were released during the hypnotic process. When all is said and done, most exams will do as I have done here and use the terms in a synonymous fashion. Choice �c,� accurate empathy means that the counselor can truly understand what the client is feeling or experiencing. Reflection of emotional content (Choice �d�) is accomplished when the counselor restates the client�s verbalization in such a manner that the client becomes more aware of his or her emotions. Choices �c� and �d� are emphasized very heavily in the nondirective (later called Client-Centered and then Person-Centered) approach to counseling. Rogerians do not emphasize diagnosis or giving advice.
217. Id, ego, superego is to structural theory as _______ is to topographical theory.
a. Child, Adult, Parent.
b. abreaction, catharsis, introspection.
c. ego ideal.
d. unconscious, preconscious, conscious.
D. First, let me explain why choice �a� is incorrect. Id, ego, and superego refer to Freud�s structural theory of the personality while Child, Adult, and Parent is the structural model proposed by Eric Berne, father of transactional analysis. The question, nevertheless, does not ask you to compare the id, ego, and superego to another structural theory; it asks you to compare it to the components in the topographical theory. Remember, the one where the mind is seen as an iceberg? The term introspection introduced in choice �b� describes any process in which the client attempts to describe his or her own internal thoughts, feelings, and ideas.
218. The most controversial aspect of Freud�s theory is.
b. the Oedipus complex.
c. the notion of the preconscious mind.
d. the interpretation of dreams.
B. This is known as the Electra complex when it occurs in females. Also be aware that the most important concept in Freud�s theory is the unconscious mind.
219. Evidence for the unconscious mind comes from all of these except.
b. slips of the tongue and humor.
d. subjective units of distress scale.
D. Subjective units of distress scale (SUDS) is a concept used in forming a hierarchy to perform Wolpe�s systematic desensitization: a behavior therapy technique for curbing phobic reactions, anxiety, and avoidance responses to innocuous situations. The SUDS is created via the process of introspection by rating the anxiety associated with the situation. Generally, the scale most counselors use is 0 to 100, with 100 being the most threatening situation. The counselor can ask a client to rate imagined situations on the subjective units of disturbance scale so that a treatment hierarchy can be formulated. Just for the record, slips of the tongue (choice �b�), or what Freud called �the psychopathology of everyday life,� will be technically referred to as �parapraxis� on some exams.
220. In a counseling session, a counselor asked a patient to recall what transpired three months ago to trigger her depression. There was silence for about two and one-half minutes. The client then began to remember. This exchange most likely illustrates the function of the.
a. preconscious mind.
b. ego ideal.
c. conscious mind.
d. unconscious mind.
A. The rationale here is simple enough. The conscious mind is aware of the immediate environment. The preconscious mind is capable of bringing ideas, images, and thoughts into awareness with minimal difficulty (e.g., in this question the memory of what transpired several months ago to trigger the client�s depression). Thus, the preconscious can access information from the conscious as well as the unconscious mind. The unconscious, on the other hand, is composed of material which is normally unknown or hidden from the client. Thus, if the hypothetical client in this question had said, �Isn�t that strange I can�t remember what happened to trigger the depression,� the correct answer would be choice �d,� the unconscious mind (assuming, of course, the memory loss was not due to biological factors). And�strictly for the sake of repetition�the ego ideal of the superego is the perfect self or ideal self that the person judges himself or herself against.
221. Unconscious processes, which serve to minimize anxiety and protect the self from severe id or superego demands, are called.
a. slips of the tongue.
b. ego defense mechanisms.
c. id defense processes.
d. latent dream material.
B. The id strives for immediate satisfaction, while the superego is ready and willing to punish the ego via guilt if the id is allowed to act on such impulses. This creates tension and a certain degree of pressure within the personality. The ego controls the tension and relieves anxiety utilizing �ego defense mechanisms.� Simply put, ego defense mechanisms are unconscious strategies, which distort reality and are based on self-deception to protect our self-image. Although this concept has its roots in Freud�s psychoanalysis, counselors of most persuasions now agree that defense mechanisms are relevant when studying the personality. Counselors who are not psychoanalytic, nevertheless, may not agree with the theoretical conceptualization that such behavior is the result of id, ego, and superego processes.
222. Most therapists agree that ego defense mechanisms deny or distort reality. Rationalization, compensation, repression, projection, reaction formation, identification, introjection, denial, and displacement are ego defense mechanisms. According to the Freudians, the most important defense mechanism is.
b. reaction formation
A. Freud saw defense mechanisms as an unconscious method a person uses to protect him- or herself from anxiety. The Freudians feel that repression is the kingpin or granddaddy of ego defense mechanisms. A child who is sexually abused, for example, may repress (i.e., truly forget) the incident. In later life, the repression that served to protect the person and �helped her through the distasteful incident at the time� can cause emotional problems. Psychoanalytically trained counselors thus attempt to help the client recall the repressed memory and make it conscious so it can be dealt with. This is called insight and is often curative. Choice �b,� reaction formation, occurs when a person can�t accept a given impulse and thus behaves in the opposite manner. Choice �c,� denial, is similar to repression except that it is a conscious act. An individual who says, �I refuse to think about it,� is displaying denial. Sublimation, in choice �d,� is present when a person acts out an unconscious impulse in a socially acceptable way. Hence, a very aggressive individual might pursue a career in boxing, wrestling, or football.
223. Suppression differs from repression in that.
a. suppression is stronger.
b. repression only occurs in children.
c. repression is automatic or involuntary.
d. all of the above.
C. If you missed this one, review question 222. Some exams refer to suppression as denial.
224. An aggressive male who becomes a professional boxer because he is sadistic is displaying.
C. Again, if you missed this question review the question and answer for 222. A rationalization (choice �b�) is simply an intellectual excuse to minimize hurt feelings. A student who says, �Hey, I�m glad I didn�t get good grades, only nerds get good grades,� is practicing classical rationalization. The person who rationalizes will tend to interpret his thoughts and feelings in a positive or favorable manner. The final choice, displacement�also a defense mechanism�occurs when an impulse is unleashed at a safe target. The prototype example (which you could easily come across on a host of mental health exams) would be the man who is furious with his boss but is afraid to show it and so he comes home and kicks the family dog. One hopes that the family dog will have good enough sense to bite him back!
225. An advertising psychologist secretly imbeds the word SEX into newspaper ads intended to advertise his center�s chemical dependency program. This is the practice of.
d. none of the above.
D. Okay, fess up: did you choose �a�? I�ll bet you�re not the only one! Let me say this in a way so you�ll never miss this type of tricky question again: Sublimation is not the same as subliminal. Sublimation is a defense mechanism, while subliminal perception supposedly occurs when you perceive something unconsciously and thus it has an impact on your behavior. I say �supposedly� because the American Psychological Association (APA) has taken the position that subliminal perception is not effective. The opposite stance has been taken by Wilson Bryan Key who has written books such as Subliminal Seduction and Media Sexploitation in which he points out how advertisers and others have relied on this technique. So, a word to the wise: Read each exam question carefully. Here you will note that the question is describing a subliminal activity, yet the word subliminal is not an answer choice, making choice �d� the only correct answer. Choice �c,� introjection, takes place when a child accepts a parent�s, caretaker�s, or significant other�s values as his or her own. In the case of this defense mechanism, a sexually abused child might attempt to sexually abuse other children.
226. A man receives a nickel an hour pay raise. He was expecting a one dollar per hour raise. He is furious but nonassertive. He thus smiles and thanks his boss. That night he yells at his wife for no apparent reason. This is an example of.
d a Type II error.
A. Here the man yells at his wife instead of kicking the family dog. This is displacement par excellence. Identification (choice �c�) is also a defense mechanism, which results when a person identifies with a cause or a successful person with the unconscious hope that he or she will be perceived as successful or worthwhile. Another possibility is that the identification with the other person serves to lower the fear or anxiety toward that person. Finally, a Type II or so-called beta error is a statistical term, which means that a researcher has accepted a null hypothesis (i.e., that there is no difference between an experimental group and a group not receiving any experimental treatment) when it is false. There are plenty more questions of this sort when you reach the sections on statistics and research methodology.
227. A student tells a college counselor that he is not upset by a grade of �F� in physical education that marred his fourth year perfect 4.0 average, inasmuch as �straight A students are eggheads.� This demonstrates.
b. reaction formation.
c. sour grapes rationalization.
d. sweet lemon rationalization.
C. Remember the fable in which the fox couldn�t secure the grapes so he said they were probably sour anyway? Well here�s the human equivalent affectionately known as the sour grapes variety of rationalization. �I didn�t really want it anyway,� is the way this one is usually expressed. Choice �d� depicts the �sweet lemon� variety of rationalization. Here the person tells you how wonderful a distasteful set of circumstances really is. Thus, in rationalization the person either underrates a reward (sour grapes) or overrates a reward (sweet lemon) to protect the self from a bruised ego.
228. A master�s level counselor lands an entry level counseling job in an agency in a warm climate. Her office is not air conditioned, but the counselor insists she likes this because sweating really helps to keep her weight in check. This illuminates.
a. sour grapes rationalization.
b. sweet lemon rationalization.
B. Review the previous question if you missed this. And here�s a wonderful memory device. In our society we overrate the value of (or at least overeat) sweets in our diet. In the sweet lemon variety of rationalization the person overrates the situation. In this question the counselor is essentially saying, �Oh, gee, I just love to sweat, it keeps the water weight off of me and keeps my weight down.� Right; and lemons taste sweet� dream on!
229. A teenager who had his heart set on winning a tennis match broke his arm in an auto accident. He sends in an entry form to play in the competition which begins just days after the accident. His behavior is influenced by
b. displacement of anger.
d. organ inferiority.
A. This is classic denial. The tennis player is failing to face reality. Organ inferiority (choice �d�) is usually associated with the work of Alfred Adler, who pioneered a theory known as �individual psychology.�
230. _______ is like looking in a mirror but thinking you are looking out a window.
b. Sour grapes rationalization.
C. Simply put, the person who engages in projection attributes unacceptable qualities of his or her own to others. All of the answer choices are considered defense mechanisms.
231. Mark is obsessed with stamping out pornography. He is unconsciously involved in this cause so that he can view the material. This is.
a. reaction formation.
A. In reaction formation the person acts the opposite of the way he or she actually feels. An adult living with a very elderly parent, for example, may spend all his or her time caring for the parent when in reality the individual unconsciously would like to see the elderly person die.
232. Ted has always felt inferior intellectually. He currently works out at the gym at least four hours daily and is taking massive doses of dangerous steroids to build his muscles. The ego defense mechanism in action here is.
a. reaction formation.
B. Compensation is evident when an individual attempts to develop or overdevelop a positive trait to make up for a limitation (i.e., a perceived inferiority). The person secretly hopes that others will focus on the positives rather than the negative factors.
233. Jane feels very inferior. She is now president of the board at a shelter for the homeless. She seems to be obsessed with her work for the agency and spends every spare minute trying to help the cause. When asked to introduce herself in virtually any social situation, Jane invariably responds with, �I�m the president of the board for the homeless shelter.� Jane is engaging in.
D. If this is unclear review the explanation under question 226.
234. A client who has incorporated his father�s values into his thought patterns is a product of.
A. Yes, by the time you�re finished wrestling with this set of questions you will definitely know your defense mechanisms! Sometimes introjection causes the person to accept an aggressor�s values. A prisoner of war might incorporate the value system of the enemy after a period of time.
235. The client�s tendency to inhibit or fight against the therapeutic process is known as.
A. A client who refuses to follow a counselor�s directives such as a homework assignment or completing a battery of tests would be a typical example of resistance, or what counselors call the �resistant client.�
236. Freud has been called the most significant theorist in the entire history of psychology. His greatest contribution was his conceptualization of the unconscious mind. Critics, however, contend that.
a. he was too concerned with the totem and the taboo.
b. he failed to emphasize sex.
c. many aspects of his theory are difficult to test from a scientific standpoint.
d. he was pro female.
C. How can concepts like the id, ego, or unconscious conflicts be directly measured? The answer is that for the most part, they can�t. This has been a major criticism of Freud�s theory. Choice �a� alludes to Freud�s writings on the totem (an object that represents a family or group), the taboo, and the dread of incest. Freud felt that even primitive peoples feared incestuous relationships. The dread of incest is not instilled merely via modern societal sanctions. Freud�s psychoanalysis is the oldest major form of therapy.
237. The purpose of interpretation in counseling is to.
a. help the therapist appear genuine.
b. make the clients aware of their unconscious processes.
c. make clients aware of nonverbal behaviors.
d. help clients understand feelings and behaviors related to childhood.
B. This is the kind of question that separates the men from the boys and the women from the girls. It is what is known as a �best answer� type of question. Although choices �c� and �d� are not necessarily incorrect, choice �b� is a textbook definition of interpretation.
238. Organ inferiority relates mainly to the work of.
a. C G Jung�s analytical psychology.
b. Alfred Adler�s individual psychology.
c. Sigmund Freud�s psychoanalytic theory.
d. Josef Breuer�s work on hysteria.
B. The term individual stresses the unique qualities we each possess. Individual psychology is keen on analyzing organ inferiority and methods in which the individual attempts to compensate for it. It is interesting to note that Alfred Adler was a very sickly child. Because of rickets (a disease caused by the absence of vitamin D, the so-called sunshine vitamin), Adler could not walk until age 4. He was then the victim of pneumonia as well as a series of accidents. Thus, for Adler, the major psychological goal is to escape deep-seated feelings of inferiority. Could Adler�s theory reflect his own childhood? You decide.
239. When a client becomes aware of a factor in his or her life that was heretofore unknown, counselors refer to it as.
a. individual psychology.
c. transference neurosis.
D. Insight is the �aha, now I understand,� phenomenon. Technically, the term insight is equated with the work of the gestalt psychologist Wolfgang Kohler. From 1913 to 1919 Kohler spent time on the island of Tenerife (the largest of the Canary Islands), where he studied chimpanzees and the great apes. In a somewhat landmark experiment one of Kohler�s subjects, a rather intelligent chimp named Sultan, needed to secure a dish of food placed outside the cage. The chimp had two sticks but neither would reach the food. Finally, via trial and error, the chimp put the two sticks together to create a longer stick and the problem was suddenly solved (insight took place). In another famous experiment a banana was suspended from the ceiling of the cage, and the chimp needed to stack boxes and stand on them to reach the banana. When the chimp saw the value of using the box or the stick as a tool, Kohler called it an insight experience. His 1925 book The Mentality of Apes took the information beyond the Canary Islands to its rightful place in the therapy room. According to some theorists three types of learning exist: reinforcement (operant conditioning), association (classical conditioning), and insight. I can just hear you saying, �Okay Dr. Rosenthal, will I really need to know the cute little stories about the sticks and the bananas to pass my comprehensive exam?� Answer, �I certainly doubt it, but once in a while it�s nice to learn something just for the sake of learning something fascinating.�
240. C. G. Jung, the founder of analytic psychology, said men operate on logic or the _______ principle, while women are intuitive, operating on the _______ principle.
a. Eros; Thanatos.
b. Logos; Eros.
c. reality; pleasure.
d. transference; countertransference.
B. Logos implies logic, while eros refers to intuition. Choice �d� uses the terminology, transference and countertransference. In transference, the assumption is that the client will relate to the therapist or counselor as he or she has to significant others. The Freudians are fond of speaking of a �transference neurosis� in which the client is attached to the counselor as if he or she is a substitute parent. Countertransference (also commonly spelled with a hyphen) is said to be evident when the counselor�s strong feelings or attachment to the client are strong enough to hinder the treatment process.
241. Jung used drawings balanced around a center point to analyze himself, his clients, and dreams. He called them.
b. projective drawings.
c. unconscious automatic writing.
d. eidetic imagery.
A. Jung, the father of analytic psychology, borrowed the term mandala from Hindu writings in which the mandala was the symbol of meditation. In Jung�s writings the mandala also can stand for a magic protective circle that represents self-unification. A bit mystical, isn�t it? Perhaps that is why poets, philosophers, and those with an interest in religion often valued Jung�s work more so than did psychiatrists. Choice �d� is a word you will often run across in child psychology and development tests. Eidetic imagery�which usually is gone by the time a child reaches adolescence�is the ability to remember the most minute details of a scene or a picture for an extended period of time. Laypersons will say that such a child has a �photographic memory.�
242. _______ emphasized the drive for superiority.
c. Constructivist therapists.
d. Freud and Jung.
B. Okay, here�s a prime example where I am using an incorrect answer, choice �c� to teach you key material. The newer constructivist theories of intervention stress that it is imperative that we as helpers understand the client�s view (also known as constructs) to explain his or her problems. Two popular classes of constructivist therapy include brief therapy, which examines what worked for a client in the past, and narrative therapy, which looks at the stories in the client�s life and attempts to rewrite or reconstruct the stories when necessary. Alfred Adler, the father of individual psychology, initially felt that aggressive drives were responsible for most human behaviors. He then altered the theory slightly and said that the major factor was the �will to power.� Finally, he concluded that it was the �striving for superiority� or a thirst for perfection that motivated behavior. (Note: The drive for superiority did not imply that the person wanted to dominate others or become a political figure or one of the ruling class).
243. The statement, �Sibling interaction may have more impact than parent/child interaction� describes.
a. Sigmund Freud�s theory.
b. Alfred Adler�s theory.
d. Carl Jung�s theory.
B. Adler, who broke with Freud in 1911, went on to found a number of child-guidance clinics in which he was able to observe children�s behavior directly. One criticism of Freud has been that his child development theories were not based on extensive research or observations of children�s behavior.
244. In contrast with Freud, the neo-Freudians emphasized.
a. baseline measures.
b. social factors.
c. unconditional positive regard.
B. This is a must-know concept. It is hard to imagine a comprehensive exam that would not touch on this issue. Neo-Freudians such as Alfred Adler, Karen Horney, Erik Erikson, Harry Stack Sullivan, and Erich Fromm stressed the importance of cultural (social) issues and, of course, interpersonal (social) relations. Choice �a� is decidedly incorrect inasmuch as baseline is a behaviorist term. (Remember the behaviorists�the rivals of the analysts!) Baseline�sometimes written as two words�indicates the frequency that a behavior is manifested prior to or in the absence of treatment. Unconditional positive regard (Choice �c�) is a concept popularized by the late great therapist Carl R. Rogers, who felt that the counselor must care for the client even when the counselor is uncomfortable or disagrees with the client�s position. In essence, the counselor accepts the client just the way he or she is without any stipulations.
245. The terms introversion and extroversion are associated with.
D. Introversion meant a turning in of the libido. Thus, an introverted individual is his or her own primary source of pleasure. Such a person will generally shy away from social situations if possible. Extroversion, on the other hand, is the tendency to find satisfaction and pleasure in other people. The extrovert seeks external rewards. The introversion�extroversion distinction deals with inward or outward directiveness. Why not try the simplest of memory devices to remember this principle? You can remember that the �in� as in introvert looks �in� or with �in� himself or herself for satisfaction. Of course, an extrovert would be the opposite and look to external factors like social situations. Another idea might be to equate the �e,� the first letter in extroversion, with the �e� which is the first letter in external.
246. The personality types of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) are associated with the work of.
D.This test is literally given to several million persons each year! The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is said to be the most widely used measure of personality preferences and dispositions. The measure can be used to assess upper elementary children age 12 and over all the way through adulthood and yields a four-letter code, or �type,� based on four bipolar scales. The bipolar preference scales are extroversion/introversion; sensing (i.e., current perception)/intuition (i.e., future abstractions and possibilities); thinking/feeling; and judging (i.e., organizing and controlling the outside world)/perceiving (i.e., observing events).
247. One of Adler�s students, Rudolph Dreikurs.
a. created the TAT.
b. was the first to discuss the use of group therapy in private practice.
c. was a noted Freud hater.
d. created the hierarchy of needs.
B. Dreikurs also introduced Adlerian principles to the treatment of children in the school setting. The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) mentioned in choice �a� is a projective test in which the client is shown a series of pictures and asked to tell a story. The TAT was introduced in Henry Murray�s 1938 work Explorations in Personality. Murray called the study of the personality �personology.� As for choice �c,� I believe I�d go with Andrew Salter, who wrote The Case Against Psychoanalysis. Salter did groundbreaking work in behavior therapy, which led to the formation of assertiveness training. This information appeared in the 1949 classic Conditioned Reflex Therapy. In reference to choice �d,� it was Maslow and not Adler who created the hierarchy of needs.
248. Adler emphasized that people wish to belong. This is known as.
b. social connectedness.
c. the collective unconscious.
B. The Adlerian theory (choice �b�) suggests that we need one another. The collective unconscious in choice �c� is a term coined by C. G. Jung, which implies that all humans have �collected� universal inherited, unconscious neural patterns.
249. Adler was one of the first therapists who relied on paradox. Using this strategy, a client (who was a student in a counselor preparation program) who was afraid to give a presentation in front of his counseling class for fear he might shake and embarrass himself would be instructed to.
a. exaggerate the behavior and really do a thorough job shaking in front of the class.
b. practice relaxation techniques for 10 to 20 minutes before the speech.
c. practice rational self-talk.
d. practice rational thinking.
A. Paradoxical techniques also are associated with the work of Victor Frankl, who pioneered logotherapy, a form of existential treatment. Paradoxical strategies often seem to defy logic as the client is instructed to intensify or purposely engage in the maladaptive behavior. Paradoxical interventions are often the direct antithesis of common sense directives such as choice �b.� Paradoxical methods have become very popular with family therapists due to the work of Jay Haley and Milton H. Erickson. Currently, this technique is popular with family therapists who believe it reduces a family�s resistance to change. Choices �c� and �d� are almost always associated with the so-called cognitive therapies, especially rational-emotive behavior psychotherapy.
250. Jung felt that society caused men to deny their feminine side known as _______ and women to deny their masculine side known as _______.
a. Eros; Thanatos
b. animus; anima
c. anima; animus
d. yin; yang
C. These terms were introduced in the section on human growth and development, but just for review purposes and for those who never studied Latin: You can remember that anima is the feminine term as it ends in �ma,� and needless to say, it is common to refer to one�s mother as �ma.� You could also remember animus is the male side of the personality as it ends in �mus� and reminds one of �muscles,� which are generally a male attribute. Choice �d� notes the Chinese Taoist philosophy in which the yin is the passive feminine force in the universe, which is contrasted by the yang, the masculine force.
251. Jung spoke of a collective unconscious common to all men and women. The material that makes up the collective unconscious, which is passed from generation to generation, is known as.
a. a hierarchy of needs.
D. This is easy to remember if you keep the word archaic in mind. An archetype is actually a primal universal symbol, which means the same thing to all men and women (e.g., the cross). Jung perused literature and found that certain archetypes have appeared in fables, myths, dreams, and religious writings since the beginning of recorded history.
252. Common archetypes include.
a. the persona�the mask or role we present to others to hide our true self.
b. animus, anima, self.
c. shadow�the mask behind the persona, which contains id-like material, denied, yet desired.
d. all of the above.
D. The shadow noted in choice �c� is often called the dark side of the personality, though it is not necessarily negative. Jung noted that the shadow encompasses everything an individual refused to acknowledge. The shadow represents the unconscious opposite of the individual�s conscious expression. Hence, a shy retired individual might have recurring dreams that he or she is very outgoing, verbal, and popular. In addition to dreams, the basic nature of the shadow is also evident when an individual engages in projection. The clinical assumption is made that projection will decrease and individuation will increase as therapy renders shadow behaviors conscious.
253. A client is demonstrating inconsistent behavior. She is smiling but says that she is very sad about what she did. When her counselor points this out to her, the counselor�s verbal response is known as.
a. active listening.
c. accurate empathy.
B. Confrontation could also relate solely to verbal behavior. For example, a counselor might confront a client about what he says he is doing in his life versus what he is truly doing. The essence of confrontation is to illuminate discrepancies between the client�s and the helper�s conceptualization of a given situation. Choice �c,� accurate empathy, occurs when a counselor is able to experience the client�s point of view in terms of feelings and cognitions. Empathy is a subjective understanding of the client in the here-and-now. Summarization, mentioned in choice �d,� transpires whenever a counselor brings together the ideas discussed during a period of dialogue. A counselor might also ask the client to summarize to be certain that he or she has actually grasped the meaning of an exchange. Some counselors believe that summarization should occur at the end of each session or after several sessions.
254. During a professional staff meeting, a counselor says he is worried that if techniques are implemented to stop a 6-year-old boy from sucking his thumb, then he will begin biting his nails or stuttering. The counselor.
a. is using the logic set forth in gestalt therapy.
b. is using Donald Meichenbaum�s cognitive behavior modification.
c. is most likely a behaviorist concerned with symptom substitution.
d. is most likely an analytically trained counselor concerned with symptom substitution.
D. The answer only can be choice �d� inasmuch as symptom substitution is a psychoanalytic concept. According to the theory, if you merely deal with the symptom another symptom will manifest itself since the real problem is in the unconscious mind. Behaviorists do strive for symptom reduction and do not believe in the concept of symptom substitution.
255. An eclectic counselor.
a. is analytic.
b. is behavioristic.
c. attempts to choose the best theoretical approach based on the client�s attributes, resources, and situation.
d. insists on including all family members in the treatment.
C. An eclectic counselor uses theories and techniques from several models of intervention, rather than simply relying on one. An eclectic counselor, for example, would not say, �I�m a Rogerian,� or �I see myself as a strict behavior therapist.� The eclectic counselor uses �the best from every approach.� Research indicates that about 50% of all therapists claim to be eclectic, and a number of studies indicate eclecticism is on the rise.
256. The word eclectic is most closely associated with.
a. Frederick C. Thorne.
A. It is very important to note that Thorne felt that true eclecticism was much more than �a hodgepodge of facts�; it needed to be rigidly scientific. Thorne preferred the term psychological case handling rather than psychotherapy, as he felt the efficacy of psychotherapy had not been scientifically demonstrated.
257. A counselor who is obsessed with the fact that a client missed his or her session is the victim of.
a. cognitive dissonance.
d. positive transference.
C. In countertransference the counselor�s past is projected onto the client and the helper�s objectivity suffers markedly. A counselor who falls in love with a client or feels extreme anger toward a client is generally considered a victim of countertransference. Choice �a,� cognitive dissonance, suggests that humans will feel quite uncomfortable if they have two incompatible or inconsistent beliefs and thus the person will be motivated to reduce the dissonance.
258. Lifestyle, birth order, and family constellation are emphasized by.
d. Thorne and Lazarus.
C. Adlerians believe that our lifestyle is a predictable self-fulfilling prophecy based on our psychological feelings about ourselves. Adler stressed the importance of birth order in the family constellation (e.g., the firstborn/oldest child could be dethroned by a later child who gets most of the attention; thus the firstborn would be prone to experience feelings of inferiority). Firstborns often go to great lengths to please their parents. A second child will often try to compete with a firstborn child and often surpasses the first child�s performance. A middle child (or children) will often feel that he or she is being treated unfairly. Middle children are sometimes seen as being quite manipulative. The youngest child or baby in the family can be pampered or spoiled. The good news is that they often excel by modeling/imitating the older children�s behavior. The concept of birth order has been criticized by some theorists such as Wayne Dyer, famous for his self-improvement book Your Erroneous Zones, which outsold every book written in the decade of the 1970s!
259. A counselor who remarks that firstborn children are usually conservative but display leadership qualities is most likely.
a. a Freudian who believes in the unconscious mind.
b. an Adlerian that believes behavior must be studied in a social context; never in isolation.
c. Rogerian who stresses the importance of the therapeutic relationship.
d. a behavior modifier using a behavioral contract.
B. You can well imagine why the current family therapy movement has roots in Adlerian theory. Adlerians stress that clients long for a feeling of belonging and strive for perfection. Adlerians�like REBT practitioners�are didactic and use homework assignments. The Adlerian counselor often asks the client: What would life be like if you were functioning in an ideal manner? Then the counselor asks the client to act �as if� he or she did not have the problem. Now that�s what I call a dramatic therapeutic strategy!
260. Existentialism is to logotherapy as _______ is to behaviorism.
B. Don�t panic�this is simply an analogy type question. Let�s think this one out together so you can discover how choice �b� checks in as the correct answer. The first word in the question gives us a significant clue. That is to say, �existentialism� is a type of philosophy. Now existentialism (the philosophy) is compared to �logotherapy,� which is a brand of psychotherapy. The question then mentions behaviorism, which is a type of psychology and more loosely defined as a brand of treatment. So, the question tells you that logotherapy grew out of the philosophy of existentialism and then asks you to fill in the blank with the philosophy which led to the formation of behaviorism. Skinner and his concept of operants are behavioristic to be sure; however, neither of them is a philosophy. The answer is associationism, which asserts that ideas are held together by associations. Now here�s a super hint. Although associationism had its roots in an essay written by Aristotle on the nature of memory, most exams will list John Locke, David Hume, James Mill, or David Hartley as the pioneers. My guess: Look for the name John Locke come exam time.
261. B. F. Skinner�s reinforcement theory elaborated on.
a. Edward Thorndike�s law of effect.
b. Adler�s concept of lifestyle.
c. Arnold Lazarus�s concept of the BASIC ID used in the multimodal therapeutic approach that is eclectic and holistic.
d. symptom substitution.
A. The �law of effect� simply asserts that responses accompanied by satisfaction (i.e., it pleases you) will be repeated, while those which produce unpleasantness or discomfort will be stamped out. Just a quick quip in regard to choice �c�: Lazarus worked very closely with Joseph Wolpe�and thus his multimodal approach�although it is very holistic, meaning that the approach emphasizes the whole person�has a strong behavioral treatment slant. The therapist focuses on seven key modalities or areas of the clients functioning: B=behavior including acts, habits, and reactions; A=affective responses such as emotions, feelings, and mood; S=sensations, including hearing, touch, sight, smell, and taste; I=images/the way we perceive ourselves, including memories and dreams; C=cognitions such as our thoughts, insights, and even our philosophy of life; I=interpersonal relationships (i.e., the way we interact with others); and D=drugs, that would include alcohol, legal, illegal, and prescription drug usage, diet and nutritional supplementation.
262. Classical conditioning relates to the work of.
a. E.G. Williamson.
b. B. F. Skinner.
d. Ivan Pavlov.
D. Interestingly enough, Pavlov won a Nobel Prize not for his work in classical conditioning but for his research on the digestive system. Choice �a,� E. G. Williamson, is the father of the so-called Minnesota Viewpoint. Popular some years ago, especially with career counselors, this approach attempts to match the client�s traits with a career. A word to the wise: Many exams will bill this as the �trait factor� approach.
263. An association that naturally exists, such as an animal salivating when food is presented, is called.
a. an operant.
d. acquisition period.
C. Let me see if I can make this simple for you so that every time you see some form of the word conditioned or conditioning you don�t feel intimidated. From now on, whenever you see the word conditioned, substitute the word learned. When you see the word unconditioned substitute the word unlearned. Now this question becomes a heck of a lot easier, since salivating is an �unlearned� association. The dog need not sign up for a graduate course in behaviorism to learn this response. So, for review purposes: conditioned=learned; unconditioned=unlearned. Choice �d,� the acquisition period, refers to the time it takes to learn or acquire a given behavior. If it takes a mentally challenged child two hours to learn to write his name, then two hours would be the acquisition period.
264. Skinner�s operant conditioning is also referred to as.
a. instrumental learning.
b. classical conditioning.
c. cognitive learning.
d. learning via insight.
A. One possible memory device here would be that Skinner�s last name has an �i� as does the word instrumental, whereas the word Pavlov doesn�t.
265. Respondent behavior refers to.
c. a type of phobia.
A. Okay, so you didn�t fall in love with my memory device for the last question. Never fear; here�s another way to go about it. Pavlov�s theory involves mainly �reflexes,� such as in the experiment where the dog salivates. The word reflex begins with an �r� and so does the word respondent. The bottom line: Pavlovian conditioning is respondent while Skinner�s is instrumental/operant. (PS.: Please don�t read this if you get confused easily, but the term respondent is generally accredited to Skinner, although it applies to the theoretical notions of Pavlovian conditioning.)
266. All reinforcers.
a. are plastic tokens.
b. tend to increase the probability that a behavior will occur.
c. are secondary.
d. do not raise behavior since negative reinforcement lowers behavior.
B. I can�t say this too strongly: All reinforcers�yep, both positive and negative�raise the probability that an antecedent (prior) behavior will occur. In a situation where we have positive reinforcement, something is added following an operant (behavior). Now, this is going to sound a little complicated, but here goes. It is possible to use positive reinforcers to reduce or eliminate an undesirable target behavior. Here�s how. Using a procedure known as �differential reinforcement of other behavior� (DRO), the counselor positively reinforces an individual for engaging in a healthy alternative behavior. The assumption is that as the alternative desirable behavior increases via reinforcement, the client will not display the inappropriate target behavior as frequently. In the case of negative reinforcement, something is taken away after the behavior occurs. As for the incorrect choices, a secondary reinforcer is a neutral stimulus, such as a plastic token, which becomes reinforcing by association. Thus, a plastic token could be exchanged for known reinforcers.
267. Negative reinforcement requires the withdrawal of an aversive (negative) stimulus to increase the likelihood that a behavior will occur. Negative reinforcement is not used as often as positive reinforcement and.
a. is really the same as punishment.
b. effectively lowers the frequency of behavior in young children.
c. is not the same thing as punishment.
d. is a psychodynamic conceptualization.
C. A comprehensive test that includes questions on behavior modification but does not have a question similar to this one would be about as likely as an orange containing lemon juice. In case my analogy is a bit too sarcastic (or sour) for your taste, the salient point is that you must understand this concept. Negative reinforcement is not punishment. All reinforcers raise or strengthen the probability that a behavior will occur; punishment lowers it. It doesn�t take a master�s or a doctorate in counseling to grasp the notion that when you were punished as a child the probability of that particular behavior generally decreased for a period of time. I say �for a period of time� since most behavior modifiers feel punishment temporarily suppresses the behavior. This seems to be the case in humans and, according to B. F. Skinner, in rats. This would certainly seem to dethrone choice �b� as the correct response. Advanced exam reminder: Some tests will discriminate between positive and negative punishment. Positive punishment is said to occur when something is added after a behavior and the behavior decreases, while negative punishment takes place when a stimulus is removed following the behavior and the response decreases.
a. is the same as negative reinforcement.
b. is much more effective than reinforcement.
c. decreases the probability that a behavior will occur.
d. is used extensively in reality therapy.
C. A little review never hurt anybody. To set the record straight, behavior modifiers value reinforcement over punishment. William Glasser, M.D., the father of reality therapy, lists eight steps for effective treatment, of which step 7 admonishes �not to punish.�
269. In Pavlov�s famous experiment using dogs, the bell was the _______, and the meat was the _______.
a. CS; UCS
b. UCS; CS
c. CR; UCS
d. UCS; CR
A. Ah, remember my memory device from the beginning of this book. It went like this: �In the U.S. we eat a lot of meat.� In the Pavlovian experiment, the U.S. (which is sometimes written UCS) is the unconditioned (think unlearned) stimulus, or the meat.
270. The most effective time interval (temporal relation) between the CS and the US.
a. is irrelevant�it does not influence the learning process.
b. is 5 seconds.
c. is the .05 level according to social scientists.
d. is .5 or 1/2 of a second.
D. As the interval exceeds 1/2 second, more trials are needed for effective conditioning. How will you remember that the CS comes before the US? Just remember that �c� comes before �u� in the alphabet. Or better still, common sense would dictate that the reinforcer (the meat/US) would come after the bell (the CS) to reinforce it. Now I�m going to share something with you that will help you on difficult exam questions. When the CS is delayed until the US occurs, the procedure is known as �delay conditioning.� If, however, the CS terminates before the occurrence of the US, it is termed �trace conditioning.� Here�s a slick and easy-to-use memory device. Trace begins with �t� and so does termination. In trace conditioning, the CS will terminate prior to the onset of the US (or UCS as it will be abbreviated on some exams).
271. Many researchers have tried putting the UCS (i.e., the meat) before the CS (i.e., the bell). This usually results in.
a. increased learning.
b. anger on the part of the dog.
c. experimental neurosis.
d. no conditioning.
D. Whether you put the cart before the horse, �u� before �c� in the alphabet, or the UCS before the CS, it just doesn�t work. This is called backward conditioning. Generally backward conditioning is ineffective and doesn�t work. Note: The exam you are taking could refer to the typical classical conditioning process where the CS comes before the UCS as �forward conditioning� to distinguish it from �backward conditioning.�
272. Several graduate students in counseling trained a poodle to salivate using Pavlov�s classical conditioning paradigm. One day the department chairman was driving across campus and honked his horn. Much to the chagrin of the students, the poodle elicited a salivation response. What had happened?
a. experimental neurosis had obviously set in.
c. stimulus generalization or what Pavlov termed irradiation.
d. stimulus discrimination.
C. Rule 1 for handling those lengthy questions on your exam: ignore all the irrelevant information. Whether it was the department chairman driving across the campus or the dean of students riding his bicycle is about as relevant to answering the question as the price of tea in China! Stimulus generalization, also called �second order conditioning,� occurs when a stimulus similar to the CS (the bell) produces the same reaction. Hence, a car horn, a piano key, or a buzzer on a stove timer could conceivably produce the same reaction as the bell. Remember when I mentioned Little Albert�s learned fear of white rats? The tendency for him to display fear with other furry white animals or a Santa Claus mask is illustrative of the principle of stimulus generalization.
273. The department chairman found the poodle�s response (see question 272) to his horn humorous. He thus instructed the graduate students to train the dog to salivate only to his car horn and not the original bell. Indeed the graduate students were able to perform this task. The poodle was now demonstrating.
a. experimental neurosis.
d. stimulus discrimination.
D. Stimulus discrimination is nearly the opposite of stimulus generalization. Here the learning process is �fine tuned,� if you will, to respond only to a specific stimulus. In this example, the dog would be taught to salivate only when the department chairman sounds his horn. A piano key, a buzzer on a stove, or the original bell would not elicit (i.e., cause) the reaction. Stimulus discrimination is at times referred to as �stimulus differentiation� in some of the literature. Pica, choice �c�, is the tendency for humans to eat objects that are not food, such as chewing on a pencil or lead paint (the latter of which can cause irreversible brain damage). Some people believe pica is a psychological difficulty while other experts insist it occurs due to a lack of minerals in the diet.
274. The department chair was further amused by the poodle�s tendency to be able to discriminate one CS from another (see question 273). He thus told the students to teach the dog to salivate only to the horn on his Ford but not one on a graduate student�s Chevrolet truck. In reality, the horns on the two vehicles sounded identical. The training was seemingly unsuccessful inasmuch as the dog merely took to very loud barking. In this case.
a. experimental neurosis set in.
b. irradiation became a reality.
c. borderline personality traits no doubt played a role.
d. a covert process confounded the experiment.
A. �Stop it, you�re driving this dog crazy,� would be the correct response to this question. Pavlov termed this phenomenon �experimental neurosis.� When the differentiation process becomes too tough because the stimuli are almost identical, the dog will show signs of emotional disturbance. Reminder: On questions of this nature, some exams will refer to the CS as the NS, or �neutral stimulus,� and the UCS as the �reinforcing� or �charged stimulus.�
275. In one experiment, a dog was conditioned to salivate to a bell paired with a fast-food cheeseburger. The researcher then kept ringing the bell without giving the dog the cheeseburger. This is known as.
a. instrumental learning via shaping.
b. positive reinforcement.
c. extinction, and the salivation will disappear.
d. negative reinforcement.
C. This may be a doggy way to learn about classical Pavlovian respondent conditioning, but I believe it is effective. In this case the layperson might say that ringing a bell and not reinforcing the dog with a fast-food cheeseburger is animal cruelty. The professional will see it as extinction. Extinction occurs when the CS is �not� reinforced via the US. Most experts believe that the CR is not eliminated but is suppressed, or what is generally called �inhibited.� The rationale for this position is that if the animal is given a rest, the CR (i.e., the salivation in this example) will reappear, though it will be weaker. This phenomenon has been called �spontaneous recovery.� In Skinnerian or operant conditioning, extinction connotes that reinforcement is withheld and eventually the behavior will be extinguished (eliminated).
276. John B. Watson�s name is associated with.
a. Little Hans.
b. Anna O.
c. Little Albert.
d. b and c.
C. The significance of the Little Albert case was that it demonstrated that fears were �learned� and not the result of some unconscious conflict.
277. During a family counseling session, a 6-year-old girl repeatedly sticks her tongue out at the counselor who is obviously ignoring the behavior. The counselor is practicing.
a. negative reinforcement,
c. reciprocal inhibition.
D. A word to the wise experimenter or counselor: Some research demonstrates that when using extinction the behavior will get worse before it is eliminated. This tendency technically is called a response burst or an extinction burst. Fortunately, the �burst,� or increase in the frequency of behavior, is temporary. In plain everyday English then, this counselor can expect the little girl�s behavior�in this case sticking out her tongue�to get worse before it gets better. Ignoring a behavior is a common method of extinction as is the practice of time-out, where the client or student is isolated from reinforcement. Just for the record, the response burst is generally a major ethical consideration for therapists who are attempting to extinguish self-abusive or self-mutilating behaviors. Choice �b,� chaining is also a behavioristic term. A chain is a sequence of behaviors in which one response renders a cue that the next response is to occur. When you are writing a sentence and place a period at the end it is a cue that you�re next letter will be an uppercase letter. In behavior modification simple behaviors are learned and then �chained� so that a complex behavior can take place. A chain is really just a series of operants joined together by reinforcers.
278. In general, behavior modification strategies are based heavily on _______, while behavior therapy emphasizes _______.
a. instrumental conditioning; classical conditioning
b. Pavlovian principles; Skinnerian principles
c. Skinnerian principles; Pavlovian principles
d. a and c
D. Technically, behavior modification is Skinnerian (i.e., operant, instrumental), while behavior therapy is Pavlovian (i.e., classical, respondent).
279. A behavioristic counselor decides upon aversive conditioning as the treatment of choice for a gentleman who wishes to give up smoking. The counselor begins by taking a baseline. This is accomplished.
a. using hypnosis.
b. by charting the occurrence of the behavior prior to any therapeutic intervention.
c. using a biofeedback device.
B. The baseline indicates the frequency of the behavior untreated and is sometimes signified in the literature on a chart using an upper case letter A.
280. The first studies, which demonstrated that animals could indeed be conditioned to control autonomic processes, were conducted by
a. E. Thorndike.
b. Joseph Wolpe.
c. Neal Miller.
d. Ivan Pavlov.
C. In a study that perhaps challenged a 100-year-old psychological doctrine, Miller and Banuazizi showed that by utilizing rewards rats could be trained to alter heart rate and intestinal contractions. Prior to this experiment it was thought that automatic or �autonomic� bodily processes (such as heart rate, intestinal contractions, or blood pressure) could not be controlled. Today, counselors often use the technique of biofeedback (i.e., hooking the client to a sophisticated electronic device that provides biological feedback) to help clients control autonomic responses. Edward Thorndike, mentioned in choice �a,� postulated the �law of effect,� which is also known as �trial and error learning.� This theory assumes that satisfying associations related to a given behavior will cause it to be �stamped in,� while those associated with annoying consequences are �stamped out.� And here is an important point: Practice per se does not ensure effective learning. The practice must yield a reward.
281. The significance of the Little Albert experiment by John B. Watson and Rosalie Rayner was that.
a. a phobia could be a learned behavior.
b. it provided concrete proof that Skinner�s model was correct.
c. it provided concrete proof that Pavlov�s model was correct.
d. none of the above.
A.The psychoanalytic or Freudian theory espoused the notion that a fear was the result of an unconscious conflict. This is why analytic psychology is often called �depth psychology.� Something is assumed to be wrong deep below the level of awareness.
282. John B. Watson is to cause as Mary Cover Jones is to.
A. John B. Watson demonstrated that a phobic reaction was �learned,� while Mary Cover Jones demonstrated that �learning� could serve as a treatment for a phobic reaction. Neurolinguistic programming (NLP) is the brainchild of linguistics professor John Grinder and mathematician/computer expert John Bandler. These outsiders to the helping professions watched expert helpers, most notably, Virginia Satir, Milton H. Erickson, and Fritz Perls to discover what these therapists really did rather than what they said they did.
283. In the famous Little Albert experiment, a child was conditioned to fear a harmless white furry animal. Historical accounts indicate that the child also began to fear a Santa Claus mask. This would demonstrate.
a. panic disorder with agoraphobia.
b. stimulus generalization.
c. an adjustment reaction.
d. stimulus discrimination.
B. This is simple enough to remember, since in stimulus generalization the fear �generalizes.� In other words, a Santa Claus mask is white and furry and somewhat similar to a furry white animal, and hence produces the same fearful reaction in the child.
284. A counselor who says he or she practices depth psychology technically bases his or her treatment on.
a. Pavlov�s dogs.
b. Mary Cover Jones.
c. John B. Watson.
d. Freud�s topographic hypothesis.
The process of elimination can work wonders here. Even if you couldn�t distinguish Freud�s topographic theory from a hole in the ground you could answer this question by eliminating choices �a,� �b,� and �c� based on the fact that D. Pavlov, Jones, and Watson were pioneers in the behaviorist movement.
285. When a counselor refers to a counseling paradigm, she really means.
a. she is nondirective.
b. she is very directive.
c. a treatment model.
d. she is not a depth psychologist.
C. You must be familiar with the word paradigm, which is utilized excessively in this field. A paradigm is a �model.� Choice �a� is used to describe a counselor who allows the client to explore thoughts and feelings with a minimum of direction. This approach, which was initially popularized via the work of Carl R. Rogers, is also called the �Client-Centered� or the �Person-Centered� approach. This is often contrasted with the directive position (choice �b�) in which the therapist leads the client to discuss certain topics and provides �direct suggestions� about how the client should think, act, or behave. And here is a wonderful exam tip: Many tests will use the term active therapy or �active-directive� therapy to delineate the directive paradigm.
286. A man says, �My life has been lousy for the past six months.� The counselor replies, �Can you tell me specifically what has made life so bad for the last six months?� The counselor is.
a. using interpretation.
b. using summarization.
c. using concreteness.
d. using a depth psychology paradigm.
C. Concreteness is also known as �specificity� in some of the literature. The counselor uses the principle of concreteness in an attempt to eliminate vague language. Choice �a,� interpretation, is highly valued in analytic and psychodynamic modalities, although it is used in other schools of counseling. Interpretation is said to take place when the counselor uncovers a deeper mean ing regarding a client�s situation. Most counselor educators believe that the counselor must wait until counselor�client trust is established; otherwise the client is more likely to reject the interpretation. This notion-ihas been called �the timing of interpretation.�
287. A client who is having panic attacks is told to practice relaxing his jaw muscle for three minutes per day. The counselor here is using.
b. a directive.
B. When used in the context of counseling, a directive is merely a suggestion. Choice �d� is a no-no in effective counseling. Parroting is a misuse of paraphrasing. In parroting, the counselor restates the client�s message back verbatim. The problem? Well, research shows parroting is for the birds! Clients who were the victims of parroting were bored and uncomfortable during the session, and sometimes felt angry toward the counselor.
288. _______ is a biofeedback device.
a. A bathroom scale
b. A DVD player
c. A digital clock
d. An analyst�s couch
A. Biofeedback does not change the client, it merely provides the client and helper with biological information. A scale and a mirror are two simple examples. In counseling, biofeedback devices are used primarily to teach clients to relax or to control autonomic (i.e., automatic) nervous system functions such as blood pressure, pulse rate, or hand temperature.
289. Johnny just loves M&Ms but doesn�t do his homework. The school counselor thus instructs Johnny�s mom to give the child a bag of M&Ms every night after he finishes his homework. This is an example of.
c. a Pavlovian strategy.
d. positive reinforcement.
D. The idea of any reinforcer (positive or negative) is to increase or strengthen the behavior. In this case something is added to the behavior so it would be �positive reinforcement.� At first a behavior modifier will reinforce every behavior. This is known as a continuous schedule of reinforcement. After a while the client will be given a schedule of reinforcement that does not reinforce every desirable action. This process is sometimes referred to as �thinning,� or an intermittent schedule of reinforcement.
290. Genuineness, or congruence, is really.
a. identical to concreteness.
b. selective empathy.
c. the counselor�s ability to be himself or herself.
d. an archaic Freudian notion.
C. The counselor who is congruent is real and authentic. This is a counselor who is not playing a role and is not putting up a facade.
291. Empathy is.
a. the ability to understand the client�s world and to communicate this to the client.
c. a and b.
d. the same as sympathy.
C. Robert Carkhuff is very well known for his creation of a 5-point scale intended to measure empathy, genuineness, concreteness, and respect. Many counselor educators consider empathy the most important factor in the counseling relationship. When using the Carkhuff scale, a rating of 1 is the poorest and a rating of 5 is the most desirable. A rating of 3 is considered the minimum level of acceptance. Choice �d� is incorrect. Empathy is the ability to experience the client�s subjective world. Sympathy is compassion.
292. When something is added following an operant, it is known as a _______, and when something is taken away it is called a _____.
a. negative reinforcer; positive reinforcer
b. positive reinforcer; negative reinforcer
c. extinction; shaping
d. classical conditioning; operant conditioning
B. If you�re getting sick of the word operant don�t blame me, it�s B. F. Skinner�s label. Any behavior which is not elicited by an obvious stimulus is an operant. Most behaviors are indeed operants. Skinner differentiated operants from �respondents.� A respondent is the consequence of a known stimulus. A dog salivating to food or the pupil in your eye enlarging when you walk into a dark room are examples of respondents. Now you know why Pavlovian conditioning has been called �respondent conditioning.�
293. After a dog is conditioned using the well-known experiment of Pavlov�s, a light is paired with the bell (the CS). In a short period of time the light alone would elicit the salivation. This is called.
b. token reinforcement.
d. higher order conditioning.
D. When a new stimulus is associated or �paired� with the CS and the new stimulus takes on the power of the CS, behaviorists refer to the phenomenon as �higher order conditioning.� In this case, the light (which is a neutral stimulus) has taken on the power of the bell. Choice �b� occurs when a token (something which represents a reinforcer) is given after a desirable behavior. The token�which often just looks like a plastic coin�can be exchanged for the primary (i.e., actual) reinforcer. And here�s a very helpful hint. Some exams refer to the items or activities which can be purchased with the tokens as �back-up reinforcers.�
294. A counselor decides to use biofeedback training to help a client raise the temperature in his right hand to ward off migraines. He would utilize.
a. a temperature trainer.
b. EMG feedback.
c. EEG feedback.
d. EKG feedback.
A. Again, here is a question that separates the men from the boys and the women from the girls. To answer it correctly, you�d need a lucky guess or a smattering of knowledge regarding physiological alphabet soup nomenclature. The Menninger Clinic in Kansas discovered that a very high percentage of individuals could ward off migraine headaches via raising the temperature in their hand. The technique is simply known as biofeedback �temperature training.� (Yes, that�s right, the most complex sounding choice is not always the correct choice!) In essence, a biofeedback temperature trainer is just an extremely precise, high-priced thermometer. As for the wrong answers, EMG means electromyogram and is used to measure muscle tension. A person who is tensing a given muscle group could have an EMG biofeedback device hooked directly to the problem area. The EEG or electroencephalogram is used to monitor brain waves. Counselors sometimes shy away from EEG feedback since other electrical devices nearby; such as an air conditioner or a fluorescent light can confound it. EEG training often focuses on the production of alpha waves, which is 8 to 12 cycles per second. An individual in an alpha state is awake but extremely relaxed. Lastly, EKG, or electrocardiogram, provides data on the heart.
295. A counselor discovered that a client became nervous and often experienced panic attacks when she would tense her frontalis muscle over her eyes. The counselor wanted direct muscle feedback and thus would rely on.
a. the Jacobson relaxation method.
b. GSR feedback.
c. EMG feedback.
d. a simple yet effective mood ring.
C. No reason for a complex memory device here folks. Why not remember that the �M� in EMG refers to muscle? Edmund Jacobson (Choice �a�) was a physiologist who developed a relaxation technique in which muscle groups are alternately tensed and relaxed until the whole body is in a state of relaxation. Due to simplicity and efficacy, the Jacobson Method rapidly became the darling of the behavior therapy movement. Choice �b� is the acronym for galvanic skin response, which�although it is a method of biofeedback�provides electrical skin resistance. The role of GSR and emotion is still a bit vague and thus it is not a very popular form of biofeedback treatment. As far as choice �d� is concerned, a tad of common sense should tell you that if a $1.29 mood ring was really effective, no one would ever spend in excess of 90 bucks an hour for biofeedback training!
296. According to the Premack principle, an efficient reinforcer is what the client himself or herself likes to do. Thus, in this procedure.
a. a lower-probability behavior is reinforced by a higher-probability behavior.
b. a higher-probability behavior is reinforced by a lower probability behavior.
c. a and b are paradoxically both effective.
d. none of the above.
A. For test purposes know the acronyms LPB (low-probability behavior) and HPB (high-probability behavior). The principle asserts that any HPB can be used as a reinforcer for any LPB.
297. A counselor who wanted to teach a client to produce alpha waves for relaxation would utilize.
a. EMG feedback.
b. GSR feedback.
c. EEG feedback.
d. EKG feedback.
C. EEG is used to secure feedback related to brain wave rhythms.
298. A reinforcement schedule gives the guidelines or rules for reinforcement. If a reinforcer is given every time a desired response occurs, it is known as.
a. an intermittent schedule.
b. an extinction schedule.
c. continuous reinforcement.
C. This is easy enough to remember. In continuous reinforcement you �continue� to provide the reinforcement each time the target behavior occurs. Continuous reinforcement is not necessarily the most practical or the most effective. Most human behaviors are reinforced effectively via the principle of intermittent reinforcement (choice �a�). In this format, the target behavior is reinforced only after the behavior manifests itself several times or for a given time interval. The exam you are taking may refer to intermittent reinforcement as �partial reinforcement,� or thinning, which literally indicates that the behavior is only reinforced a portion of the time.
299. The two basic classes of intermittent reinforcement schedules are the ________, based on the number of responses and the _______, based on the time elapsed.
a. ratio; interval
b. interval; ratio
c. continuous; ratio
d. interval; continuous
A. The two basic classes of intermittent or partial reinforcement are ratio and interval. You can remember that �interval� is based on time rather than the number of responses, since in this society we use the phrase �time interval.� (Note: The terms fixed and variable are often used with ratio and interval. �Fixed� implies that the reinforcement always takes place after a fixed time or number of responses, while �variable� implies that an average number of responses or times may be used.)
300. The most difficult intermittent schedule to extinguish is the.
a. fixed ratio, for example giving a child an M&M for each five math problems she completes.
b. fixed interval, which describes the way most agency counselors are paid (e.g., one time per month, although the amount of work may vary from month to month).
c. variable interval.
d. variable ratio
D. The memory device I use is VR, which reminds me of the vocational rehabilitation agency. I remember that this agency is better than an agency going by FI (fixed interval), etc. Perhaps you can think of a memory device based on something personal in your life. Just for the record, choice �b,� fixed interval or FI, is the most ineffective of the bunch.
301. Joseph Wolpe created systematic desensitization, a form of reciprocal inhibition based on counterconditioning. His strategy has been used in individual and group settings. When using his technique, the acronym SUDS stands for.
a. standard units of dysfunction.
b. a given hierarchy of dysfunction.
c. subjective units of distress scale.
d. standard units of dysfunction scale.
C. The subjective units of distress scale, or SUDS for short, is used to help create choice �b,� the anxiety hierarchy. In the SUDS, 0 is used to convey a totally relaxed state, while 100 is the most anxiety-producing state a client can imagine. The SUDS helps therapists keep the levels in the hierarchy equidistant from each other. Wolpe�s systematic desensitization is a popular treatment of choice for phobias and situations which produce high anxiety. The procedure, nonetheless, is not extremely effective for clients experiencing free-floating anxiety (i.e., a fear not connected to a given stimulus or situation). It is based on Pavlov�s classical conditioning paradigm. Special note is added for readers considering systematic desensitization for the reduction of test anxiety. Please be aware that it is not necessary or desirable to eliminate all anxiety in order to score well on your comprehensive exam. According to the �Yerkes-Dodson Law,� a moderate amount of arousal actually improves performance! Thus, mild anxiety often can be a plus, since it keeps arousal at a moderate level. (High arousal is more appropriate for simple tasks rather than complex ones, such as a licensing exam.) So why bring the matter up? First, we do so to show you that a small amount of test anxiety could actually be beneficial, and second, because most major exams for psychology majors will include a question on the �Yerkes-Dodson Law.�
302. A stimulus which accompanies a primary reinforcer takes on reinforcement properties of its own. This is known as.
a. a primary reinforcer.
b. covert processing.
c. secondary reinforcement.
C. What�s the most popular secondary reinforcer in the world? My guess: It is money. Money in and of itself isn�t reinforcing. Can you eat it? Can you enjoy a conversation with it? Have you ever taken a five dollar bill out on a date? Money gets its power for the reinforcers you can acquire from having money. When a stimulus accompanies a reinforcer it can literally acquire reinforcement properties of its own like an actual or so-called primary reinforcer. When this occurs it is termed as �secondary reinforcement.� The classical example is the mother who feeds her baby while talking. Plastic tokens or gold stars that can be exchanged for an actual reinforcer (say a piece of pie or a trip to the baseball game) are secondary reinforcers. Agencies that use tokens as a system of behavior modification are often dubbed as �token economies.� In a short period of time the talking becomes a secondary reinforcer and provides some degree of satisfaction for the child. Half of the battle to pass a test on behaviorism is to be familiar with the lingo, or what scholars call the �nomenclature� or naming process. Choice �b,� covert, is a term which means that the behavior is not observable. In behavior therapy then, a covert process is usually a client�s thought or a visualization. A �covert� behavior is roughly the opposite of an �overt� behavior, which is an observable behavior. Direct treatment of an overt behavior is called �in vivo treatment.�
303. A teenager in a residential facility has earned enough tokens to buy his favorite brand of candy bar. The candy bar is.
a. a negative reinforcer.
b. a back-up reinforcer.
c. an average stimulus.
d. a conditioned reinforcer.
B. A backup reinforcer is the best answer here since by definition a backup reinforcer is an item or an activity which can be purchased using tokens. A strict behaviorist would assert that choice �d� is incorrect because backup reinforcers are often unconditioned.
304. An alcoholic is given Antabuse, which is a drug that causes nausea when paired with alcohol. This technique is called.
a. systematic desensitization.
c. back-up reinforcement.
d. aversive conditioning.
D. The idea here is to pair the alcohol with an aversive, somewhat unpleasant stimulus to reduce the satisfaction of drinking it. Ethical dilemmas are common when using this technique. Some smoking clinics, for example, that used electric shock as a noxious aversive stimulus have been shut down. Imagine a client who comes to the clinic and experiences a heart attack from the treatment process! Some clients have died from Antabuse. Techniques like these are known as �in vivo aversive conditioning� since they are not performed in the imagination.
305. A counselor decides to treat a client�s phobia of flying utilizing Wolpe�s technique of systematic desensitization. The first step in the anxiety hierarchy items would be.
a. imagining that she is calling the airlines for reservations.
b. imagining that she is boarding the plane.
c. imagining a flight in an airplane.
d. an actual flight in an airplane.
A. In systematic desensitization the order of the hierarchy is from least anxiety-arousing to the most anxiety-evoking items. Behaviorists note that the ideal hierarchy has 10 to 15 evenly spaced items. Therefore, in everyday plain English, to a person who has a fear of flying, imagining a phone call to secure reservations is certainly less anxiety-producing than imagining a flight, boarding a plane, or soaring through the sky in a supersonic jet airplane.
306. A counselor utilizes role-playing combined with a hierarchy of situations in which the client is ordinarily nonassertive. Assertiveness trainers refer to this as.
a. conscious rehearsal.
b. behavioral rehearsal.
c. fixed role therapy.
d. a and b.
B. The counselor in this case might also switch roles and model assertive behavior for the client. Choice �c,� fixed role therapy, refers to the treatment model created by psychologist George A. Kelly. In this approach the client is given a sketch of a person or a fixed role. He or she is instructed to read the script at least three times a day and to act, think, and verbalize like the person in the script. Kelly�s approach is quite systematic and has been called the �psychology of personal constructs� after his work of the same name.
307. Systematic desensitization consists of these orderly steps.
a. autogenic training, desensitization in the imagination, and construction of the hierarchy.
b. relaxation training, construction of anxiety hierarchy, in vivo desensitization, and desensitization in imagination.
c. relaxation training, desensitization in imagination, and construction of hierarchy.
d. relaxation training, construction of anxiety hierarchy, desensitization in imagination, and in vivo desensitization.
D. Several important points need to be mentioned here. The first is that your exam may refer to desensitization in imagination as �interposition.� (Interposition is technically a perceptual term which implies that one item conceals or covers another. Thus, in this case, the relaxation obscures the anxiety of the imagined scene in the hierarchy.) The second point is that it is best if hierarchy items are evenly spaced using the SUDS. If items are too far apart, moving up the hierarchy could prove nearly impossible. On the other hand, if items are spaced too close together, then the helping process will be unusually slow, and behaviorists place a premium on rapid, efficacious treatment. Lastly, the �in vivo� stage implies that the client will actually expose himself or herself to the scary situations in the hierarchy. Experts believe that �in vivo� experiences should not begin until the client has been desensitized to 75% of the hierarchy items.
308. _______ is behavioral sex therapy.
a. classical vegotherapy
b. orgone box therapy
c. conditioned reflex therapy
d. sensate focus
- D. Sensate focus is a form of behavioral sex therapy developed by William H. Masters and Virginia Johnson of St. Louis, Missouri.
- Like Joseph Wolpe�s systematic desensitization, this approach relies on counterconditioning. A couple is told to engage in touching and caressing (to lower anxiety levels) on a graduated basis until intercourse is possible. Choices �a� and �b� illuminate the work of Wilhelm Reich, who felt that repeated sexual gratification was necessary for the cure of emotional maladies. Reich�s orgone box was a device the client would sit in to increase orgone life energy. Ultimately the FDA outlawed the orgone boxes and Reich died in jail. Today scholars are still arguing whether Reich was a madman or a genius. Conditioned reflex therapy (choice �c�), created by Andrew Salter, set the stage for modern assertiveness training. Some call Salter, who hated the psychoanalytic model, the father of behavior therapy.
309. A counselor has an obese client imagine that he is terribly sick after eating a high-caloric, high-fat meal. The client then imagines a pleasant scene in which his eating is desirable. This technique is called.
a. behavioral rehearsal.
b. in vivo sensitization.
c. covert sensitization.
d. in vivo desensitization.
C. Even if you did not know what any of the choices meant you could still get the question correct! Yes really! You could simply remember that the only answer that mentions the imagination is the one with the word covert. This would constitute an educated guess. Keep in mind when answering behavior therapy questions that the word desensitization means to make one less sensitive while the word sensitization implies that one is made more sensitive to a stimulus. A counselor who tells an alcoholic to imagine that a drink nauseates him would be relying on �covert sensitization.� The client is then instructed to imagine a relief scene such as an enjoyable feeling when the alcohol is removed and replaced with a glass of water. Giving a client Antabuse (mentioned in earlier questions) could be used for �in vivo sensitization.�
310. One distinction between flooding (also known as �deliberate exposure with response prevention� in recent literature) and implosive therapy is that.
a. implosive therapy is always conducted in the imagination.
b. flooding is always conducted in the imagination.
c. flooding is always safer.
d. implosive therapy is physically more dangerous.
A. Here�s a superb memory device: implosive therapy begins with an �i� and so does the word imagination. Implosive therapy (the brainchild of T. G. Stampfl) is always conducted using the imagination and sometimes relies on psychoanalytic symbolism. Flooding, which is similar, usually occurs when the client is genuinely exposed to the feared stimulus. Flooding is also called �deliberate exposure with response prevention.� Here is how flooding works. Take a man who is afraid of snakes because he feels they will bite him. Using flooding, the client would be exposed to the snake for nearly an hour without the dreaded snake bite. Research has demonstrated that in vivo procedures like flooding are extremely effective in cases of agoraphobia (a fear of open places) and obsessive-compulsive disorders (OCD). Flooding and implosive therapy do not necessarily utilize relaxation nor do they introduce the fearful stimuli gradually. Both techniques assume that avoiding the fear serves to intensify it and that anticipation of catastrophe (e.g., physical pain or loss of control) initially caused the symptom in question. Caution: flooding and implosive therapy do not work in every case. Cases have been cited in which the prolonged exposure to the feared stimuli actually tended to exacerbate the anxiety!
311. Behavior therapists often shy away from punishment because.
a. ACA ethics forbid the use of this technique.
b. NBCC ethics prohibit the use of operant conditioning.
c. extinction works more quickly.
d. the effects of punishment are usually temporary and it teaches aggression.
D. The great behavior modifier B. F. Skinner did not believe punishment was very effective. He felt that after the punishment was administered the behavior would manifest itself once again. Positive measures are seen as more effective than punishment. If punishment is used, remember that it does not cause the person (or other animal for that matter) to unlearn the behavior, and it should be used along with positive reinforcing measures.
312. A neophyte counselor discovers that her clients invariably give yes and no answers to her questions. The problem is most likely that.
a. the counselor is sympathetic rather than empathetic.
b. the counselor is utilizing too many closed-ended questions.
c. the counselor�s timing is poor in terms of interpretation.
d. she is summarizing too early in the counseling process.
B. A closed-ended question can be answered with �yes� or �no.� If a counselor asks, �Is your depression lifting?� the client can easily respond with a �yes� or a �no.� Counselors prefer open-ended questions, which produce more information. If the aforementioned counselor wanted to rephrase the question in an open-ended manner, she could ask, �Can you tell me about the things in your life you find so depressing?�
313. A client remarks that he was just dumped by his girl friend. The counselor responds, �Oh, you poor dear. It must be terrible! How can you go on living?� This is an example of.
b. accurate empathy.
D. This is sympathy, not to mention some of the most horrendous therapy one could imagine! Sympathy often implies pity, while accurate empathy is the ability to experience another person�s subjective experience. Just for the record EMDR, choice �a,� stands for Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing, a technique created by Francine Shapiro to deal with traumatic memories. In the spring of 1987 Shapiro�then a graduate psychology student�accidentally noticed that disturbing memories began to abate when she was moving her eyes back and forth while strolling through the park. She then tested her theory on other clients having them follow her finger to induce the eye movements. Prior to Wolpe�s death he noted that this model could be beneficial. However, as of this date, it is not extremely popular with most therapists.
314. A neophyte counselor is afraid he will say the wrong thing. He thus keeps repeating the client�s statements verbatim when he responds. This is known as.
a. desirable attending behavior.
b. parroting and is not recommended.
c. level 3 on the empathy scale.
d. paradoxical intention.
B. In the movie Final Analysis Richard Gere takes a young woman to dinner and explains how easy it is to be a therapist. You simply listen to the client, he basically explains to his dinner companion, and then you repeat their final words. Sorry, Rich, but the tinsel town version could be a tad oversimplified. The client doesn�t really need to pay big bucks for this type of help; parroting can be accomplished simply by talking into a digital recorder. If you parrot a client, the client�s response may be something like, �Yes, I just said that!� Parroting can cause the client to feel angry and uneasy. In the counseling profession, the term attending (choice �a�) refers to behaviors on the part of the counselor which indicate that he or she is truly engaged in active listening skills. Examples would be good eye contact or the old standby �umhum.� Choice �c� is another must-know concept for nearly any major counseling test. Robert R. Carkhuff suggests a �scale for measurement� in regard to �empathic understanding in interpersonal processes.� In a nutshell it reads like this: Level 1� Not attending or detracting significantly from the client�s verbal and behavioral expressions. Level 2�Subtracts noticeable affect from the communication. Level 3�Feelings expressed by the client are basically interchangeable with the client�s meaning and affect. Level 4�Counselor adds noticeably to the client s affect. Level 5�Counselor adds significantly to the client�s feeling, meaning even in the client�s deepest moments. If all of this sounds like a foreign language because you�ve never heard it before, you can now remove the cotton you placed in your ears during your graduate days, or better still, pick up a copy of Carkhuff s 1969 book Helping and Human Relations.
315. Viktor Frankl is the Father of logotherapy, which is based on existentialism. Logotherapy means.
a. healing through meaning.
b. healing through the unconscious.
c. logic cures.
d. all of the above.
A. Frankl also has been thought of as the Father of paradoxical intention. Paradoxical intention is implemented by advising the client to purposely exaggerate a dysfunctional behavior in the imagination. You might find it a bit paradoxical (no pun intended) that a technique which comes from logotherapy�which is clearly a brand of helping based on existential philosophy�is now generally categorized as a behavioristic technique. Recently, counselors have gone beyond the paradoxical imagination and actually prescribe that the client engage in the dysfunctional behavior. (For example, a person with OCD or obsessive-compulsive disorder might be instructed to wash his or her hands 51 times per day instead of the usual 45 times.)
316. All of these philosophers are existentialists except.
a. Plato and Epictetus.
b. Sartre, Buber, Binswanger, and Boss.
c. Kierkegaard, Nietzsche, and Tillich.
d. Heidegger, Dostoevsky, and Jaspers.
A. Existentialism is considered a humanistic form of helping in which the counselor helps the client discover meaning in his or her life by doing a deed (e.g., an accomplishment), experiencing a value (e.g., love), or suffering (e.g., Frankl discovered that even being held hostage in a concentration camp could not take away his dignity). Existential counseling rejects analysis and behaviorism for being deterministic and reductionistic. The existential viewpoint developed as a reaction to the analytic and behavioral schools and stresses growth and self-actualization. Frankl stressed that individuals have choices in their lives and one cannot blame others or childhood circumstances for a lack of fulfillment. The name Epictetus (in choice �a�) is often quoted in regard to rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT), created by New York clinical psychologist Albert Ellis. In the first century A.D., the Stoic philosopher Epictetus said, �Men are disturbed not by things, but of the view which they take of them.� This statement captures the major premise of REBT. Important exam hint: REBT was formerly known as rational-emotive therapy (RET). The exam you are taking may not be updated and thus could indeed still be calling this approach RET.
317. Although behavior therapy purports to be highly scientific, it has been criticized on the grounds that it is reductionistic, simplistic, and does not deal with underlying causes. Existential therapy, on the other hand, has been criticized for.
a. being too short-term.
b. overemphasizing techniques.
c. ignoring group strategies.
d. being too vague regarding techniques and procedures.
D. Existential counseling is more of a philosophy of helping than a grab bag of specific intervention strategies. Critics charge that it is not a systematic approach to treatment. The behaviorists assert that it is abstract and not scientific. The approach rejects traditional diagnosis and assessment procedures.
318. Existentialists focus primarily on.
a. the teenage years.
b. the client�s perception in the here-and-now.
c. childhood traumas.
d. uplifting childhood memories.
B. The focus is on what the person can ultimately become. The present and even the future are emphasized. The key to change is seen as self-determination.
319. Existential counselors as well as Rogerian Person-Centered counselors adhere to what Buber called the I-Thou relationship, which asserts that.
a. the counselor is seen as a highly trained expert with answers.
b. the relationship is vertical.
c. the relationship is horizontal.
d. empathy is not necessary.
C. A horizontal relationship (e.g., I-Thou) assumes equality between persons. In a vertical relationship the counselor is viewed as an expert. Choice �d� is incorrect, as the existentialists stress nonthreatening empathy as necessary for successful therapy.
320. Frankl is an existentialist. So are.
a. Ellis and Perls.
b. Perls and Stampfl.
c. Yalom and May.
d. Janov and Beck.
C. Rollo May introduced existential therapy in the United States. Irvin Yalom, another existentialist, is noted for his work in group therapy. In his book, Love�s Executioner, he reveals his approach to treatment with some of his most intriguing clients. Other names that appear in the answer choices to this question include: Fritz Perls, the Father of gestalt therapy; Albert Ellis, who pioneered REBT; Arthur Janov, noted for his primal scream therapy; and Aaron T. Beck, whose cognitive therapy resembles REBT; if the name Stampfl doesn�t ring a bell, review question 310.
321. Existentialists speak of three worlds, the Umwelt or the _______ world, the Mitwelt or the _______ world, and the Eigenwelt or the _______ world.
a. unconscious; preconscious; conscious
b. id; ego; superego
c. self-identity; relationship; physical
d. physical; relationship; identity
D. Try this if you are searching for a memory device. Mitwelt has the prefix �mi,� which sounds like �my� as in �my wife� or �my brother� or �my son�; the �my� shows possessiveness indicative of a �relationship.� Eigenwelt sounds suspiciously like the word identity. By a process of elimination you would not need a memory device for the remaining term Umwelt (the physical and biological system).
322. Frankl�s experience in Nazi concentration camps taught him.
a. the value of S-R psychological paradigms.
b. that you can�t control the environment, but you can control your response.
c. that blaming others can be truly therapeutic.
d. how to blame the environment for our difficulties.
B. From 1942 to 1945 Frankl was a prisoner in German concentration camps, including Auschwitz and Dachau. Several of his relatives died in the camps. Frankl felt, nonetheless, that suffering would be transformed into achievement and creativity.
323. Existential counselors emphasize the clients�.
a. free choice, decision, and will.
c. slips of tongue.
d. latent dream symbolism.
A. Logotherapists often use the term noogenic neurosis, which is the frustration of the will to meaning. The counselor assists the client to find meaning in life so the client can write his or her own life story by making meaningful choices. When exploring the meaning of life some anxiety is normal. Moreover, death is not seen as an evil concept but rather an entity which gives meaning to the process of life.
324. Existential theorists speak of phenomenology, which refers to the client�s internal personal experience of events, and ontology, which is.
a. mental visualization for the treatment of cancer.
b. the impact of cancer on emotions.
c. a cancerous growth in the brain.
d. the philosophy of being and existing.
D. The metaphysical study of life experience is called ontology. Please do not confuse this with �oncology� (hinted at in choice �c�), which is the medical study of tumors.
325. Viktor Frankl is to logotherapy as William Glasser is to.
a. rational therapy.
b. reality therapy.
c. rational-emotive imagery.
B. Frankl is the father of logotherapy; Glasser is the Father of reality therapy. Rational imagery, choice �c,� is a technique used by rational-emotive behavior therapists in which the client is to imagine that he or she is in a situation which has traditionally caused emotional disturbance. The client then imagines changing the feelings via rational, logical, scientific thought. Choice �d� refers to rational behavior therapy (some exams call it rational self-counseling), created by psychiatrist Maxie C. Maultsby, Jr., who studied with Albert Ellis. This approach relies on REBT; however, the client performs a written self-analysis. Maultsby claims the technique is well-suited to problems of substance abuse, and it is highly recommended as a method of multicultural counseling.
326. Reality therapy has incorporated.
a. control theory, later referred to as choice theory.
b. rational imagery.
c. TA principles.
A. Reality therapy exam questions often use the abbreviation BCP, which means that perception controls our behavior. Choice theory asserts than the only person whose behavior we can control is our own. According to control/choice theory, our behavior is our best attempt to control our world to satisfy our wants and needs. The final choice, rolfing, is not a traditional form of talk therapy but rather a type of deep muscle massage which is assumed to have an impact on the person�s emotional state. Hint: Exams should be using the new term choice theory. Nevertheless, some might still be using the old term control theory.
327. All of these statements regarding reality therapy are true except.
a. the client�s childhood is explored.
b. excuses are not accepted.
c. the unconscious is avoided.
d. therapy is concerned primarily with the here-and-now.
A. According to choice theory the person�s childhood may have contributed to the problem. However, the past is never really the problem. The client�s childhood is usually not explored, and if the client brings it up, the reality therapist will often try to emphasize childhood successes, feeling that an analysis of the difficulties could actually reinforce maladaptive patterns. Reality therapy is a present moment form of counseling which focuses on the here-and-now. According to a strict behaviorist, the environment controls behavior. According to Glasser, the individual controls the environment.
328. A counselor who repeats what a client has stated in the counselor�s own words is using.
C. Communications experts agree that paraphrasing has taken place when a client�s thoughts and feelings are restated in the counselor�s own words. Contracting (choice �a�) with a client in a verbal or written manner is a technique favored by behavior therapists. In reality therapy, a plan is created to help the client master his or her target behaviors.
329. Most experts would agree that _______ is most threatening for clients as well as counselors.
a. paraphrasing by the counselor
b. open-ended questions
c. role rehearsal
D. Veteran counselors believe that some of the most valuable verbalizations occur after a period of silence. Silence gives the client time to assimilate the counseling process and is helpful in nondirective therapies because it coaxes the client to direct the session.
330. When the past is discussed in reality therapy, the focus is on.
b. irrational internal verbalizations.
c. transference issues.
d. successful behaviors.
D. Glasser believes that dwelling on past failures can reinforce a negative self-concept, or what reality therapists have termed the �failure identity.�
331. Glasser�s position on mental illness is that.
a. it is best explained by DSM guidelines.
b. diagnostic labels give clients permission to act sick or irresponsible.
c. it is best explained by ICD categories.
d. it is the result of a deep internal conflict.
B. Reality therapy has little use for the formal diagnostic process, or what is known in clinical circles as �nosology.� The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of the American Psychiatric Association (DSM) and the International Classification of Disease (ICD) provide the guidelines for diagnosis of clients. Glasser rejected this traditional medical model of disease.
332. The relationship that the therapist has with the client in reality therapy is.
a. detached but very empathic.
b. like that of a warm caring mother.
c. like that of a friend who asks what is wrong.
d. friendly, nevertheless punishment is used when it is appropriate.
C. Unlike the detached psychoanalyst, the reality therapist literally makes friends with the client. This is the first of eight steps utilized in this model. Step 7 is refusing to use punishment, making choice �d� a no go here.
333. Glasser�s theory was popularized in educational circles after he wrote.
a. Choice Theory.
b. The Interpretation of Dreams.
c. Positive Addiction.
d. Schools Without Failure.
D. Glasser also authored choices �a� and �c� as well as his original 1965 classic, Reality Therapy, and an update of the theory in his 2000 book Reality Therapy in Action. Choice �b� has nothing to do with reality therapy but generally is quoted as Freud�s most influential work, often dubbed as �the Bible of Psychoanalysis.�
334. Glasser suggested eight steps in the reality therapy process. The final step asserts.
a. that the client and counselor be persistent and never give up.
b. that some problems will not respond to any known plan of action.
c. that counselors should contract with the client for no more than five counseling sessions.
d. that a client who does not respond to the first seven steps is most likely a borderline personality.
A. Even when the client wants to give up, the therapist does not. Glasser�s theory has been criticized on the basis that it is too simplistic. Unlike most of the other schools of thought discussed in this guide, Reality therapy has not been included in some texts and dictionaries of psychology.
335. According to Glasser, a positive addiction might be.
c. playing the office football pool.
d. playing professional football.
A. Negative addictions like alcoholism and drug abuse are often mentioned in mental health literature. Glasser stressed that people can be addicted to positive behaviors and this helps to instill self-confidence. A positive addiction must be a noncompetitive activity which can be performed alone for about one hour each day. Moreover, the person can see that performing the activity will lead to personal improvement. Lastly, the person needs to be capable of performing the activity without becoming self-critical.
336. When a counselor reviews what has transpired in past counseling sessions he or she is using.
C. When a counselor summarizes, he or she is bringing together a number of ideas. This summarization also could deal strictly with the material in a single session of counseling. Summarization constitutes a �synthesis� regarding the general tone or feeling of the helping process. Ivey recommends summarization at two or three points during each session and at the close of the session. Summarization is really the ability to condense the material to capture the essence of the therapeutic exchange.
337. Glasser felt the responsible person will have a _______ identity.
B. The individual who possesses a success identity feels worthy and significant to others. Identity is a person�s most important psychological need. A person who is irresponsible, and thus frustrated in an attempt to feel loved and worthwhile, will develop a failure identity and a faulty perception of reality. The client is encouraged to assume responsibility for his or her own happiness (i.e., by learning to fulfill personal needs without depriving others of their need fulfillment).
338. William Glasser, M.D., is to reality therapy as Albert Ellis, Ph.D., is to.
a. Rational-emotive behavior therapy (REBT).
b. Transactional analysis (TA).
c. Assertiveness training (AT).
d. Gestalt therapy.
A. Analytically trained New York clinical psychologist Ellis is the Father of REBT, which assumes that the client�s emotional disturbance is the result of irrational thoughts and ideas. The cure is a high dose of rational thinking.
339. In Albert Ellis�s rational-emotive behavior therapy, the client is taught to change cognitions, also known as.
b. internal verbalizations.
d. a and b.
D. The credo here is a simple one: Talk sense to yourself. When you change your thinking you can change your life.
340. The philosopher most closely related to REBT would be.
b. Epictetus, a stoic philosopher who suggested we feel the way we think.
B. Epictetus said: �People are disturbed not by things, but by the views they take of them.� In addition to Epictetus, Ellis also mentioned Alfred Korzybski, the founder of general semantics, and Karen Horney, who first recognized the �tyranny of the shoulds� when reflecting on the creation of Ellis�s REBT theory. Ellis was quick to quote a statement from Hamlet: �There�s nothing either good or bad but thinking makes it so.� Buber and Jaspers are associated with existential therapy, while Locke�s work closely resembled what later came to be known as behaviorism.
341. REBT suggests the ABC theory of personality in which A is the _______, B is the _______, and C is the _______.
a. affect; belief; control
b. activating event; belief system; emotional consequence
c. affect; behavior; control
d. authenticity; belief; emotional consequence
B. What constitutes an irrational and unhealthy �belief system?� Ex-analyst Albert Ellis (please emphasize ex inasmuch as Ellis felt that psychoanalysis was slow and often very ineffective) gave these examples of irrational thinking: it is absolutely necessary to be loved or approved of by every significant person in your life; you must be thoroughly competent in all areas of your life to consider yourself worthwhile; some people are bad and wicked and thus should be punished for their actions; it is awful or catastrophic when things are not the way you want them to be; unhappiness is caused externally by other things and people; an individual�s past determines his or her happiness; it is terrible if a perfect solution to every problem cannot be found; and, you need someone stronger than yourself to lean on.
342. The ABC theory of personality postulates that the intervention that occurs at D, _______ leads to E, _______.
a. the dogmatic attitude; effective behavior
b. direct living; evaluation
c. disputing the irrational behavior at B; a new emotional consequence
d. the emotional disease; a new emotional consequence
C. Some of the literature by Ellis refers to E as �an effective new philosophy of life.� The theory, then, is that you create your own present emotional and behavioral difficulties. And talk about optimistic: Ellis believes that no matter how bad life seems, you always�that�s right, always�have the power to ameliorate intense feelings of despair, anxiety, and hostility.
343. A counselor instructs her client to read A Guide to Rational Living by Albert Ellis and Robert Harper. This is an example of.
A. Bibliotherapy is the use of books or writings pertaining to self-improvement. A Guide to Rational Living, affectionately known as �the Guide�, is Ellis�s best known work. The title of his 1988 work, How to Stubbornly Refuse to Make Yourself Miserable about Anything�Yes, Anything! captures the essence of his theory. To state that Ellis is a prolific writer would be to put it mildly. He has published over 500 papers and written about 50 books! Choice �c� uses the term musturbation, coined by Ellis. Musturbation occurs when a client uses too many shoulds, oughts, and musts in his or her thinking. Some exams may refer to this as �absolutist thinking.�
344. Shoulds and oughts are _______ according to Ellis.
A. When a preference becomes a dogmatic must or a should, then you can bet that the client is in for a case of emotional disturbance. Choice �c� is a word commonly used in REBT. Awfulizing or catastrophizing is the act of telling yourself how difficult, terrible, and horrendous a given situation really is. And by the way, if you marked choice �b� you better sign up for a sex ed course. Ellis, also known for his work in sexology, humorously insists that musturbation is more pernicious than masturbation.
345. A client says, �I lost my job and it�s the most terrible thing in the world.� This client is engaging in.
a. rational self-talk.
b. self-induced empathy.
c. cognitive restructuring.
d. awfulizing and terriblizing, also known as catastrophizing.
D. Choice �d� would occur at point B, the belief system, in the ABC model of personality. Choice �c,� cognitive restructuring, usually refers to Donald Meichenbaum�s approach, which is similar to REBT. Restructuring takes place when the client begins thinking in a healthy new way using different internal dialogue. Choice �a� is the most inappropriate answer since Ellis considers awfulizing or terriblizing �irrational� unhealthy behavior.
346. Bibliotherapy is a form of.
a. psychodynamic intervention.
B. Yes, homework. I�m sure the word rings a bell if you think back to graduate school. In the context of counseling, homework takes place whenever the counselor gives the client an assignment which is to be done outside the counseling session. Bibliotherapy is a prime example. Therapies that basically �teach� the client (e.g., REBT) are known as �didactic� models of treatment.
347. Ellis feels that _______ is at the core of emotional disturbance.
a. a trauma before age 5
b. a current traumatic activating event
c. irrational thinking at point B
d. repression of key feelings
C. Choice �a� is really somewhat humorous in light of the fact that Ellis noted that at a very early age he decided his mother wasn�t eligible for any prizes of mental health. While a more analytically inclined therapist might have viewed Ellis�s childhood as traumatic, Ellis merely told himself that his mother was a fallible human being and he did not have to be disturbed by her behavior. Ellis believes you can be happy even if you are the survivor of numerous childhood traumas. For test purposes please keep in mind that Ellis, Glasser, and the behaviorists put little stock in the notion of transference.
348. Therapeutic cognitive restructuring really refers to.
a. refuting irrational ideas and replacing them with rational ones.
b. keeping a journal of irrational thoughts.
c. allowing the client to purge feelings.
d. uncovering relevant unconscious material.
A. This is the process of changing your thoughts ergo your feelings via self-talk, or what Ellis often called internal verbalizations. REBT clients often receive emotional control cards from their therapist that delineate irrational ideas and what one can think rationally to combat these unhealthy thoughts. The act of changing the client�s mode of thinking is sometimes called cognitive disputation. REBT therapists also use imaginal disputation (i.e., imagery to help with the process) and urge clients to behave in different patterns (i.e., behavioral disputation).
349. Ellis most likely would not be impressed with a behaviorist�s new animal study related to the psychotherapeutic process since.
a. he does not believe in the scientific method.
b. the study would not take transference into account.
c. Ellis thoroughly dislikes hypothesis testing.
d. only man thinks in declarations (internal sentences that can cause or ward off emotional discord).
D. As far as choice �a� is concerned it is incorrect inasmuch as Ellis firmly believed that his theory promotes scientific thinking, and lower animals may be incapable of such thought. Ellis described what he called the ABC theory of personality. At point A, there is an activating event; at point B, the person�s belief system; and at point C, the emotional consequence. According to Ellis, most therapies can be faulted for not emphasizing irrational beliefs at point B. Such theories wrongly assert that A causes C.
350. Internal verbalizations are to REBT as _______ are to Glasser�s Choice Theory.
b. pictures in your mind
c. lack of punishment
d. a therapeutic plan
B. A matter of semantics? Perhaps. Glasser insists that behavior is internally motivated and we choose our actions.
351. Albert Ellis is to REBT as Maxie C. Maultsby, Jr., is to
d. S-R research.
A. Maultsby is the Father of rational-behavior therapy, which is similar to REBT but emphasizes a written self-analysis. Maultsby�s technique is said to work well for multicultural counseling and group therapy. In group work the counselor has a didactic or a teaching role in which participants are taught to apply the techniques to their own lives. The leader encourages equal group participation for all members and gives reading assignments (i.e., bibliotherapy) between the sessions. All in all, the leader is highly directive and uses RBT as a model for self-help. Like REBT, RBT utilizes rational-emotive imagery on a regular basis. Choice �d� describes an old abbreviation of stimulus-response behavioral psychology. REBT and RBT are not fond of this model because it asserts that a stimulus (or what Ellis has basically termed an activating event at point A) causes a response (or what Ellis calls the consequence at point C). The S-R model, according to Ellis, is guilty of leaving out B, the client�s belief system. Thus, although Ellis might concede that the S-R paradigm explains rat behavior, it is inadequate when applied to human beings. The S-R model also has been called the �applied behavior analysis� or �radical behaviorism� by B. F. Skinner. Radical behaviorism makes the assumption that the environment maintains and supports behavior and that only overt behaviors are the subject of treatment. The treatment? You guessed it�Skinnerian operant conditioning, of course.
352. Aaron T. Beck, an ex-psychoanalytic therapist who created the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI), developed an approach known as cognitive therapy. Although cognitive therapy is similar to REBT, Beck insisted that.
a. dysfunctional ideas are too absolute and broad though not necessarily irrational.
b. the Oedipus complex is central to the treatment process. c. cognitive therapy is contraindicated in cases of phobia.
d. cognitive therapy is contraindicated in cases of anxiety.
A. Choices �c� and �d� are incorrect. Beck�s contention was that depression is the result of a cognitive triad of negative beliefs regarding oneself, one�s future, and one�s experience. Beck�s model has indeed been shown to be applicable in cases of phobia and anxiety. Since Beck disliked the term irrational ideas, he emphasized �rules� or �formulas of living� which cause unhappiness, and he suggested new rules which the client can test. His daughter Judy Beck is now helping to popularize this approach. Note: Some exams use the word metacognition to describe an individual�s tendency to be aware of his or her own cognitions or cognitive abilities.
353. The cognitive therapist most closely associated with the concept of stress inoculation is.
a. Albert Ellis.
b. Donald Meichenbaum.
c. Maxie C. Maultsby, Jr.
d. Aaron T. Beck.
B. Meichenbaum�s approach is called �Self-Instructional Therapy.� Implementation of his so-called stress-inoculation technique has three basic phases. First the client is involved in an �educational phase.� Here the client is taught to monitor the impact of inner dialogue on behavior. Next clients are taught to rehearse new self-talk. This is the �rehearsal phase.� Finally, the �application phase� is where new inner dialogue is attempted during actual stress-producing situations. Counselor educators often classify approaches which dwell on cognition, while emphasizing behavioral strategies for change (e.g., REBT, RBT, self-instructional therapy) as �cognitive-behavioral approaches� to helping.
354. Eric Berne created transactional analysis (TA). The model was popularized via his books Games People Play and What Do You Say After You Say Hello? TA therapists are most likely to incorporate _______ in the treatment process.
a. Meichenbaum�s self-instructional therapy
b. reality therapy
c. gestalt therapy
C. Choice �c,� the correct answer, may seem to make about as much sense as trying to mix water and oil since TA, from a pure standpoint of classification, is a cognitive approach, while gestalt is experiential. The well-known counselor educator Gerald Corey suggested that this marriage made in therapeutic heaven was actually positive inasmuch as gestalt therapy emphasized the affective exploration that was missing from TA, which was too intellectual. In other words, one emphasized what was missing in the other.
355. Berne suggested three ego states: the Parent, the Adult, and the Child (P-A-C). The Parent ego state is composed of values internalized from significant others in childhood. TA therapists speak of two functions in the Parent ego state, the _______.
a. Nurturing Parent and the Critical Parent
b. Critical Parent and the Repressed Parent
c. Reactive Parent and the Active Parent
d. Passive Parent and the Active Parent
A. The Parent ego state is the synthesis of the messages received from parental figures and significant others, incorporated into the personality. Also known as the �exteropsyche,� it bears a very strong resemblance to Freud�s superego. When a counselor analyzes out of which ego state a client is primarily operating, it is known as �structural analysis.� When a counselor analyzes an ego state within an ego state (e.g., the Critical Parent or the Nurturing parent) it is known as �second order structural analysis.� A statement like, �Get some rest honey, you�ve been studying the NCE material for a long time and you deserve the rest,� is an example of the Nurturing Parent. The Nurturing parent is sympathetic, caring, and protective. The critical parent, on the other hand, might remark, �You should get off your duff and study that NCE material; how in the heck do you plan on passing?� The Critical Parent is the master of the shoulds, oughts, and musts. On occasion, you will see the parent broken down into another part, the Prejudicial Parent. The Prejudicial Parent is opinionated with biases not based on fact. �Women should always wear dresses to work,� or �a real man enlists in the marines,� would be examples. The death or absence of a parent can result in what TA counselors call an �Incomplete Parent state.�
356. The Adult ego state.
a. contains the �shoulds� and �oughts.�
b. is the seat of feelings.
c. is like Freud�s superego.
d. processes facts and does not focus on feelings.
D. The Adult corresponds to Freud�s ego. It is also known as the �neopsyche.� It is rational, logical, and does not focus on feelings. Choices �a� and �c� describe the Parent ego state.
357. The Child ego state is like the little kid within. The child may manifest itself as.
a. the Natural Child.
b. the Adapted Child.
c. the Little Professor.
d. all of the above.
D. The Child state, sometimes called the �archaeopsyche,� resembles Freud�s id. The Natural Child is what the person would be naturally: spontaneous, impulsive, and untrained. The little professor is creative and intuitive. The Little Professor acts on hunches, often without the necessary information. The adapted child learns how to comply to avoid a parental slap on the hand. Messages we receive from parents to form the ego states are called �injunctions� and cause us to make certain early life decisions. Hence, if an early message was, �I wish you would have never been born,� then the decision might be, �If my life gets very stressful, I�ll just kill myself.� Hint: Describing the client using the P-A-C conceptualization is known as �structural analysis.�
358. TA is a cognitive model of therapy which asserts that healthy communication transactions.
a. occur where vectors of communication run parallel.
b. are known as crossed transactions.
c. are always between the Child and Adult ego states.
d. are always empathic.
A. Choice �a� is a �complementary� transaction in which you get an appropriate, predicted response. The �crossed transaction� (note choice �b�) would occur when vectors from a message sent and a message received do not run parallel. (For example, I send a message from my Adult to your Adult and you respond from your Adult to my Child.) Crossed transactions result in a deadlock of communication or a host of hurtful feelings. This principle probably won�t be difficult to remember. We generally say it is not a good thing when individuals work at �cross� purposes. In TA a �crossed transaction� is not conducive to healthy communication. Note: See �Graphical Representations� (chapter 13). TA therapists often use diagrams or pictorial representations in the treatment process.
359. TA life positions were made famous by Tom Harris�s book, I�m OK�You�re OK. The title of the book illuminates a healthy life position. The life position tells the counselor how a person goes about receiving strokes or recognition. A person categorized by the position �I�m OK�You�re Not OK�.
a. is generally self-abusive.
b. blames others for misery.
c. generally engages in self-mutilation.
d. is generally suicidal.
B. Tom Harris suggested four basic life positions. Choices �a,� �c,� and �d� are indicative of the �I�m Not OK�You�re OK� position. A self-abusive person is sometimes known as a �masochistic personality� in the literature. In an extreme case this position would lead the person to suicide. According to Harris the �I�m OK� You�re OK� orientation is what successful winners choose. The �I�m OK�You�re Not OK� is the position taken by adolescent delinquents and adult criminals. Such persons feel victimized and are often paranoid. In extreme cases this person may see homicidal behavior as an acceptable solution to life�s problems. The �I�m Not OK�You�re Not OK� is the most pessimistic position. This position could result in schizoid behavior and, in a worst case scenario, the tendency to kill someone else and then take one�s own life.
360. A man yells at his wife and then slaps her, stating that she does nothing around the house. The woman begins crying and he puts his arm around her to comfort her. He then begins crying and says that he doesn�t know how he can continue doing all the housework because it is too difficult. A TA therapist who analyzes the situation using Karpman�s triangle would say.
a. the man is stuck in the �I�m Not OK�You�re Not OK� life position.
b. the Critical Parent is dominating.
c. the man is obviously an adult child of an alcoholic.
d. the man has moved from the persecutor, to the rescuer, to the victim role.
D. Karpman suggested that only three roles are necessary for manipulative drama: persecutor, rescuer, and victim. A drama is similar to a TA �game,� yet it has a greater number of events and the person switches roles during the course of the interaction. In TA, a game is a transaction with a concealed motive. Games prevent honest intimate discussion, and one player is always left with negative feelings. Games have a predictable outcome as a result of ulterior transactions. An ulterior transaction occurs when a disguised message is sent. Hint: The act of looking at the consequences of games is known as �game analysis.�
361. A TA counselor and a strict behaviorist are both in the same case conference to staff a client. Which technique would the two most likely agree on when formulating a plan of action?
a. the empty chair technique.
b. an ego state analysis.
d. formal assertiveness training.
C. Using choice �a,� the empty chair technique, the person imagines that another individual is in a chair in front of him or her, and then the client talks to the person. The technique is popular in TA as well as in the gestalt model. Contracting, nevertheless, is the only technique listed that is used readily by TA and behavior therapists.
362. A game is composed of transactions which end in a bad feeling for at least one player. Games are said to prevent true intimacy. Which other statement is true of games?
a. In a first-degree game someone gets seriously hurt.
b. In a first-degree game the harm is minimal, but the level of harm is quite serious in a third-degree game.
c. For a game to occur, three people must be involved.
d. Games always involve parallel vectors of communication.
B. It is easy to remember that the higher the number the greater the hurt. For example, a second-degree game is more hurtful than a first-degree. In the first-degree game the hurt is innocuous; in the second-degree game the hurt is more serious; while in third-degree games the hurt can be permanent or on occasion deadly. And, oh yes, as far as choice �d� is concerned: Some exams will refer to parallel vectors of communication as �complementary transactions.�
363. Unpleasant feelings after a person creates a game are called.
b. life scripts.
c. the little professor.
d. an analysis of variance.
A. When a client manipulates others to experience a childhood feeling, the result is called a �racket.� (Note: in TA the experience of trying to secure these feelings is known as �collecting trading stamps.�) Choice �b,� or the life script, is a person�s ongoing drama which dictates how a person will live his or her life. Claude Steiner has written extensively on scripts. His book, Scripts People Live, suggests three basic unhealthy scripts: no love, no mind, and no joy. It is like a theatrical plot based on early parental messages (often called injunctions in TA). Choice �d,� abbreviated ANOVA, is a statistical technique used to determine differences between two or more means. Hold your horses, we�ll get to statistics soon enough. Does domestic violence have a script? Well, I guess the answer is kind of, sort of. According to Dr. Leonore Walker, who researched women in abusive relationships, there is a cycle of violence with three phases. First, there is a tension building phase where arguments erupt very easily. Many women have dubbed this as the �walking on eggshells phase.� Then there is the battering or acute incident phase where the actual fight or abuse sexual abuse, or worse yet homicide occurs. Finally, there is a makeup phase often referred to as the honeymoon phase characterized by romantic moonlight dinners, the �I�ll never do it again� lines, and the deliveries from the local flower shops. As time goes by the couple goes through the phases more rapidly and the honeymoon phase may not even exist.
364. A life script is actually.
a. an ulterior transaction.
b. an ego state.
c. a life drama or plot.
d. a series of parallel transactions.
C. The process of ferreting out the client�s script is called �script analysis.� Some popular life script categories include: the never scripts, or a person who never feels he or she will succeed; the always scripts, of individuals who will always remain a given way; after scripts, that result in away a person believes he or she will behave after a certain event occurs; open ended scripts, in which the person has no direction or plan; until scripts, in which the client is not allowed to feel good until a certain accomplishment or event arrives; and desirable scripts/less desirable scripts. Steiner, mentioned in the previous answer, analyzes the script of TA pioneer Eric Berne in his book! Ulterior transactions (choice �a�) contain hidden transactions as two or more ego states are operating at the same time. For example, a man may say to a woman, �Would you like a ride in my new car?� She says. �Yes, I�d love to.� This seems like a healthy (i.e., parallel) transaction from his Adult to her Adult ego state, and she responds in the same manner. He may, however, have a secret, covert, ulterior message if he is a game player. The ulterior message which goes from his Child to hers could be, �Wanna make out in my car?� Her ulterior answer�her Child to his Child�is, �Sure, I�d love to make out with you.�
365. Eric Berne is to TA as Fritz Perls is to.
a. the empty chair technique.
b. Gestalt therapy.
c. the underdog.
d. the top dog.
B. Berne is the Father of TA, while Frederick S. Perls created Gestalt therapy. In some books he is called Fritz Perls or �Fritz.� All the other concepts apply to Gestalt therapy. Perls saw the �top dog� as the critical parent portion of the personality which is very authoritarian and quick to use �shoulds� and �oughts.� The �underdog� was seen as weak, powerless, passive, and full of excuses. These splits in the personality would wage civil war within the individual. In Gestalt therapy, the empty chair technique could be employed so the individual could work on these opposing feelings. That is to say, the person could be the top dog in one chair and the underdog in the other.
366. Empathy and counselor effectiveness scales reflect the work of.
a. Perls and Berne.
b. Ellis and Harper.
c. Frankl and May.
d. Carkhuff and Gazda.
D. n an attempt to isolate the factors associated with positive therapeutic outcomes, counselor educators generally state that the counselor must possess distinct qualities. In the literature these are known as the �core dimensions.� According to research by Truax and Mitchell, an effective counselor is authentic and genuine, not phony; gives positive regard through acceptance; and has accurate empathic understanding. As mentioned earlier, the Carkhuff scale rates the counselor from 1 to 5. The higher the rating the better the counselor is facilitating client growth. Gazda suggested a �Global Scale for Rating Helper Responses.� On this scale a 1.0 response does not attend to the client�s needs. The counselor may discredit or even scold the client. In case I haven�t made myself clear, this is a response which is not helpful in any sense. A 2.0 response, although better than a 1.0, is superficial and deals only partially with surface feelings. The 3.0 response does facilitate growth. Although a 3.0 response is limited primarily to surface feelings, the counselor does not distort the content in his or her reflections. A 4.0 is evident when the counselor goes beyond reflection and deals with underlying feelings and meaning.
367. The acronym NLP is an abbreviation of.
a. Bandler and Grinder�s neurolinguistic programming.
b. New language programs forcomputer therapy.
c. New language psychotherapy software.
d. neurological psychotherapy.
A. This model (choice �a�), supposedly based somewhat on what Milton H. Erickson, Fritz Perls, and Virginia Satir really did in their sessions, makes some incredible claims, such as the ability to cure a longstanding phobia in less time than it takes to conduct a typical counseling session! Perhaps the two most popular techniques used by NLP practitioners are �refraining� and �anchoring.� When using refraining the counselor helps the client to perceive a given situation in a new light so as to produce a new emotional reaction to it (e.g., a glass of water is not half empty; it is really half full). In anchoring, a desirable emotional state is evoked via an outside stimulus such as a touch or a sound or a specific bodily motion. This is similar to classical conditioning or the concept of a posthypnotic suggestion (i.e., a suggestion which works after you leave the hypnotist�s office). A client with a phobia of cats, for example, might squeeze his left arm when he came in contact with a cat, and this would bring out an emotion other than fear. If you are taking an exam which is slanted toward this model, then you must read Structure of Magic I and Structure of Magic II by Bandler and Grinder. This approach has been very popular with businesspeople (especially salespersons) and emphasizes the importance of eye movements in determining a person�s �representational system� for storing information, such as hearing, seeing, or feeling. I have no doubt that the fellow who has made the most money from this approach, however, is not a licensed therapist but rather infomercial king Anthony (Tony) Robbins, who expanded on NLP and whose various Personal Power tape series have outsold any other motivational product in history. Tony�a dynamic speaker by any standard�sports a high school education.
368. A gestalt therapist is most likely going to deal with a client�s projection via.
a. playing the projection technique.
b. the empty chair technique.
c. converting questions to statements.
d. a behavioral contract.
A. Choices �a,� �b,� and �c� are all techniques used frequently in gestalt therapy, but remember that you are searching for the best answer. Projection is an ego defense mechanism in which you see something in others that you cannot accept about yourself. Gestalt hits this head-on, and in �playing the projection� the counselor literally asks you to act like this person you dislike. Choice �c� would work thusly: A client might say, �Don�t all people in a group feel scared during the initial session of group counseling?� The client is asked to turn the question into an �I statement,� in this case, �I feel scared during this initial session of group counseling.� In gestalt this is known as �taking responsibility for a feeling or situation.� Often, the gestalt counselor literally asks the client to say this. For example, �I feel scared during this initial session of group counseling and I take responsibility for being scared.�
369. A client says she has a tingling sensation in her hands each time she talks about the probability of marriage. A gestalt therapist would most likely.
a. ask the client to recount a dream.
b. urge the client to engage in thought-stopping.
c. prescribe relaxation homework.
d. urge the client to stay with the feeling.
D. Gestalt Therapy is concerned primarily with the here-and-now. When a client tries to avoid a feeling the counselor urges the client to face it or �stay with the feeling� if you will. Perls believed this is necessary for growth. Choice �a,� dream work, is an integral part of the gestalt approach to counseling. The client is told to recount the dream �as if it is happening in the present.� Everything�yes everything�in the dream is considered a projection of the self. So if the client is being chased by a mean old man in the dream, the client might be asked to �become the mean old man.� The gestalt model emphasizes experience rather than interpretation, which makes it especially attractive for group intervention.
370. Gestalt therapists sometimes utilize the exaggeration experiment which most closely resembles.
a. successive approximation.
b. paradox as practiced by Frankl, Haley, or Erickson.
c. free association.
d. paraphrasing with emotional reflection.
B. As opposed to the other three therapists (in choice �b�), Perls emphasized the exaggeration in regard to present moment verbal and nonverbal behavior in the here and now. A gestalt therapist might say, �What is your left hand doing?� (In gestalt, �what� questions are seen as more valuable than �why� questions.) After the client responds, the therapist might add, �Can you exaggerate that movement in your left hand?� Choice �a� is an operant behavior modification term which suggests that a behavior is gradually accomplished by reinforcing �successive steps� until the target behavior is reached. This technique also is known as �shaping� or �shaping using successive approximations.�
371. A client who is undergoing gestalt therapy states, �It is difficult to get a job in New York City,� would be asked by the counselor to.
a. go to the O*NET website (http://www.online.onetcenter. org) which is the replacement for the DOT and is now the nation�s primary source of occupational information.
b. change the verbalization to an �I� statement.
c. read the OOH.
d. take the Strong Interest Inventory (SII).
B. A goal of gestalt is to eliminate �it talk� and replace it with �I statements.� The other choices all relate to career counseling. The DOT or Dictionary of Occupational Titles, was a popular career counseling book which listed over 20,000 job titles. As mentioned above, it has been replaced via O*NET. The OOH stands for the Occupational Outlook Handbook published by the U.S. Department of Labor and revised every two years. The work attempts to depict projected job trends. It also delineates earnings, necessary training and education for a job, as well as working conditions and what workers in a given job actually do. The Strong (formerly the Strong Campbell Interest Inventory or SCII) is the most popular interest inventory, and it is based on the theory of John Holland.
372. Gestalt Therapy, a paradigm that focuses on awareness in the here-and-now incorporates.
b. Aaron Beck�s Cognitive Therapy, which asserts that maladaptive thinking creates emotional disturbance and thus clients should record dysfunctional thoughts.
c. Conditioned Reflex Therapy.
d. Client-Centered Therapy.
A. Psychodrama incorporates role-playing into the treatment process. A client, for example, might act out an especially painful incident in his or her life. Psychodrama was invented by Jacob L. Moreno, who first coined the term group therapy in 1931. Gestalt therapists emphasize experiments and exercises.
373. According to gestalt therapists, a client who is angry at his wife for leaving him, and who makes a suicide attempt would be engaging in.
b. a panic reaction.
C. Retroflection is the act of doing to yourself what you really wish to do to someone else. The psychoanalysts often say that the person who wishes to kill him- or herself really wants to kill someone else. True? Perhaps. Statistics now indicate that in cases of suicide, 4 out of every 100 begin with the person killing someone else!
374. Gestalt means.
a. a group.
b. a form, figure, or configuration unified as a whole.
c. a dyad.
d. visual acuity.
B. Although there is no exact English translation, choice �b� roughly describes the nature of the concept. Gestalt also can imply that the integrated whole is greater than the sum of its parts.
375. Perls suggested _______ which must be peeled away to reach emotional stability.
a. four layers of neurosis
b. three layers of neurosis
c. two layers of neurosis
d. five layers of neurosis
- D. Perls likened the process of therapy to that of peeling an onion.
- The person has a phony layer, a phobic layer (fear that others will reject his or her uniqueness), an impasse layer (the person feels struck), the implosive layer (willingness to expose the true self), and the explosive layer (person has relief due to authenticity.
376. In Gestalt therapy unexpressed emotions are known as.
a. unfinished business.
b. the emerging gestalt.
c. form/figure language.
d. the top dog.
A. Here is a key term in Gestalt therapy. When an unexpressed feeling of resentment, rage, guilt, anxiety, or other emotion interferes with present situations and causes difficulties, it is known as �unfinished business.� Just in case it comes up on your exam, Perls borrowed the term gestalt from the system of psychology proposed by Max Wertheimer of Germany in the 1920s which emphasized that the whole is greater than the sum of the parts. The original gestalt psychologists studied perceptual phenomena (e.g., figure/ground relationships). The three most common principles relating to gestalt psychology are first, �insight learning� (discussed earlier in this book) as discovered by Wolfgang Kohler. Second, Bluma Zeigarnik�s well-known �Zeigarnik effect� which suggests that motivated people tend to experience tension due to unfinished tasks, and thus they recall unfinished activities better. Thus, if you sincerely care about the outcome of a task, you will have better recall of that task if it remains incomplete, than if completed. (This certainly is a bit like the concept of �unfinished business� in gestalt therapy.) Third, Wertheimer�s �phi-phenomenon,� wherein the illusion of movement can be achieved via two or more stimuli which are not moving; for example a neon sign that has a moving arrow.
377. Gestalt therapy emphasizes.
a. cognitive-behavioral issues.
b. transference issues.
c. traumatic childhood memories.
d. awareness in the here-and-now and dream work.
D. Choice �a� is incorrect. The gestalt mode does not believe that a client can �think� one�s self out of unhappiness. The person must experience awareness for growth.
378. The gestalt dialogue experiment generally utilizes the concepts of.
a. behavioral self-control.
b. choice theory.
c. top dog, underdog, and the empty chair technique.
d. the rehearsal experiment.
C. The exam you are taking could refer to choice �c� as �games of dialogue.� In addition to the top dog/underdog split in the personality, empty chair dialogue also could be used for other opposing tendencies, such as feminine versus masculine attributes. Gestalt assumes that anxiety is often actually �stage fright.� By this the gestalt therapist assumes the client has internally rehearsed a situation and is worried that his or her �performance� will not be up to snuff. This �rehearsal� is said to get in the way of spontaneity and healthy personal experimentation. The rehearsal technique especially lends itself to group work as group members can share their rehearsals with one another, and thus awareness of stage fright (e.g., worrying about not saying or doing the right thing) and fear of not being accepted by others can be illuminated. And if you marked choice �b,� review the questions on reality therapy, as choice theory is associated with this brand of treatment. Glasser�s Choice Theory postulates that behavior is really an attempt to control our perceptions to satisfy our genetic needs�survival, love, and belonging, power, freedom, and fun.
379. Critics assert that gestalt therapy is an affective treatment that.
a. often fails to emphasize the importance of dreams.
b. ignores nonverbal behavior.
c. often fails to emphasize cognitive concerns.
d. uses the making the rounds technique that is not appropriate for group work.
C. Quite the antithesis of REBT and related cognitive therapies, gestalt is considered a bit, well, anti-intellectual if you will. Perls once asserted that if you lose your mind you can come to your senses! In gestalt therapy the emphasis is on increasing psychological as well as bodily awareness. Another charge is that it is too confrontational if practiced in the manner Perls demonstrated. Today gestalt therapists are a bit gentler, softer, and less abrupt than Perls. Confrontation occurs when the therapist points out discrepancies or incongruencies between the client�s verbal and nonverbal behaviors. The �making the rounds� strategy mentioned in choice �d� alludes to a popular group exercise in which the client is instructed to say the same message to everyone in the group. And oh yes, the word affective in the question means emotional. Some experts have branded gestalt and existential psychotherapy as �affective� paradigms since they urge clients to purge emotions in order to feel better about themselves. Gestalt has traditionally been a popular modality for group work.
380. Most experts would agree that the peak period of competition between the various schools of counseling and therapy (e.g., gestalt, behavioristic, reality therapy, etc.) was during.
a. the late 1970s.
b. the late 1960s.
c. the 1980s.
d. the mid-1950s.
B. In the 1950s, counseling�not testing�became the key guidance function. Moreover, the 1950s marked a golden age for developmental psychology. In the late 1960s the field was literally inundated with competing psychotherapies. In the 1970s biofeedback, behavior modification, and crisis hotlines flourished. And in the 1980s professionalism (e.g., licensing and improvement in professional organizations) was evident.
381. The relationship a client has with a gestalt therapist would most likely progress _______ than the relationship a client would have with a Rogerian counselor.
c. at the same pace.
d. a and b.
B. Because gestalt therapists are generally rather confrontational, theorists assume that the client/counselor relationship will progress at a slower rate. If you marked choice �d� I�d like to suggest that you read the answers more carefully. Answer �d,� is a synthesis of choice �a� and �b,� and choices �a� and �b� are contradictory.
382. The school of counseling created by Carl R. Rogers, Ph.D., has undergone three name changes. Initially it was called _______ then _______, and in 1974 it changed to _______.
a. nondirective counseling; client-centered therapy; the person-centered approach.
b. directive; nondirective; cient-centered.
c. person-centered; Rogerian, nondirectived.
d. client-centered; person-centered; nondirective.
A. A word to the wise: Expect to see any of these names in regard to questions on Rogers�s theory. The initial name, nondirective counseling, was intended to set the approach apart from the directive and analytic models which were popular during the 1940s. In 1951, the process took on its new name, client-centered therapy, which emphasized Rogers� theory of personality and, of course, the fact that the client was not viewed as a �sick patient.� In 1974, the approach took on its current name, person-centered, to emphasize the power of the person and Rogers�s growing interest in group behavior. Hint: Although I�ve just given you three key names for this approach, Rogers�s method could also be known as �self theory.� When his approach is used in career counseling the role of the self-concept in terms of career choice is illuminated.
383. Rogers� approach is characterized as a(n) _______ approach.
a. existential or humanistic
c. cognitive behavioral
A. Some exams will call humanistic psychology �third force psychology� because it was a reaction to behaviorism and psychoanalysis, the two initial forces at the time. In regard to choices �b� and �c,� it can be pointed out that cognitive approaches are generally more directive and do not give the client/counselor relationship as much emphasis as the Rogerians.
384. Which statement is true of the person-centered approach?
a Reflection is used a lot yet the counselor rarely gives advice.
b. Advice is given a lot.
c. Reflection is rarely utilized.
d. Closed-ended questions keep the sessions moving at a fast pace.
A. A strict Rogerian would generally not give the client specific techniques for behavioral change or instruct the person �how to think.� Giving advice is one of the most debated issues in counseling. Some texts classify advice giving (along with preaching, lecturing, and excessive questioning) as a nonhelpful behavior. In fact, many experts insist that lecturing/preaching is merely a variation of advice giving and can abet a power struggle between the counselor and the client. Advice giving in the initial sessions can keep a client from working through his or her feelings. Nevertheless, in crisis or emergency situations, advice giving is generally considered an appropriate intervention. Multicultural experts wisely point out that some groups (e.g., certain Asian cultures) view counseling as a last resort in which immediate direction is given to the client. In such cultures Rogerian counseling is clearly not the treatment of choice. When I was writing my book Favorite Counseling and Therapy Techniques I asked a famous person-centered therapist to contribute. He wrote me back and said, �I�m a Rogerian, I don�t do techniques.�
385. In the person-centered approach, an effective counselor must possess.
a. the skill to be confrontational.
b. the ability to give advice.
c. the ability to do formal psychological testing.
d. empathy, congruence, genuineness, and demonstrate unconditional positive regard to create a desirable �I-Thou relationship.�
D. Rogerians speak of �conditions for growth� and a therapeutic atmosphere which produces a �climate for growth.� The counselor helps produce the climate via genuineness (or congruence, which indicates the counselor can be real in the relationship), unconditional positive regard (nonjudgmental acceptance or nonpossessive warmth), and empathic understanding. Rogers has an optimistic view concerning the nature of men and women, believing that they have an inborn tendency toward self-actualization. Overall, the research does not support the notion that these therapeutic factors are necessarily related to positive therapeutic outcomes. Some studies indicate that the client�s traits have an even greater impact on the success of psychotherapy.
386. Rogers viewed man as.
a. basically evil.
b. driven by instincts.
c. a product of reinforcement.
d. positive when he develops in a warm, accepting, trusting environment.
D. Here is a wonderful little review regarding the manner in which the major modalities of counseling look at mankind. Expect to see several questions of this ilk on any major exam.
Individual is good and moves toward growth and self-actualization.
Berne (Transactional Analysis).
Messages learned about self in childhood determine whether person is good or bad, though intervention can change this script.
Deterministic; people are controlled by biological instincts; are unsocialized, irrational; driven by unconscious forces such as sex and aggression.
Ellis (Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy).
People have a cultural/biological propensity to think in a disturbed manner but can be taught to use their capacity to react differently.
- People are not bad or good. People have the capacity to govern life
- effectively as �whole.� People are part of their environment and must be
- viewed as such.
Glasser (Reality Therapy).
Individuals strive to meet basic physiological needs and the need to be worthwhile to self and others. Brain as control system tries to meet needs.
Adler (Individual Psychology).
Man is basically good; much of behavior is determined via birth order.
Jung (Analytic Psychology).
Man strives for individuation or a sense of self-fulfillment.
Skinner (Behavior Modification).
Humans are like other animals: mechanistic and controlled via environmental stimuli and reinforcement contingencies; not good or bad; no self-determination or freedom.
Person produces and is a product of conditioning.
Existential view is that humans are good, rational, and retain freedom of choice.
Through education and scientific data, man can become himself. Humans are born with potential for good or evil. Others are needed to help unleash positive potential. Man is mainly rational, not intuitive.
387. A person-centered therapist would.
a. treat neurotics differently from psychotics.
b. treat all diagnostic categories of the DSM using the same principles.
c. use more closed-ended questions with adjustment reactions.
d. use contracting with clients who are not making progress.
B. The person-centered model puts little stock in the formal process of diagnosis and psychological assessment. People are people, and when they are labeled they are debased to �patients.� Moreover, traditionally, strict adherents to this model do not ask a large number of questions (choice �c�). (Some years ago it was considered a cardinal sin if a graduate student serving a counseling practicum asked a client a question while engaging in the practice of person-centered counseling. Today, the practice of asking clients questions is more common; nevertheless, open-ended questions are highly recommended whenever possible.) Choice �d,� contracting, is more popular with behavioristic counselors and �directive� methods rather than �nondirective� strategies.
388. Rogers emphasized congruence in the counselor. Congruence occurs when.
a. external behavior matches an internal response or state.
b. the counselor uses silence.
c. the counselor reflects emotion.
d. the counselor summarizes at the end of the session.
A. When the counselor has the ability to be �real� in the relationship, we say that he or she is genuine or congruent. Rogers insists that three key factors are needed for an effective helping climate. The counselor�s attitude must include genuineness (again, also called congruence), unconditional positive regard (also referred to as nonpossessive warmth), and empathic understanding. Congruence is a condition where the counselor is very aware of his or her own feelings and accurately expresses this to the client. Of the three elements, Rogers suggested that congruence�which really implies that the counselor is genuine, authentic, and does not put on a professional front�is the most important of the three elements.
389. Rogers felt that _______ for client change to occur.
a. conditions must be in accordance with the problem.
b. three conditions are necessary.
c. nine conditions are necessary.
d. two conditions are necessary.
B. If you missed this one, take a break. You�ve been studying too long. When you�re refreshed, review the answer to question 388.
390. Person-centered counseling would prove least effective with.
a. a bright verbal male.
b. a bright verbal female.
c. a graduate student who had a knowledge of phrenology.
d. a client who is not very verbal.
D. In choice �c,� the term phrenology refers to an early pseudoscientific psychological doctrine which asserted that one�s personality could be determined by the shape and configuration of the skull.
391. Critics of the Rogerian approach feel that.
a. it does not emphasize relationship concerns.
b. some degree of directiveness is needed after the initial phase of counseling.
c. more confrontation is necessary, though Rogers did encourage caring confrontations.
d. b and c.
D. I have heard counselors humorously say that Rogerian counseling is like a joke without a punch line! Many counselors now believe that some degree of directiveness is needed after the relationship is built; otherwise treatment merely goes in circles. Some books and exams refer to the process after the relationship is built as the �action phase� of counseling. J. O. Prochaska is very critical of the research which supposedly indicates the effectiveness of the Rogerian model, as some of the studies lacked a control group, failed to take the placebo effect into account, did not use the best statistical technique, or relied on self-reports of the client.
392. Counselors who work as consultants
a. generally adhere to reality therapy.
b. generally adhere to one single theory.
c. generally adhere to consultation theory.
d. generally do not adhere to one single theory.
D. Now hear this! I fully expect that you will see several questions on your exam related to consultation. Many counselors tell me they have never studied this topic. Read this answer over several times. Choice �c� is not the best answer inasmuch as no integrated theory of consultation exists at this time. Consultation can target organizational concerns or service delivery. Several major consultation models exist. First is Caplan�s psychodynamic mental health consultation in which the consultant does not see the client directly but advises the consultee (i.e., the individual in the organization who is receiving the consultant�s services). This model is interesting because it recommends that the consultant�not the counselor/consultee�be ethically and legally responsible for the client�s welfare and treatment. Second is the �behavioral consultation�� or �social learning theory model� associated with Bandura, in which the consultant designs behavioral change programs for the consultee to implement. Third is the process consultation model by Edgar Schein, which is said to be analogous to the �doctor�patient� model. The consultant is paid to diagnose the problem (i.e., the consultee is not certain what it is) and prescribe a solution. The focus is on the agency or organization, not the individual client. With process consultation, the focus is not�I repeat�is not on the content of the problem, but rather the process used to solve the problems. Schein also mentions the purchase of expertise model in which the consultee says: �Here�s the problem; you fix it.� This is similar to the doctor�patient model except that the consultee knows what is wrong. Fourth is triadic consultation in which the consultant works with a mediator to provide services to a client.
393. Counseling generally occurs in a clinical setting while consultation generally occurs in a _______ setting.
c. continuing care
B. Here again, the other answer choices are not necessarily incorrect; it is just that this choice �b� is the best answer. Counselors generally focus on a person or a group, while consultants focus more on issues. Another key factor is that in consultation work, empathy�although important�is overshadowed by genuineness and respect.
394. Attending behavior that is verbal is also called.
a. verbal tracking.
A. Here is a nice little memory device. The word attending is similar to the word attention. Attending behavior occurs when you give your clients your complete attention. Helpful �nonverbal� behavior would include leaning forward slightly, eye contact, and appropriate facial expression, such as smiling. Nonhelpful nonverbals would be frowning, yawning, sitting far away from the client, repeatedly closing your eyes, shaking a finger at the client, acting as if you are in a hurry, or talking extremely fast or slow. Some exams may speak of task-facilitative behavior versus abstractive behavior in regard to the process of attending. When the counselor�s thoughts are in relation to the client, this is said to be task-facilitative. When the counselor is thinking about his or her own concerns (e.g., how much money he or she is making that day or where to go for lunch), then it is seen as abstractive behavior.
395. The counselor�s social power is related to.
b. expertise, attractiveness, and trustworthiness.
c. sex and age.
d. degree of directiveness.
B. Some exams will call social power �social influence.� My memory technique here is what I call the �EAT� formula; the �E� is for expertness, the �A� for attractiveness, and the �T� for trustworthiness. The three factors first made an impact on the counseling profession in 1968 when Stanley Strong wrote a landmark article which suggested that counselors perceived as expert, attractive, and trustworthy would not be discredited by the client. Expertness here refers to the manner in which the client perceives the counselor rather than the way the counselor perceives himself or herself. A counselor�s self-perception is technically known as �competence.� E. Fuller Torrey, author of The Death of Psychiatry, suggested that a wall full of degrees and an impressive office can help to insure that the counselor will be perceived as an expert. Thus, a counselor who is seen as an expert may not actually be competent. Attractiveness implies that positive feelings and thoughts regarding the counselor are helpful. One hypothesis states that if the client and counselor have had similar experiences, the client will view the counselor as attractive. Clients who say, �I like my counselor,� are demonstrating that the counselor has been perceived as attractive. The chemical dependency model (CD), in which a recovering addict helps a practicing addict, is based on this principle. In regard to trust, it is felt that a violation of confidentiality will nearly always eliminate this factor.
396. Key areas that often cause problems for the counselor�s self-image are.
a. choice of a modality and a learning disability.
b. age and the lack of a doctoral degree.
c. lack of NCC.
d. competence, power, and intimacy.
D. Competence, power, and intimacy are all factors that impact the counselor�s �social influence.� Competence reflects a counselor�s feelings regarding his or her adequacy. A counselor who feels incompetent could directly or indirectly (e.g., tone of voice or body posture) communicate this to the client. In counseling, power is seen as a positive trait used to enhance the client�s growth. Counselors struggling with their own feelings in regard to a lack of power may become rigid, coercive, or even belligerent toward the client. Others may become overly nondirective. A counselor who has personal issues revolving around intimacy also could be extremely nondirective or afraid to confront clients for fear of rejection. Clearly, such a counselor stays at arm�s length from clients and could personally benefit from treatment.
397. A counselor who is genuine.
a. does not role-play someone he or she is not, so as to be accepted by the client.
b. does not change his or her true values from session to session.
c. is not empathic.
d. a and b.
D. Gerard Egan stressed that clients are indeed more open and expressive with counselors who seem genuine. Egan is well-known for his books which teach a systematic approach to effective helping (e.g., The Skilled Helper). Note: Egan has referred to competence in some of his literature as �accomplishment-competence,� feeling that an accomplishment (e.g., helping abate a client�s depression) can impact upon one�s feelings of competence, or the client�s perception of the helper�s expertise. In other words, the counselor must be able to deliver the goods and truly help the client.
398. Allen E. Ivey has postulated three types of empathy.
a. positive, negative regard, and cognitive.
b. reflective, micro-empathy, and forced choice.
c. basic, subtractive, and additive.
d. micro-empathy, basic, and level 8 empathy.
C. In basic empathy the counselor�s response is on the same level as the client�s. In the case of subtractive empathy, the counselor s behavior does not completely convey an understanding of what has been communicated. Additive empathy is most desirable since it adds to the client�s understanding and awareness.
399. _______ and _______ created a program to help counselors learn accurate empathy.
a. Truax; Carkhuff
b. Rogers; Berenson
c. Rogers; Brill
d. Carkhuff; Satir
A. Robert Carkhuff has been quoted time and time again for his statement that, �all helping is for better or worse.� Or as he says, �no helpee is left unchanged by any helping interaction.�
400. The human relations core for effective counseling includes.
a. power, competence, and trustworthiness.
b. expertise, attractiveness, and trustworthiness.
c. empathy, positive regard (or respect), and genuineness.
d. self-image, self-talk, and attending behavior.
C. Choice �b� (remember?) is the social influence core. The purpose of this question is to make certain you are able to distinguish between the social influence core and the human relations core.
401. Prior to the 1960s most counseling took place.
a. in a group setting.
b. with the entire family present.
c. in a dyadic relationship.
d. in Behavior Therapy clinics.
C. A dyad is a unit of two functioning as a pair. In this case the counselor and the counselee form the pair. The popularity of family therapy and behavior therapy was not evident in the 1950s. I cannot forego mentioning that counselors often confuse the word dyadic with didactic which means to teach.
402. A group has.
a. a membership which can be defined.
b. some degree of unity and interaction.
c. a shared purpose.
d. all of the above.
D. Put the choices together and you have a fine definition of the word group. A group is really a cluster of people in a recognizable unit.
403. The term group therapy was coined in 1931 by.
a. Frank Parsons, the Father of guidance.
b. Jacob Moreno, the Father of psychodrama.
c. E.G. Williamson, associated with the Minnesota Viewpoint.
d. Fritz Perls, the Father of gestalt therapy.
B. Ten years before Moreno coined the term group therapy he noted that individuals in Vienna involved in theatrical productions without scripts experienced a cathartic reaction which seemed to be curative. In psychodrama the client expresses spontaneous feelings via role-playing. Psychodramatic techniques are appropriate for family therapy as well as group work. Perls, although he did not coin the term group therapy, is considered a major figure in the history of group therapy. The name Joseph H. Pratt might also find its way onto your exam. Pratt, a top Boston physician, formed what might well be the first counseling/therapy groups from approximately 1905 to 1923. The groups dealt with the issue of tuberculosis. Freud�s Group Psychology and the Analysis of the Ego was published in 1921; however, his interest in individual treatment seemingly kept him from becoming a major player in the history of groups and from creating a comprehensive model of group therapy.
404. In the 1940s the two organizations for group therapy were created.
a. NASW and NBCC.
b. ASGW and AAS.
c. the American Society for Group Psychotherapy and Psychodrama and the American Group Psychotherapy Association.
d. AACD and APA.
C. Choice �b� mentions the ASGW, or the Association for Specialists in Group Work. This is the division of ACA that focuses primarily on group intervention. The ASGW journal, The Journal for Specialists in Group Work, is the publication you will need to keep you updated in this area. Other abbreviations are the National Association of Social Workers (NASW), established in 1955, and the American Association of Suicidology (AAS). By now you should be familiar with the others.
405. Which theorist�s work has been classified as a preface to the group movement.
c. Jessie B. Davis.
D. Adler was actually engaging in group treatment during the early 1920s at his child guidance facilities located in Vienna. His rationale for group work was simply that �...man�s problems and conflicts are recognized in their social nature....�
406. Primary groups are.
a. preventive and attempt to ward off problems.
b. always follow a person-centered paradigm.
c. generally utilized for long-term psychotherapy.
d. always focused on the client�s childhood.
A. Examinations and literature in the area of group processes will often classify groups using a model popularized by community mental health experts such as Gerald Caplan, a pioneer in the crisis intervention movement. The three classifications are primary, secondary, and tertiary. A primary group stresses a healthy lifestyle or coping strategies which can reduce the occurrence of a given difficulty. A group which teaches birth control to prevent teen pregnancy would be a fine example. In a secondary group a problem or disturbance is present but not usually severe. The secondary group works to reduce the severity or length of a problem and generally includes aspects of prevention. Thus, a group that deals with grief or shyness might fall into this category. The tertiary group usually deals more with individual difficulties that are more serious and longstanding. (The word tertiary literally means the third rank.) Choices �c� and �d� would apply mainly to groups categorized as tertiary.
407. A group is classified as secondary. This implies that.
a. it is preventive and attempts to ward off problems.
b. a difficulty or disturbance is present.
c. two therapists are utilized.
d. all of the above.
B. Choice �a� is not entirely false since a secondary group does have preventive qualities. Nevertheless, this is not the major feature; hence, this is not the best answer. When two therapists are used in a group setting the procedure is known as �coleadership� or �cofacilitation.�
408. When comparing a tertiary group with a primary or secondary group.
a. the tertiary focuses less on individual members.
b. the tertiary focuses more on the here-and-now.
c. the tertiary is less likely to deal with severe pathology.
d. the tertiary is more likely to deal with severe pathology.
D. Choice �a� stands incorrect because the tertiary group focuses more on the individual than the primary or secondary group. In reference to choice �b,� a counselor dealing with the here-and-now often relies on the skill of �immediacy,� which takes place (in a group or an individual session) when the counselor explores the client�counselor relationship as it is transpiring right at that moment. Immediacy relates to the counselor�s ability to convey what is happening between the counselor and the client.
409. Group norms.
a. exist only in encounter groups.
b. exist only in career counseling groups.
c. are not related to group cohesiveness.
d. govern acceptable behavior and group rules.
D. Let�s not make this complicated. Norms are explicit and implicit (i.e., not verbalized) rules which tell group members how to behave and how not to behave in a given situation. Group specialists are quick to point out that all groups have norms, though often they are not formally presented to group members. Singing loudly while taking the NCE would be violating a norm, although I doubt whether anyone will specifically tell you not to sing at the onset of the exam! Norms actually refer to �expected behaviors.� Now of course norms vary depending upon your role in a group. In an educational class group, for example, the norms for the teacher may indeed be different than for the student.
410. Group therapy initially flourished in the United States due to.
a. Freud�s lectures in this country.
b. a shortage of competent career counselors.
c. a shortage of individual therapists during World War II.
d. pressure from nondirective therapists pushing encounter groups.
C. During World War II many individuals were plagued with severe psychological problems, yet a personnel shortage made it impossible for each and every person to be treated using individual therapy. Moreno had brought the idea of group therapy to the United States in 1925, but the supply and demand issues sparked by the war effort were the catalysts which generated this idea whose time had come.
411. Group content refers to material discussed in a group setting. Group process refers to.
a. analysis of the unconscious.
b. analysis of the ego.
c. the T-group paradigm.
d. the manner in which discussions and transactions occur.
D. Group content refers to what the group is discussing. Group process refers to analyzing the communications, interactions, and transactions. The process is the way in which the discussion takes place. Choice �c,� or T-group, merely means �training group.� The first T-group was conducted in 1946. Originally, T-groups were used in industrial and organizational settings to process personnel interactions and improve efficiency. A wealth of work in this area was done by National Training Laboratories (NTL) in Bethel, Maine, created by Leland Bradford, Kenneth Benne, and Ronald Lippitt.
412. Group cohesiveness refers to.
a. forces which tend to bind group members together.
b. an analysis of group content.
c. a common coleadership style.
d. a style of leadership.
A. Cohesiveness is a sense of caring for the group and the other group members. The term cohesiveness is associated with Kurt Lewin�s �field theory� in which cohesiveness was seen as a binding force among group members. Lewin called the binding force between group members �positive valence.� When cohesiveness goes up, absenteeism and other negative factors go down. High cohesiveness leads to high group productivity and commitment. Lewin was a key player in the T-group movement in the United States. And here�s a helpful tidbit of information. Often when a group displays little or no cohesiveness the group will be viewed as �fragmented.� Just for review, you will recall that choice �c� (coleadership) is implemented when two persons lead the group.
413. Some theorists feel that group therapy differs from group counseling (which is also called an interpersonal problem solving group) in that.
a. group counseling would be of longer duration.
b. group therapy, also dubbed as a personality reconstruction group, would be of longer duration.
c. group counseling requires far more training.
d. group therapy addresses a less disturbed population of clients.
B. George Gazda proposes a typology of three distinctive types of groups: guidance, counseling, and psychotherapy. A guidance group is a primary group in the sense that it is mainly preventive. Listen carefully, however. Some exams and texts no longer use the term guidance group. Instead, you may see the term affective education group or psychological education group, or even psychoeducational group. Guidance groups, which originated in the public school system, do not deal with remediation of severe psychological pathology. Guidance/psychoeducational groups are preventative and provide instruction about a potential problem; for example, drug abuse or improving study skills. In most cases they are time limited and occasionally use videos and guest speakers to enhance the experience. Exam hint: In the last several years the term psychoeducational group seems to be replacing the term guidance group as the term guidance group has become associated with negative practices such as excessive advice giving. Here is another key point. In individual treatment the words counseling and therapy are often used interchangeably. However, in the context of group work, therapy is implied when the problem is more severe and more individual work is needed for a longer duration. Psychotherapy groups are commonly used in inpatient psychiatric hospitals and residential facilities for patients with in-depth psychological problems. The psychotherapy group is tertiary and may emphasize the role of the unconscious mind and childhood experiences more than a counseling group. A counseling group would not tend to be psychodynamic and therefore would focus primarily on conscious concerns. A counseling group generally has less structure than a guidance group. In terms of education, the assumption is that the leader of a counseling group needs more training than an individual running a guidance group. That being said (and yes this sounds a bit contradictory) experts will concede that at times a counseling group may overlap with the features of a guidance/psychoeducational group. The group therapy leader must have the most training because he or she may need to treat people who are not functioning in the range of �normality.�
414. Most experts would agree that overall.
a. structured exercises are more effective than unstructured techniques.
b. structured exercises are less effective than unstructured techniques.
c. all well-trained therapists favor structured exercises over unstructured techniques.
d. ethical guidelines must forbid unstructured techniques because they can be dangerous to the depressed or anxious client.
B. A structured group exercise is like an assignment for group members. The leader says, �today we will do so and so....� The benefit is that the exercise helps to speed up group interaction and can help the group focus on a specific issue. Although structured group exercises are very popular and beneficial, they are generally not as effective as unstructured methods. This answer could surprise you if you are new to group work. The well-known existentialist and group theorist Irvin Yalom pointed out that structured exercises can create a situation where group stages are passed over. In addition, the exercise itself often serves to purge feelings too rapidly when members are not emotionally equipped to handle this. Also keep in mind that the excessive use of structured exercises can cause the group to lean on or rely too strongly on the leader for support and direction. Perhaps the crowning blow in regard to relying too heavily on structured group exercises came out of an encounter group project by Lieberman, Yalom, and Miles. The project demonstrated that leaders who utilized many structured exercises were more popular than leaders who did not; nevertheless, the outcome for the group participants was lower! Here is an excellent rule of thumb: Group exercises must correspond to the level of group development. In a beginning group, for example, exercises which build openness and trust are desirable. In the later stages, the focus of the exercises ideally switches to critical feedback.
415. One advantage of group work is that a counselor can see more clients in a given period of time. One disadvantage is that a counselor can be too focused on group processes and.
a. thus individual issues are not properly examined.
b. the group becomes too behavioristic.
c. a and b.
d. thus the group focuses too much on content.
A. Choice �a� is especially apt to occur if the leader is process-oriented. Remember: Content is the material discussed, while process focuses on the way it is being discussed. A word to the wise: The word process can also refer to a type of program review (conducted while a study or a program is in progress or ongoing) and a type of note taking (i.e., psychotherapy notes). You�ll need to zero in on the context of the question on your exam. Choice �d� is certainly not the best answer since a leader focusing on content would not be process-oriented.
416. According to the risky shift phenomenon, a group decision will.
a. be less conservative than the average group member�s decision, prior to the group discussion.
b. be more conservative than the average group member�s decision, prior to the group discussion.
c. often be aggressive or illegal.
d. violate the group�s confidentiality norms.
A. Perhaps what I�m about to suggest is a bit scary to think about but bear with me anyway. Think back for a moment to when you were a teenager. (If you can�t remember that far back, think of a teenager with whom you are currently familiar, such as a relative or a client.) For the most part, your decisions and behavior were probably fairly rational�conservative if you will. Now think about your behavior when you got together with a bunch of your friends, say for a party or a night out on the town. Wouldn�t you have to admit that the group�s decisions and behavior were not as conservative as your views prior to the group interaction? In other words, weren�t group decisions, well, just a bit more �risky?� If your answer to the aforementioned questions was �yes,� then you have the social psychology theory of the �risky shift phenomenon� to explain (not condone!) the behavior of your wild and crazy teen peer group. The risky shift phenomenon dispels the popular notion that groups are very conservative. Some newer research indicates that the group behavior is not necessarily more risky, but does at least shift more toward the social norm than an individual decision made prior to group participation. Social psychology research also indicates that the group experience can polarize decisions such that they are more in line with members� initial views. This tendency is known as �group polarity� or �group polarization.� In essence, group polarization predicts a person�s views may become more extreme after they participate in a group.
417. T-groups often stress ways employees can express themselves in an effective manner. The �T� in T-groups merely stands for.
C. The �T� merely stands for �training.� It is not unusual for T-groups (i.e., training groups) to be called �laboratory-training groups� or even at times �sensitivity groups.� Such a group will focus not on mental health issues but rather on human relations processes between personnel in a business setting. Shared leadership is a common area of concern. Occasionally, a short encounter group or sensitivity group will be termed a �microlab.� Taxonomy (choice �b�) is the science of classification. In the field of counseling, the most common method of determining a client�s classification (which is termed a diagnosis) is to compare the client�s symptoms with those listed in the American Psychiatric Association�s Diagnostic and Statistical Manual (DSM). The DSM is generally used for third-party and insurance payments or research purposes so that mental health professionals will mean the same thing when referring to a client with a given diagnosis. Hint: The exam you will be taking may use the word nosology in place of the word taxonomy, since nosology is the classification of disease.
418. A counselor suggests that her client join an assertiveness training group. Most assertiveness training groups are.
b. psychodynamic or person-centered.
c. focused heavily on existential concerns.
d. behavioristic and highly structured.
D. Groups that rely on numerous exercises are considered �structured� groups, while those which have few exercises or tasks are often known as �unstructured.� Behavioral groups such as an assertiveness training group are generally highly structured. You should be aware that some experts shy away from the term unstructured, stating that a group cannot �not� possess structure. Such theorists would simply say that a given group has a low degree of structure or �less structure.� Nondirective groups, psychodynamic groups (choice �b�), and existential groups (choice �c�) generally would lean toward a low degree of structure. Therapies that stress directive techniques and concrete treatment objectives generally have a high degree of structure. Some theorists use the term structured group only when discussing a group which focuses on a specific topic or theme, for example, assertiveness training, stress management, or coping with test anxiety.
419. Weight Watchers is a.
a. T-group also called a training group.
b. self-help or support group as is AA.
c. psychotherapy group.
d. marathon group.
B. A self-help group (also known as a �support group�) is composed of a group of people who are all attempting to cope with a given issue (e.g., alcoholism, gambling addiction, or weight control). These groups have become much more popular in the last 25 years. Members have a common goal or problem and learn from each other. The group is not led by a professional, though a self-help group may indeed rely on a professional for consultation purposes. And believe me, self-help groups are extremely popular. It is currently estimated that over 500,000 self-help groups exist in the United States and serve the needs of approximately 15 million members. Most self-help groups are voluntary and make an excellent adjunct to professional counseling. Many of these groups follow the 12 steps in Alcoholics Anonymous and therefore are referred to as �12-step groups.� The term marathon group introduced in choice �d� is an easy one to remember. A marathon race is a long race, and a marathon group is one long group. A marathon group�somewhat like a marathon race�plays on the theme that after an extended period of time defenses and facades will drop and the person can become honest, genuine, and real. A marathon group generally lasts a minimum of 24 hours and may be conducted over a weekend or a period of several days. The marathon group paradigm is usually credited to Frederick Stoller and George Bach who created the idea in the 1960s. Splitting hairs� well�maybe? Some advanced exams will split hairs and make you discern a self-help group from a support group although the terms are generally synonymous. The distinction is that a support group is conducted by an organization (say AA or Weight Watchers) and might charge fees, while a self-help group (say a group of neighbors getting together to brainstorm ways to clean up after a flood) would not have either or both of these features.
420. ACA and the ASGW division recommend screening for potential group members.
a. for all groups.
b. only when the group is in a hospital inpatient setting.
c. only when the group is composed of minors.
d. only if the group deals with chemical dependency.
A. Screening is easy enough to define. A professional counselor uses a screening process in order to determine who is appropriate and who will not be appropriate for a given group. Simply put, the membership of a group can determine the success or failure of that particular group. If a prospective group member is undergoing individual counseling and therapy, the group leader should contact the person performing the individual treatment before making a final decision.
421. A counselor is conducting a screening for clients who wish to participate in a counseling group which will meet Tuesday nights at his private practice office. Which client would most likely be the poorest choice for a group member?
a. A shy librarian.
b. An anxious salesman with no group experience.
c. An extremely hostile and belligerent construction worker.
d. A student with 16 hours toward her M.Ed in counseling.
C. Let me help you think this one through. First, the individual�s occupation and the time of the group (i.e., Tuesday nights) are irrelevant. The key factor in answering the question is to identify a personality pattern which may not lend itself to group work. Hostile individuals who act out aggressively (choice �c�), persons who are actively suicidal or homicidal, paranoid clients, those who are totally self-centered, or psychotic individuals (psychotic implies that the person is not in touch with reality) are not appropriate for most counseling groups. I have purposely hedged and used the word most since there are certainly psychotherapy groups which cater to the aforementioned populations (e.g., a group for hospitalized schizophrenics or a group for suicide attempters). Remember that psychotherapy groups focus more on individual concerns, deal with remediation of more serious pathology, and are of longer duration. Nevertheless, it is still possible that if an individual is too dysfunctional in one of the aforementioned areas, he or she would be inappropriate even for a psychotherapy group and the treatment of choice should be an individual modality. Clients who are very verbal, open to feedback from others, and believe in group therapy often make excellent group members.
422. A counselor is screening clients for a new group at the college counseling center. Which client would most likely be the poorest choice for a group member?
a. A first-year student who is suicidal and sociopathic.
b. A second-year student who stutters.
c. A graduate student with a facial tic.
d. A fourth-year student with obsessive-compulsive (OCD) tendencies.
A. If you missed this one then you failed to read the answer from the previous question. I can�t stress strongly enough that you will need to understand the practical application of counseling theory�in all eight areas, not just groups�to do well on your exam! Questions of this nature require understanding rather than just rote memory to answer correctly.
423. A screening for group members can be done in a group or privately. Although private screening interviews are not as cost effective or as time efficient, many group leaders feel they are superior inasmuch as private screening sessions.
a. intensify transference.
b. encourage catharsis.
c. intensify abreaction.
d. are generally superior in terms of counselor/client interaction.
D. ASGW ethical guidelines recommend a pregroup interview for screening and orientation. In essence, the client�s needs must match the goals for the group. The guidelines do not, however, discuss specific selection processes. An individual screening interview allows the client to voice concerns regarding what he or she wants from the group and what procedures will be implemented. The person also can ascertain whether he or she has faith in the leader�s ability. Some of the literature emphasizes that screening is a two-way process (i.e., the leader can decide whether the member is appropriate and the member can decide whether the group and the leader are appropriate). Individual screening modalities also can serve to build trust. However, I�m sure you�ve come across clients as well as acquaintances whose behavior is markedly different in a group as opposed to an individual situation.
424. Most experts in the field of group counseling would agree that the most important trait for group members is the ability.
a. to open up.
b. to listen.
c. to trust.
d. to convey empathy.
C. Expert Irvin Yalom feels that the main factor in selecting participants for a group is that members can feel cohesive (a sense of we-ness, if you will). Research indicates that high denial, low motivation, and low intelligence are associated with premature termination from group therapy.
425. Groups can be open or closed. The two differ in that.
a. open groups are limited to hospital settings.
b. in an open group members can socialize between group meetings.
c. closed groups always employ coleaders.
d. closed groups allow no new members after the group begins
D. You absolutely must be familiar with this important distinction in group work if you want to do well on your exam. A closed group can be likened to a room with a closed door�no new persons can enter. In a closed group the decision is made initially that no new members can join for the life of the group. So, here�s a simple little memory device: �closed groups� have �a closed door policy� regarding new members. Most of your graduate classes would fall into this category. Would a new student be permitted to join your group practice class 8 weeks into a 16-week semester? Hey, in most cases I�d have to say, I don�t think so! An open group simply abides by an �open door policy,� if you will, by allowing new members to join.
426. One major advantage of a closed group versus an open group is.
a. cost effectiveness.
b. it promotes cohesiveness.
c. it lessens counselor burnout.
d. it allows the members to meet less frequently.
B. Generally a closed group will have more cohesiveness or �unity� since the membership is more stable (i.e., new members are not joining), and members get to know each other. Nevertheless, a closed group is not a panacea. Since the closed group does not accept new members after the group is up and running individuals may drop out, and this lessens the overall amount of group interaction. In terms of cost effectiveness (choice �a�), the closed group is at a disadvantage. The agency or private practitioner loses revenue when clients leave and are not replaced.
427. One major disadvantage of a closed group versus an open group is that.
a. if everyone quits, you will be left with no group members.
b. closed groups cannot provide depth therapy.
c. it promotes paranoid feelings in group members.
d. closed groups are much more structured.
A. It doesn�t take a mathematician to discern that if you have six group members and six members quit you are left with no group! In reference to choice �b,� there is no evidence to demonstrate that a closed group could not provide excellent in-depth therapy. Since the closed group promotes cohesiveness (yes, I�m repeating myself, but I want to be certain you grasp this concept) and trust (well, that eliminates choice �c� because trust reduces paranoid ideation in many cases) it could be an excellent modality for intensive therapy. And although a closed group could be more structured than an open group, this is not always the case: So much for choice �d.�
428. The number of people in an open group is generally.
a. more stable than in a closed group.
b. much smaller after an extended period of time than in a closed group.
c. significantly larger than in a closed group.
d. more dependent on the group leader�s marketing skills than in a closed group.
A. This is the type of question you might quibble with on an exam; however, it would be mighty difficult to defend any answer except choice �a.� Yes, I agree that some of the literature uses the term stability to describe the membership in a closed group. The stability, of course, comes from the policy of not allowing new members. If you read this particular question very, very carefully it speaks of the �number of people in an open group.� Remember the hypothetical situation discussed in the last answer. You have a closed group of six members and six members leave the group. You are left with nobody. I�d hardly call that stability, would you? This question is asking you to choose the group strategy, open or closed, which would keep that number of six members stable. In the open group, if six people drop out you could replace them with six new members. I rest my case. Remember that regardless of which exam you must tangle with, a word could be used in a different context than you have encountered in the past.
429. One distinct disadvantage of an open group is that.
a. new members are not accepted after the first meeting.
b. the leader does not control the screening process.
c. a member who begins after the first meeting has missed information or experiences.
d. the group is generally too behavioristic for depth therapy to occur.
C. Open groups have changing membership, and thus different members have been present for different experiences. Choice �a� is obviously incorrect since new members could indeed enter the group after the first session.
430. When a group member is speaking, it is best for the counselor to.
a. try to face the group member.
b. not face the group member, as this does not appear genuine in a group setting.
c. smile while listening.
d. suppress genuine emotion.
A. Choice �a� is often difficult to accomplish as groups are often set up such that members sit in a circular fashion; yet when it is possible, it fosters good �attending behavior� on the part of the group leader. In reference to choice �d,� the qualities which enhance individual counseling are also beneficial when doing group work. Genuineness, which is also known as congruence or authenticity, is advisable in all therapeutic settings.
431. A group setting has a flexible seating arrangement in which clients are free to sit wherever they wish. In this setting it is likely that.
a. an African-American client and a Caucasian leader would sit close together.
b. a Hispanic client and an African-American leader would sit close together.
c. an Asian-American client and an African-American leader would sit close together.
d. an Asian-American leader and an Asian-American client would sit close together.
D. Generally persons who are similar will sit next to each other. In this case, choice �d� is the only choice that mentions two persons of the same race. Now I want to introduce you to two important terms which are related to group composition. In a group where the members are very similar or alike the group composition displays what is known as �homogeneity.� Weight Watchers would be a case in point. Groups which have �homogeneity� are said to be �homogeneous.� Since everybody really has the difficulty or concern (e.g., weight control in this case or alcoholism in AA), people often feel a greater degree of �we-ness� or cohesiveness. Some experts are convinced that homogeneity in terms of intelligence and level of development is desirable. In children�s groups, this would mean an age span of no more than two years (e.g., 10- to 12-year-olds). A �heterogeneous� group or a group which has �heterogeneity� has members who are dissimilar. A general therapy group which has clients with various problems and backgrounds would be an example. (This distinction is easy enough to remember since �heterosexual relationships� are formed via two individuals of a different sex.) The heterogeneous group is more like a microcosm of the social system most of us live in. Moreover, when you combine people you discover that people can learn from each other and this is said to facilitate personality change.
432. A group setting has a flexible seating arrangement in which clients are free to sit wherever they wish. In this setting it is likely that.
a. a male leader in a designer suit and a female client in cutoff jeans will sit close together.
b. a Hispanic male leader in a designer suit and an Asian male client in another brand of designer suit will sit close together.
c. a Caucasian female leader in a designer outfit and a Caucasian male client in a pair of old jeans and an undershirt will sit close together.
d. a male leader in a designer suit and a female client in a jogging suit and old tennis shoes with holes in them will sit close together.
B. Forget the poles of a magnet; in groups �likes� attract. The likelihood is that people who are similar or believe they have �something in common� initially will sit together. Some evidence points to the fact that social class means more than race in terms of group seating.
433. Which statement made by a doctoral-level counselor is illustrative of a leader focused on process rather than product?
a. �Jim seems more relaxed today.�
b. �Sally seems a bit self-critical this evening.�
c. �I hear a lot of sadness in Betty�s voice.�
d. �You wince whenever Jane raises her voice.�
C. The counselor�s level of education is totally irrelevant. Process focuses on the �process,� or manner in which the communication transpires. All of the other choices focus primarily on the analysis of the client�s material, or what is called �content.�
434. Which statement made by a group leader in a residential center for adolescents focuses on product rather than process?
a. �Ken has not stolen for a week and thus is eligible for supplementary tokens.�
b. �And Karen looks down when Bill discusses relationships.�
c. �It sounds like there is a deep sense of hurt....�
d. �Oh, so you fold your arms and sort of close up when Carey mentions the angry side of your personality.�
A. Can you guess what is irrelevant in terms of answering this question?
435. Groups promote the concept of universality, which suggests that.
a. we are unique and so are our problems.
b. there is a universal way to solve nearly any difficulty.
c. a and b.
d. we are not the only ones in the world with a given problem.
D. It is therapeutic just to know that you are not the only person in the world who has a given problem! In this respect the group model has an advantage over individual treatment. Your exam might substitute the word mutuality for universality.
436. In the late 1930s researchers identified three basic leadership styles.
a. directive, nondirective, and semipassive.
b. autocratic (authoritarian), democratic, and laissez faire.
c. relaxed, anxious, and tense.
d. assertive, nonassertive, and aggressive.
B. The classic study regarding leadership styles was conducted by Lewin, Lippitt, and White in 1939. The importance of the study was that it demonstrated that leadership styles do make a difference. In this famous study, 10- and 11-year-old children met with an adult who behaved in an autocratic (authoritarian), democratic, or laissez faire fashion. The French term laissez faire implies that group members can do as they please without leader interference or direction. Children displayed the best behavior when treated in a democratic fashion, while aggressive behavior occurred in response to the other two leadership styles. Generally, the autocratic style proved to be the style members liked least. The study revealed that hostility was 30 times greater in autocratic groups than it was for the other two. This study set the stage for the National Training Laboratories (NTL) mentioned in a previous question. Do not, however, assume that the democratic style is always best. It is not. The autocratic mode seems to be superior when an immediate decision is necessary. When a group has made a decision, and is committed to it, the laissez faire style is usually the leadership model with the most merit. It is interesting to note that although member satisfaction is often highest in response to democratic leadership, this style does not necessarily lend itself to high productivity, according to Stogdill, who reviewed the major research studies related to this topic. Your exam might also mention the charismatic leadership style in which the leader uses his or her personal power, charisma, and attractiveness to abet facilitation. Just for review purposes, choice �d� describes the three communication modes used by assertiveness trainers to determine or discriminate (as it is often called) client response patterns.
437. The autocratic or authoritarian leader may give orders to the group, while the laissez faire leader.
a. assigns a group member as the authoritarian.
b. has a hands-off policy and participates very little.
c. has the most desirable style of leadership.
d. nearly always run open-ended groups.
B. Choice �d� refers to a group that does not sport a given number of sessions or an ending date. If you missed this question please review the previous answer. Stick this sentence on your mirror at home and read it every morning: Effective leaders have discovered that modeling appropriate behaviors improves group participation, even when the members are resistant.
438. When comparing the autocratic, democratic, and laissez faire styles.
a. the autocratic is the most desirable.
b. the laissez faire is the most desirable.
c. the democratic is the most desirable.
d. there is no discernable difference in effectiveness.
C. Here is every test taker�s nightmare. The question is vague. It decidedly does not delineate the specific group situation. Hence, the best way to answer this question is to think in terms of �most situations.� Again, the democratic style is not the most effective in every case; however, it probably lends itself to more situations than the other two. Leaders that focus primarily on the here-and-now are now being called �speculative leaders� on some exams.
439. A group with more than one leader is said to utilize coleaders. Coleadership is desirable because.
a. the group can go on even if one leader is absent.
b. two leaders can focus on group dynamics better than one leader.
c. leaders can process their feelings between sessions.
d. all of the above.
D. Coleadership (i.e., the use of two group leaders) has a number of advantages. In addition to those listed in choices �a,� �b,� and �c,� I could add that two leaders can supply more feedback to group members than one leader. They can learn from each other and can model effective communication for the group.
a. reduces burnout and helps ensure safety.
b. increases burnout.
c. has no impact on burnout.
d. should not be used for open groups.
A. Noted authors on group practice, Marianne Schneider Corey and her husband Gerald Corey, mention their preference for coleadership but indicate that many leaders do in fact work best on their own. Coleaders work best when each leader has a similar philosophy and group style. It is generally accepted that it is best for coleaders to physically sit on opposite sides of the group rather than next to each other.
a. is helpful when one leader is experiencing countertransference.
b. exacerbates the harm of countertransference.
c. has no impact on the issue of countertransference.
d. eliminates all difficulties associated with countertransference.
A. If you have an issue that is unresolved and it is having a negative impact on your intervention (i.e., countertransference), then your coleader can deal with this particular person or issue. A coleader also provides a second role model for participants. Reminder: Transference refers to a client�s issue, while countertransference implies that the helper has issues that are interfering with the treatment process.
442. Coleadership, also referred to as cofacilitation, can be a disadvantage when.
a. leaders are working against each other; this can fragment the group.
b. leaders are intimate with each other.
c. leaders question each other�s competence.
d. all of the above.
D. It is generally accepted that if there are problems between coleaders, it is best if such difficulties are aired in a format that models effective conflict resolution during the session rather than �pretending everything is wonderful.� The best advice is to pick your coleader wisely and meet with this person before and after sessions whenever possible.
443. Coleaders are apt to work at cross-purposes when.
a. they do not meet between group sessions.
b. they do meet between group sessions.
c. they are master�s level practitioners.
d. they are doctoral level practitioners.
A. Choice �b� is recommended for coleaders, while choices �c� and �d� are irrelevant. Coleadership is an excellent way for new leaders to learn the ropes, if they can be paired with a seasoned professional.
444. Gerald Corey, who has written extensively on group therapy, believes _______ is necessary for an effective group leader.
a. a master�s degree in guidance and counseling
b. a doctorate in counselor education
c. participation in a therapeutic group and participation in a leader�s group (even if the individual is well-educated and is licensed and certified)
d. three credit hours in a graduate course in group theory
C. Sorry folks, but according to some experts a wall filled with degrees, plaques, and certifications is not enough; specific training in group work is necessary in order to become a group leader. A 1985 study by Huhn, Zimpfer, Waltman, and Williamson found that 27% of the 76 programs reviewed offered only one course in group counseling. Today a group practice course is generally required prior to taking a licensing exam. A training group for future group leaders is one solution to this dilemma. A training group is composed of �leader trainees,� and unlike a therapeutic group it is focused on leadership skills. Yalom has gone on record as saying that self-exploration (e.g., personal therapy) is generally necessary for potential group leaders to help them deal with issues which could cause countertransference.
445. Most experts would agree that an effective adult counseling group has _______ members.
a. 9 to 12.
b. 3 to 5.
c. 11 to 16.
d. 5 or 6 to 8.
D. An ideal group would have about eight adults. An adolescent group might be slightly smaller, perhaps five or six members. Some experts feel that a group conducted over a long period of time (say six months) can safely have as many as 10 members.
446. Most experts would agree that an effective counseling group for children has.
a. more members than an adult group.
b. less members than an adult group.
c. at least two group leaders.
d. 9 to 12 members.
B. Three or four children is usually recommended, versus about eight people in an adult group.
447. Although the length of group counseling sessions will vary, most experts would agree that _______ is plenty of time even when critical issues are being examined.
a. three hours per session.
b. one hour per session.
c. six hours per session.
d. two hours per session.
D. One and a half to two hours is sufficient for adult group work. Longer groups often beget fatigue in the group members. With children, the group leader should note the members� attention span, which is generally shorter than for adults. Since a children�s group will have shorter sessions, it is often best to rely on more frequent group sessions.
448. In terms of group risks.
a. an ethical leader will discuss them during the initial session with a client.
b. an ethical leader should never discuss risks with a client.
c. research has demonstrated that the less said about them the better the group will interact.
d. an ethical leader allows the group to discover risks and work through them at their own pace.
A. This practice is specified in ASGW�s Ethical Guidelines for Group Leaders, rendering choices �b� and �d� as blatant ethical violations. Hint: Although group confidentiality is desirable, ACA Ethics stipulate that leaders should inform participants that they cannot guarantee confidentiality. Lack of confidentiality is a risk of group intervention.
449. An adept group leader will.
a. attempt to safeguard clients against risks.
b. work to reduce risks and dangers.
c. a and b.
d. let the group handle the dangers on their own.
C. Professional counselors should give clients �information� regarding the group so the clients can make �informed� decisions regarding whether or not the group is appropriate (e.g., the purpose of the group, the risks involved, and the leader�s qualifications). This practice technically is known as �informed consent,� and it is very likely that you will see an exam question related to this issue. Ideally, informed consent occurs during screening before the initial group session, although in the real world this is not always possible.
450. A group participant wants to drop out of a group. Since the group is �closed� ASGW ethics state that.
a. the leader must insist that the client stay.
b. the client must be allowed to withdraw.
c. the leader should allow other members to put pressure on the participant to stay.
d. a and c.
B. In the words of ASGW ethics: �Group leaders shall inform members that participation is voluntary and they may exit the group at any time.� Is this guideline realistic? Some experts certainly would question this guideline to say the very least. Consider a client who is �required� by the court to attend your group because he has perpetrated sexual abuse. In the literal sense this client is not a �voluntary participant.� When a client is required to go to counseling or therapy it is known as �mandatory treatment.� When a client is referred for treatment and is not enthusiastic about the intervention the term reluctant client is usually applied.
451. During the initial session of a group the leader explains that no smoking and no cursing will be permitted. This is known as.
a. setting ground rules.
b. ambivalent transference.
A. When ground rules become the standard of behavior then it is known as a �norm.� The leader can specify the ground rules early in the group. Examples might be no cussing or hitting another group member. The term ambivalent transference, choice �b,� is a psychoanalytic notion often thrown out in multicultural circles which suggests that a client will treat a therapist with ambivalence, as he or she would any person viewed as an authority figure. (Note: Ambivalence implies that the client will experience contradictory emotions, such as love and hate, alternating from one to the other.) Choice �c,� blocking, is a term often used in group work. Blocking occurs when a leader uses an intervention to stop�or block if you will�a negative or counterproductive behavior which could hurt another member or the group. Choice �d,� scapegoating, is precisely the type of behavior a leader would want to block. In scapegoating, members gang up on a single group member.
452. Group norms refer to.
a. a statistically normal group composed of 8 to 12 members.
b. a statistically normal group composed of 12 to 14 members.
c. a normal group with no cultural differences.
d. the range of acceptable behavior within the group.
D. Norms are the written or unwritten do�s and don�ts of the group.
453. The study of group operations is often called.
a. group desensitization.
b. the hot seat technique.
c. group dynamics.
d. structuring the group.
C. Group dynamics refers to the study of the interrelationships and interactions between group members. Group stages, cohesiveness, leadership style, and decision making are prime examples of group dynamics. Any factor that has an impact on the group can be referred to legitimately as a dynamic. The hot seat, choice �b,� is a term popularized by Fritz Perl�s gestalt therapy groups. A person who is the target of the therapist�s interventions in the here-and-now is said to be on the �hot seat.� Choice �d,� or the structuring of the group, is determined by the presence (or lack of) structured tasks or exercises given to members by the group leader. Important point: Often when an exam uses the term structured group (not to be confused with the term group structure) it connotes a group which focuses on a given theme, such as a group for veterans who served in the war in Iraq.
454. The word dynamic means the group is.
b. always changing.
d. defined in an operational manner.
B. Choice �d� is used quite a bit in the social sciences. In order to �operationally define� something you must demonstrate the concrete steps necessary to illuminate the concept. It sounds complex, yet it really isn�t. To operationally define, say, positive reinforcement, you would first note how often a behavior is occurring. Then you might give the client a reward every time he or she performs a desirable behavior, and tabulate the fact that the behavior is occurring more often than before you instituted the procedure. To operationally define the action of writing the letter �t,� you could tell the person to first draw a vertical line of one inch in length and then draw a horizontal line one half inch in length, perpendicular to and one third of an inch from the top of the vertical line. The idea of the operational definition is that another person can duplicate your actions (i.e., the exact steps) for therapeutic, research, or testing purposes. Behaviorists have emphasized the notion of operational definitions more than other therapeutic schools.
455. Experts firmly believe that a common weakness in many groups is.
a. setting too many goals.
b. using a male and a female coleader.
c. that the leader uses a democratic style.
d. a lack of goal setting.
D. Most experts see choice �b,� the use of a male and a female coleader, as a distinct advantage. Often goals are defined yet they are too vague.
456. A group leader who utilizes an abundance of group exercises is.
a. probably not running an assertiveness training group.
b. is running an unstructured group.
c. is running a structured group.
d. is invariably running a self-help group.
C. Look closely at choice �a.� An assertiveness training group would indeed generally use a lot of structured exercises. Choice �d� is also incorrect since a self-help group would not necessarily utilize a lot of structured exercises.
457. Some theorists object to the word unstructured in group work because.
a. a group cannot not have structure.
b. only structured groups are effective.
c. unstructured groups are hardly therapeutic.
d. unstructured refers only to counseling and not to therapy groups.
A. Some research indicates that structured exercises in the initial stages of the group can facilitate better communication.
458. Some research demonstrates that.
a. structured exercises early in the group impaired later communication between group members.
b. structured exercises with feedback early in the group served to improve communication between group members.
c. autocratic or authoritarian leadership styles promote communication best.
d. structured exercises are never appropriate.
B. If you marked choice �c,� then stop this very moment and review the answer to question 436. So far as choice �d� goes, beware of any answer which relies on adverbs like �always� or �never.� Answers sporting the word always are almost always incorrect, and those using never are almost never correct!
459. In some literature, group cohesiveness, or �we-ness,� is known as.
a. group unity.
b. a sociogram.
c. Karpman�s triangle.
d. the transition stage.
A. The unity is actually a feeling of belonging, oneness, or togetherness. A sociogram (choice �b�) is simply a pictorial account of a group which serves to diagram member interaction. Choice �c,� Karpman�s drama triangle, is used most often in conjunction with transactional analysis (TA) as a teaching device to illuminate the roles of persecutor, rescuer, and victim in interpersonal relationships. The final choice, the transition stage, is the group stage which occurs after the first or so-called initial stage. In the initial stage members get acquainted and learn norms. In the second or transition stage members are often judgmental, resistant, or involved in a struggle for power to establish a hierarchy or �pecking order.�
460. Group members assume roles within a group. Which of the following is not a group role?
d. reactive schizophrenia.
D. In counseling the term reactive means that a given condition is the result of environmental stress. Hence, reactive schizophrenia would imply that the person experienced a psychotic episode following a traumatic experience. This would be in contrast to an individual who was seemingly always schizophrenic, and the pathology could not be traced to any given set of circumstances. Choices �a,� �b,� and �c� are common roles individuals will play in a group setting. The energizer stimulates enthusiasm in the group (e.g., �Come on folks this will be a lot of fun; and besides we�ll really learn a lot�). The scapegoat is the person everybody blames. He or she is invariably the target of severe anger and hostility (e.g., �Look Marv, we all agree that if it weren�t for you we would have solved the problem two weeks ago�). The gatekeeper tries to make certain that everyone is doing his or her task and is participating. This person may �secretly� or �unconsciously� want to lead the group and could even attempt to establish norms. The danger is that a gatekeeper often does not work on his or her own personal issues (e.g., �From now on I�d like everybody to bring a journal to the group and write down at least one positive thing which happened during the week�). Is that the leader speaking out or the gatekeeper blowing off steam? Only the group members know for sure!
461. A group member who insists on asking other members inappropriate questions is known as a Peeping Tom or.
a. an energizer.
b. a scapegoat.
c. an interrogator.
d. a follower.
C. The �interrogator� asks a never-ending string of questions, while the �follower� goes along with the rest of the group.
462. The follower goes along with whatever the rest of the group thinks. From a personality standpoint the follower is.
c. practicing excitation.
D. Choice �c� relates to Andrew Salter�s conditioned reflex therapy in which �excitation� or the practice of spontaneously experiencing and expressing true emotions (even negative ones) is seen as necessary in order to attain a state of positive mental health. �Inhibition,� or constipation of emotions, is seen as the opposite of excitation. Salter said: �However, in psychotherapy we need have no fear. The diagnosis is always inhibition.�
463. The _______ may secretly wish that he or she was running the group.
c. social isolate.
B. I joke with my students about adding a note to the university course catalog under my groups course which says �only former gatekeepers need to apply.� See answer 460 if you fail to see the humor! Choice �d� introduces the harmonizer role. Some books and exams bill this as the �conciliator,� or the person who tries to make certain that everything is going smoothly.
464. Everybody picks on.
a. the gatekeeper.
b. the harmonizer, also known as the conciliator.
c. the scapegoat.
d. the storyteller, the intellectualizer, the attacker, and the joker.
C. The storyteller, choice �d,� monopolizes a wealth of group time telling endless (often irrelevant) tales. A group leader will sometimes need to help this person get to the point or will need to ask the person precisely how the story is productive in the context of the group setting. This choice also lists a bevy of other self-explanatory roles members can play.
465. A female group member is obviously not participating. A group member playing the _______ is most likely to mention this and urge her to participate.
A. One popular notion is that these roles relate to the person�s pattern of behavior in his or her nuclear family, and if appropriate the group leader can explore this hypothesis. In addition to the popular aforementioned roles, Hartford spoke of an �isolate role.� The isolate is ignored by others. Isolates generally feel afraid to reach out or do reach out and are genuinely rejected� for exam purposes keep in mind that the isolate is not the same as the scapegoat. Scapegoats receive attention, although it is not by any means overwhelmingly positive. Isolates�a negative group role often referred to as the �silent one��on the other hand, receive little or no attention.
466. Cohesiveness, or group unity, is desirable. It promotes bonding and a sense of �we-ness� between group members. When cohesiveness is strong, nevertheless, it also can be negative as.
a. it can stunt creativity.
b. it can abet conformity.
c. a and b.
d. it can cause the group to split into factions.
C. The word faction in choice �d� describes a clique or a group of people within a group. You might, for example, have a faction which does not wish to go along with a certain task or group exercise. The sociogram mentioned earlier can help identify group factions. A faction also may be called a �subgroup.�
467. In a healthy group, members.
a. assume a role and never change it.
b. have no roles.
c. are flexible and can change roles.
d. spend a great deal of time practicing role reversal.
C. In order to meet the �changing needs� of the group, members often need to �change roles.� Choice �d,� or role reversal, is a common behavioral role-playing technique. A client who is having difficulty communicating with another person in his or her life role-plays the person with whom he or she is having difficulty. Another group member (or the leader) plays the group member with the problem. This valuable technique gives the group member a new perspective on the situation and allows the person to learn via modeling alternative ways of behaving.
468. In a group, task roles.
a. help solve problems.
b. aid in terms of goal setting and keep the group focused.
c. are seen as positive.
d. all of the above.
D. Here is a key concept. Group specialists classify member roles as: task roles, maintenance roles, and self-serving roles. (On some exams, self-serving roles will be identified as �individual roles.�) The distinctions are actually fairly easy to remember. In everyday life when we refer to a �task� we mean a job or something which needs to be accomplished. A task role (e.g., an information giver or a clarifier) simply helps the group carry out a task. A maintenance role (e.g., the follower, mentioned earlier, or an encourager) helps �maintain� or even strengthen group processes. The final category (i.e., the self-serving role) is seen as negative. The person who falls into this category meets his or her own �individual needs� at the expense of the group. A person who downright refuses to participate or a person who criticizes or disagrees with others would be a prime example. Final hint: An entire group could be classified as a task group or perhaps a task/work group. A group of this nature focuses on accomplishing work goals. According to former ACA president, textbook author, and group expert Sam Gladding, an athletic team would fall into this category, as would a quality circle employee run group attempting to improve a business.
469. Maintenance roles, like task roles, are positive since such roles.
a. help to maintain the group.
b. are self-serving.
c. help promote autocratic leadership.
d. always stress the importance of the here-and-now.
A. Remember: Maintenance really implies that the role maintains group interaction. Maintenance roles support the group�s livelihood and hence are seen as positive. Paul Hersey and Kenneth Blanchard point out that leader activities generally fall into �task actions� and �maintenance actions� (i.e., relationship concerns). Hersey and Blanchard believe that the most effective leadership approach depends on the group situation. The researchers speak of �maturity� in regard to a specific task. If a group member has low maturity�which is really a lack of achievement motivation�then the leader should use �high task� and �low relationship� behaviors. As maturity gets better, a �high task� and �high relationship� paradigm is ideal. And when group members display very high maturity, then a �low task� and �low relationship� leadership format would be desirable. Now listen closely: task action leadership is said to be indicative of one-way communication (i.e., the leader tells the members about a task to accomplish), while relationship behavior is said to be the result of two-way communication (i.e., the leader provides emotional support for members). Hersey and Blanchard suggest that it is not atypical for a member to display maturity on one task and a distinct lack of maturity on the next. Now I want to stress two very important points here. One is that when you see the words task and maintenance on your exam, the concepts could refer to either a group member�s role or the leader�s behavior. The other concept I want you to be familiar with is that conflict between group members can often be abated by having the leader prescribe a �task� on which all the members must work together in order to accomplish it.
470. Self-serving or individual roles are negative inasmuch as.
a. they promote democratic leadership.
b. they work against the group.
c. they serve the individual and not the group.
d. b and c.
D. Self-serving or so-called individual roles are counterproductive.
471. Although task roles and maintenance roles are indeed positive, the group can suffer if the group is not flexible and remains in one or the other too long since.
a. an effective group needs some self-serving roles.
b. if a group gets stuck in task roles, interaction suffers.
c. if a group gets stuck in maintenance roles, little work (or tasks) will be accomplished.
d. b and c.
D. I believe this clarifies the point made earlier that group members ideally will be flexible and able to change roles.
472. Group specialists define role conflict as.
a. tension between two group members who have assumed different roles.
b. a situation in which there is a discrepancy between the way a member is expected to behave and the way he or she actually behaves.
c. tension between the group leader and a group member.
d. members criticizing other members between group sessions.
B. The word conflict comes from the Latin word conflictus, which means �striking together with force.� Please do not confuse �role conflict� with the group term conflict of interest, which occurs when a group member maximizes his or her needs and interests at the expense of someone else.
473. A major group dynamic is group development. This is usually expressed in terms of.
a. the number of hours of group conflict.
b. theories of group stages.
c. the Rosenthal Effect.
d. the Hawthorne Effect.
B. Here is a very helpful hint. Do not�I repeat�do not attempt to memorize every single group stage theory ever invented. First because you have better things to do with your time (I would hope!), and second because there are far too many. Most of the theories are very similar and thus if you know the basic format you will have a very good chance of answering the question correctly. The first stage generally is known simply as the �initial stage.� (Now there�s one that�s so simple you won�t need a memory device!) Others have termed this stage as �orientation and exploration,� or �preaffiliation,� or �forming.� The next stage usually is designated as the �transition stage,� though you will often see it termed �power and control� or �storming,� which logically comes after �forming.� The third major stage is the �working stage,� �norming stage,� �cohesion stage,� or �negotiation, intimacy, and frame of reference.� The final stage is sometimes known as the �separation stage,� the �termination stage,� �the closure stage,� or �adjourning.� Choices �c� (no relation to yours truly!) and �d� will be covered in the sections on research.
474. Irvin Yalom is a famous existentialist therapist and a pioneer in the group movement. He suggested these four group stages: orientation, conflict, cohesion, and termination. In 1977 Tuckman and Jensen reviewed 25 years of research and came up with five stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Which stage in Tuckman and Jensen�s paradigm is similar to Yalom�s orientation stage?
A. Okay, you deserved an easy one. Note that different group theories have differences in the number of stages. Your best bet on the exam is to try to note the similarities between the major theories. For example, the initial �group formation� stage examined in this question (i.e., orientation, forming, preparation, engagement, and who knows what some creative theorist will dare call it next!) is focused on the establishment of norms and approach�avoidance behavior of group members. Members will be tentative and size up other members. Members will identify or get acquainted with others based on culture, language, mode of dress, or occupation.
475. The final stage suggested by theories of group stages generally deals with issues of.
a. group tasks.
c. power and control.
d. separation and termination.
D. The final stage is said to represent a time of breaking away, or in plain, simple, everyday English: saying good-bye. Group members can experience loss and need to establish bonds outside of the group setting. The ideal situation would be that termination takes place after the group and its members have reached their goals (e.g., greater insight, improved self-esteem, accomplishment, and awareness) and have no further unfinished business. Certainly, in reality (such as when a client needs to leave a hospital group because his or her insurance has run out) this is not always the case. Additional referrals may be necessary.
476. The initial group stage has been called forming, orientation, or the preaffiliation stage. This stage is characterized by.
a. avoidance�avoidance conflicts.
b. a tendency for members to compete with the leader for power.
c. approach�avoidance behavior.
d. members working on the interpretation of unconscious behavior.
C. Yes, I�m being redundant with the words I�m using in my questions and my answers, but this will help you become more accustomed to the lingo of group work, and I�ve got this uncanny suspicion that it�s working! In the first stage people want to be accepted but are scared to participate: Now, what about choice �a?� Well, an avoidance�avoidance conflict exists when you have two alternatives which are both unattractive, such as when your boss says you can either take a pay cut or lose your job. The approach�avoidance situation taking place in the initial group stage is a conflict wherein you are attracted and repelled by the same goal. In an analogous situation: You want to meet group members, but it�s scary to think about the fact that you could be rejected.
477. A client would generally feel the most suspicious of others in.
a. the final stage of separation or termination.
b. the intimacy stage.
c. the group formation/exploratory stage.
d. a group with coleadership, also known as cofacilitation.
C. Safety comes from seeking common ground. That is to say, the new group member seeks out others of similar social status. Like Erikson�s first psychosocial stage of development, the initial group stage hosts the �trust versus mistrust� drama.
478. Fights between subgroups and members showing rebellion against the leader generally occur in.
a. the second stage known as the control stage or the transition stage.
b. the first stage known as the orientation stage or formation stage.
c. the separation stage.
d. the intimacy stage.
A. Garland, Jones, and Kolodny appropriately called stage 2 �power and control.� This is the stage in which the fireworks fly as group members verbally attack one another, not to mention the group leader.
479. A hierarchy, or pecking order, among members occurs in.
a. the stage of storming, also known as the power�control stage.
b. the orientation stage.
c. the separation stage.
d. the intimacy stage.
A. Ditto! This is the stage movies are made of. Members rank themselves in terms of status and factions (mentioned earlier). Isolated members who are not protected by the strong subgroup (faction) sometimes drop out. It should come as no surprise that some authors have called this the �high anxiety� or �struggle for control stage.� And how is a leader to handle this turmoil? Corey and Corey appropriately suggest that the leader learns to distinguish between a �challenge� and an �attack.� Do not assume, say the Coreys that every confrontation is an attack on your integrity as a leader. Leaders can model responsible assertive confrontation with open and truthful expression.
480. Group planning occurs.
a. in the initial stage.
b. in the stage after the transition or conflict stage.
c. in the final stage, also known as the termination stage.
d. before the group begins and continues throughout the life of the group.
D. The term ecological planning has been used to describe the process of obtaining information to determine whether a group is the most desirable form of treatment and, if it is, to decide the exact nature of the group experience. The counselor needs to look at demographics, community needs, and social considerations. After the group begins, program development or session by session planning is recommended. Planning can also include: (a) Whether to use a single facilitator or coleadership; (b) an assessment of the best surroundings (i.e., the room or rooms where the group will be held); (c) how the group will receive funding or payment for the group (e.g., will insurance pay for the service?); (d) whether a marketing or recruitment strategy is necessary; (e) what information can be useful from books, journals, or the Internet; (f) how the clients will be screened and prepared for the group; and (g) providing clients with informed consent documents.
481. The final group stage (also called the termination stage) is geared toward.
a. developing intimacy.
b. working through power and control issues.
d. breaking away.
D. This phase has been called �consolidation� and occurs after the working stage. The leader helps members make plans for the future. I must point out that group specialists feel that every group does not necessarily pass through every stage (even after an extended period of time) and that there is not always a clear-cut discernible line of demarcation separating one group stage from another.
482. A group therapist is constructing a diagram to better understand the dynamics between subgroups and members. This is called.
b. ego state analysis.
c. charting a pictorial sociogram.
d. charting the variance.
C. The study of measuring person-to-person relationships regarding what members in a group think or feel is known as �sociometry.� In essence, sociometry is a quantitative study of relationship concerns in a group. The sociogram, credited to Moreno and Jennings, graphically displays group members� affiliations and interactions. Choice �a,� or family sculpturing, is a family therapy technique in which the family members are instructed to arrange themselves spatially to create a live representation of family members� bonds, feelings of closeness (or lack of it), and sense of alliances. Choice �b� is a common practice in transactional analysis in which the counselor helps the client discern out of which ego state (i.e., Parent, Child, or Adult) he or she is primarily operating in a given situation.
483. A group leader who asks each group member to recapitulate what he or she has learned during a given session is promoting.
A. Summarization, which is also appropriate in individual work, is merely the act of bringing together a number of important thoughts, insights, feelings, or transactions.
484. A leader who wishes to stop inappropriate discussion should rely on.
C. Blocking in groups is very much like blocking a punch in a boxing match. Blocking is used by the leader to stop (or block if you will) a hurtful behavior. Blocking in therapy is often necessary for the protection of group members. Blocking can be used in cases of gossiping or breaking confidentiality. Choice �b,� clarification, is another important skill group leaders must possess. A leader uses clarification to ferret out the important points in a client�s message. Clarification brings out the gist of a message and illuminates what was really said to lessen any confusion. The final choice, linking, is used to promote cohesion. A link is an attempt to bring together common patterns or themes within the group.
485. When a leader attempts to relate one person�s predicament to another person�s predicament, it is known as.
D. When used properly, linking illuminates areas of mutual concern. This often enhances group interaction.
486. Strategies that approach the group as a whole are known as.
a. vertical interventions.
b. horizontal interventions.
c. crossed transactions.
d. parallel transactions.
B. When working in a group setting, the leader needs to decide whether to work with the group as a whole (called a horizontal intervention) or with individuals within the group (called a vertical intervention�note choice �a�). Of course by now you realize how valuable memory devices are in terms of helping you to remember distinctions. Here�s the one I have found valuable in this case. If you picture a group in your mind it appears spread out �horizontally.� On the other hand, if you picture yourself doing counseling with an individual in a group, the individual is usually sitting up in a �vertical� position. In the case of the vertical intervention the leader is providing individual counseling in a group work setting. Techniques which focus on group relationships, processes, tasks, and interactions are said to be horizontal intervention strategies. The horizontal approach is often called the �interpersonal� method since it focuses on interactions. The vertical approach has been termed �intrapersonal� leadership. Shapiro, who suggested the intrapersonal�interpersonal leadership distinction, feels that a leader does not really choose one or the other but tends to behave on a continuum in this respect.
Key point: You would do well to remember that interpersonal leaders favor here-and-now interventions while intrapersonal leaders are more likely to work on the past, sometimes employing psychodynamic notions. An effective counselor should rely on both types of interventions. If, for example, a leader stresses vertical intrapersonal interventions, members may be hesitant to speak or react in a spontaneous manner. In this case the group member might literally think, �It�s not my turn to speak yet Dr. X is working with Jane now.� The other side of the coin, however, is that the horizontal interpersonal leader may lose some power as an expert who can model or reinforce appropriate behavior.
487. Strategies that focus on an individual member of the group are known as.
a. vertical interventions.
b. horizontal interventions.
c. crossed transactions.
d. parallel transactions.
A. Again, use your memory device. See that individual sitting or standing�she�s in a vertical position, of course. Choices �c� and �d� relate to transactional analysis (TA). A crossed transaction between two persons� ego states is said to be dysfunctional, while a parallel transaction promotes healthy communication. Although quite frankly TA is a bit, well, let�s just say dated, it is conceivable that a question or two could still pop up on your exam.
488. A group therapist must make.
a. fewer decisions than an individual therapist.
b. the same number of decisions as an individual therapist.
c. modality changes for each group.
d. more decisions than an individual therapist.
D. Thus, most experts would agree that it is more difficult to do productive group work than it is individual work. Nevertheless, in many settings the only way to reach all the people who need counseling in a finite period of time is to use group work.
489. When a counselor reads the journals in this field, it becomes evident that.
a. group counseling has more research than individual counseling.
b. researchers and practitioners are working very closely to provide accurate and effective group strategies.
c. a researcher/practitioner split exists in group work.
d. no journals focus solely on group work.
C. Practical research about what exactly works best in a group setting is scarce. Moreover, many studies in the field of group work have not been well controlled. In many studies, the independent variable (i.e., the experimental variable) has not been scientifically defined. Say, for example, the independent variable in a study is a �T-group intervention.� This indeed could create a problem since a T-group to leader A might not seem like a T-group to leader B.
490. Experts predict that in the future.
a. group leaders will be more like life-skills trainers.
b. group leaders will become more person-centered.
c. group leaders will return to a psychodynamic viewpoint.
d. groups will lose their popularity and eventually die out.
A. The position has been taken that in the past groups have emphasized a narrow focus (e.g., a group for nonassertive bosses), and in the future groups should begin to deal with a broad spectrum of issues or what some call a �comprehensive model� of group work. A comprehensive educational life-skills model could stress preventive mental health skills, hopefully lowering the need for �therapeutic groups.� Therefore, ultimately the counselor of the life-skills group would act more like a trainer than a therapist.
491. According to researchers, groups are effective.
a. although researchers cannot pinpoint precisely why this is true.
b. due to increased transference in group work.
c. due to better morale in a group setting.
d. due to the emphasis on cognitive restructuring.
A. Research in the area of group work is sometimes classified as �outcome research� or �product research.� Outcome research addresses the question of whether the group was able to reach a given set of goals or simply the desired �outcome.� An outcome study attempts to answer the question of whether or not the group was successful (i.e., does the group work). Process research is aimed at the question of �how groups work.� Process research asks, �What allows the group to reach a target outcome?�
492. A major limitation related to group work is that.
a. REBT cannot be utilized in group therapy.
b. it is not really cost effective.
c. gestalt therapy cannot be used in a group setting.
d. a group leader can lose control and members could experience emotional harm.
D. Let me make certain that the purpose of this question is perfectly clear: You must know the strengths and limitations of group work for almost any comprehensive exam. Choice �d� depicts a major limitation. Other limitations include: (a) that a client may need individual therapy before he or she can benefit from group work; (b) that a client may not be capable of trusting others enough to reveal key material since he or she fears others may find it unacceptable; (c) that the group could become a substitute experience for the real world; (d) that the group counselor may not be as effective with a whole group of people as he or she is with just one person in individual treatment; (e) that some clients may feel pressure to replace their personal norms with those of the group; and (f) that disappointment can set in if the group is not helpful and the person loses faith in treatment without experiencing individual sessions. Group work can often be intimidating and this can squelch client disclosure. Clients also receive less time working with the counselor than in individual counseling. In today�s fast-paced world, the lack of flexibility in terms of meeting times for the sessions may prohibit someone from attending a group. Finally, lack of trust related to confidentially often sways clients to opt for individual treatment. Group therapy generally is not the treatment of choice when the client is in a state of crisis, needs an interpretation of his or her psychological tests, needs confidentiality for protection (groups are notorious for having more problems with confidentiality than individual treatment), or is phobic in regard to public speaking. Choices �a,� �b,� and �c� are totally false. PS: If your client is seeing an individual therapist that therapist needs to know that his or her client is planning to join your group.
493. A major advantage of group work versus individual work is that.
a. members learn to give help in addition to receiving it and group sessions generally cost less (i.e., they are more economical) than individual counseling sessions.
b. the leader has a less complex role than that of an individual counselor.
c. the group leader nearly always possesses more training than an individual counselor.
d. all of the above.
A. Other group advantages include (a) that group work allows for �in vivo� interpersonal work with a sense of belonging; (b) that it is cost effective and allows a trained counselor to help a greater number of people; (c) that it promotes universality; (d) that it can be an effective support system; (e) that members get multiple feedback; and (f) that members can model successful communication and coping skills. Groups are like a microcosm of society that offers vicarious learning and support. And oh yes, although it would be nice if choice �c� were true (since group leaders generally need more training than individual helpers), the truth is that many people are running groups without any training whatsoever in group work.
494. Which statement best depicts a major advantage of group work?
a. Group work usually focuses on the here-and-now.
b. Group work is always time limited.
c. Group work is always superior for career counseling.
d. The group setting is somewhat analogous to the communication and interaction of everyday life.
D. Overall, research would support the notion that groups work, and yes, they have advantages. However�and this is one important point folks�there is no body of research which would say that in general group work is superior to other forms of treatment. Please reread the previous sentence�yes, it�s that important!
495. Which of these factors is not delineated by Yalom as a curative factor?
a. altruism, universality, and existential learning
b. manifest dream content and insight into the unconscious mind
c. catharsis, cohesiveness, and instillation of hope
d. imitative behavior and reenactment of family experiences.
B. Yalom is an existential therapist. Choice �b� is psychoanalytic.
496. In terms of research and the group leader�s personality.
a. extroverts are the most effective leaders.
b. introverts are the most effective leaders.
c. qualities such as flexibility, enthusiasm, and common sense may be helpful to a very small degree.
d. qualities such as flexibility, enthusiasm, and common sense have a tremendous positive impact.
C. Unfortunately, overall studies have turned up little in terms of �special characteristics� of group leaders� personalities. So much for the concept of super leaders!
497. Conyne suggested that group intervention is intended to.
a. ferret out unconscious material.
b. enhance rational self-talk.
c. illuminate dysfunctional nonverbal behavior.
d. prevent, correct, or enhance behavior.
D. R. K. Conyne�s �group work grid� model includes four intervention levels: individual, interpersonal, organization, and community population. The intervention can be correction oriented or enhancement oriented for either personal or task functions.
498. A group leader who wishes to assess the impact of the group ideally would.
a. hand out a written evaluation form during the final session.
b. hold a follow-up session so members can share experiences.
c. have an outside �observer� sit in during group sessions and consequently rate the level of behavioral change.
d. give each member a pretest and a posttest utilizing a projective measure.
C. Keep in mind that you are looking for the best answer here. All of the choices are correct; however, choice �c� is superior to the other three. Research in the area of group work has been criticized for not using independent observers. When taking your exam be aware that �member-specific measures� are designed to assess change (or lack of it) in an individual group member. Most member-specific measures, such as a self-rating or (better still) a rating by an outside observer, are not standardized. In contrast to the �member-specific measure,� researchers speak of �group-specific measures,� which are intended to measure the degree of change (or again, lack of it) in all persons participating in the group. Lastly, the so-called �global measures,� such as standardized tests, may well assess traits and factors not specifically addressed in the group. For example, giving members of a Weight Watchers group a pre- and post-MMPI-2 would constitute a global measurement.
499. A group leader who is counseling children under 10 years of age could best enhance the treatment process by.
a. involving parents and asking them for input.
b. keeping the parents uninvolved.
c. reminding the children to speak softly at all times
d. b and c.
A. Corey and Corey suggest that parental involvement can reduce resistance and improve cooperation. They also warn counselors not to take sides with a child against a parent or institution.
500. When an adolescent complains about his or her parents in the group it is best to.
a. jump on the bandwagon and agree with the child.
b. avoid taking sides but help him or her see the parents� point of view via a therapeutic technique such as role-playing.
c. talk only about positive experiences.
d. immediately put the child on the hot seat.
B. This principle is true for adolescents as well as children under 10. When working with children and adolescents be careful what you say about confidentiality, since in the case of child abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, or exploitation you will be required ethically and legally obligated to break confidentiality (just as you would if you saw an elderly individual who is being abused). In addition, ethics would dictate that you do likewise if a child is suicidal or plans to seriously harm another individual. Of course, these last two points would apply to all age brackets, in group or individual treatment. In closing this section I can share the fact that literally hundreds of studies attest to the effectiveness of group work.
501. Lifestyle and career development have been emphasized.
a. only since the late 1950s.
b. only since the late 1960s.
c. only since nondirective counseling became popular.
d. since the beginning of the counseling and guidance movement and are still major areas of concern.
D. Several former ACA presidents (e.g., Sam Gladding and Mark Pope) wisely posit that counseling is the only mental health profession with proficiency in the area of career counseling. In fact, the beginning of the guidance movement has often been associated with the work of Frank Parsons who started the Boston Vocation Bureau on January 13, 1908 just nine months prior to his death. He was a Cornell graduate who later became Boston�s chief law clerk and then the Dean of the Liberal Arts College at Glen Ellyn, Illinois. His landmark work, Choosing a Vocation, was published posthumously, thus it is doubtful that he ever knew the true impact he had on the field. Parsons served as the Bureau�s director as well as a vocational counselor. The Bureau was set up at the Civic Service House though Parsons also had office hours in branch offices at the YMCA, the Economic Club, and the Women�s Educational and Industrial Union. This explains why historians insist that the guidance movement in the United States began with vocational guidance. John M. Brewer, a director of the Bureau during World War I and the author of the 1942 work History of Vocational Guidance, speculated that as a bachelor Parsons could have been drawn to the Civic Service House in search of friendship. How do neophyte counselors really feel about conducting career counseling? In a nutshell: not that great! Most of the literature suggests that grad students and beginning counselors sport a negative attitude toward the career counseling and see the work of performing personal counseling as having more prestige. Interestingly enough, career counseling trailblazer John O. Crites feels that the need for career counseling exceeds the need for therapy. Moreover, according to Crites, career counseling (which he feels is more difficult than performing psychotherapy) can be therapeutic since a positive correlation between career counseling and personal adjustment is evident. Although not all counselors would agree with Crites� assertions, it seems safe to say that in reality, the two disciplines overlap.
502. One trend is that women are moving into more careers that in the past were populated by males. Women workers are often impacted by the �glass ceiling phenomenon.� Assuming that a counselor�s behavior is influenced by the phenomenon, which statement would he most likely make when conducting a career counseling session with a female client who wants to advance to a higher position?
a. �Your ability to advance in the corporate world is generally based on your mother�s attitude toward work. Can you tell me a little about that?�
b. �Actually, women can advance quite rapidly in the corporate world. I support you 100%. I�d say you should be optimistic and go for the position.�
c. �Let�s be rational: A woman can only advance so far. You really have very little if any chance of becoming a corporate executive. I�m here to help you cope with this reality.�
d. �In most cases a female will work in a position that is at the same level as her father. Did your dad ever work as a corporate executive?
C. Women now comprise 46% of the U.S. work force or approximately 69 million women, so statistically speaking lots of women can benefit from career counseling. This number has risen dramatically since 1900. The glass ceiling phenomenon suggests that women are limited in terms of how far they can advance in the world of work. The glass ceiling effect is a form of occupational sex-role stereotyping that can limit women�s careers. This concept is somewhat analogous to the lavender ceiling which purports that the same basic notion is true for gay, lesbian, bisexual, and transgendered individuals. Okay, back to the subject of female workers. One notion is that the high divorce rate (which currently impacts nearly one out of two marriages) created the phenomenon of the �displaced homemaker.� A displaced homemaker is a woman with children who was a homemaker but is currently in need of work to support her family. Women who have made the transition from homemaker to jobs outside the home could very well be referred to as �reentry women� on your exam. It has been estimated that 75% of all divorces occur in families with children. In the last twenty years career counseling experts have begun to focus on women�s issues. Most scholars believe that the focus on minorities is still lagging behind.
503. Most research in the area of career development and its relationship to students indicates that.
a. a very high proportion of students in high school and at the junior high or middle-school level wanted guidance in planning a career. Career interests are more stable after college.
b. students did not want career guidance despite its importance.
c. many students were too inflexible to benefit from career guidance.
d. high school students wanted career guidance but junior high school or middle-school-level students did not.
A. Simply put: all levels including high school and college want career counseling. Three-fourths of the eleventh graders wanted help with career planning and the number who wanted help in the eighth grade was nearly as high, rendering choice �d� incorrect. Most studies indicate that students would like more help in the area of career planning, including the fact that 50% of all college students have career difficulties. This information is especially important in regard to young African Americans who have fewer positive work role models. Why limit our discussion to just young people? Perhaps you�ve heard the statistic floating around which suggests that one in five workers snares a job based on chance factors and that 60% of all workers would like more information about the world of work if they had to do it all over again. Some brief comments on decision making, job performance, and career counseling: Another key issue is pervasive indecisiveness. This label describes a person who has a lifelong pattern of severe anxiety related to decision making. Needless to say, this affliction makes the act of deciding on a career that much more difficult. Victor Vroom�s motivation and management expectancy theory throws another mix of factors into the ring that is relevant once the individual is employed. He suggests that an employee�s performance is influenced by valence (will the work provide rewards such as money, a promotion, or satisfaction?); expectancy (what does the person feel he or she is capable of doing?); and instrumentality (will the manager actually give the employee the promised reward such as a raise?)
504. A dual-career family (or dual-worker couple) is one in which both partners have jobs to which they are committed on a somewhat continuous basis. Which statement is true of dual-career families?
a. Surprisingly enough, dual-career families have lower incomes than families in which only one partner works.
b. Dual-career families have higher incomes than the so-called traditional family in which only one partner is working.
c. Dual-career families have incomes which are almost identical to families with one partner working.
d. Surprisingly enough, no research has been conducted on dual-career families.
B. Common sense prevails here as two incomes are indeed usually better than one. Nevertheless, since both partners are working there are more problems related to household chores and responsibilities. Competition between the partners can also be an issue that may need to be dealt with in counseling. Today over 54% of all marriages are dual-earner marriages. The figure hovers around the 60% mark when we examine families with children. Compare this to the 1950 statistic of 20.4%.
505. In the dual-career family, partners seem to be more self-sufficient than in the traditional family. In a dual-career household, the woman.
a. generally has children before entering the work force.
b. rarely if ever has children.
c. is not self-reliant.
d. is typically secure in her career before she has children.
D. Choice �a� is true of the traditional family while choice �d� describes the dual-career family. Choice �c� contradicts research which insists that partners in a dual-career family are more self-sufficient than in the traditional family.
506. Studies indicate that.
a. students receive ample vocational guidance.
b. most parents can provide appropriate vocational guidance.
c. students want more vocational guidance than they receive.
d. career days meet the vocational guidance needs of most students.
C. If you missed this question please review question 503. Hint: Some exams will distinguish between career counseling and vocational guidance. Guidance is seen as a developmental and educational process within a school system while career counseling is viewed as a therapeutic service for adults performed outside an educational setting. Semantics? Perhaps, but you may need it to boost your exam score!
507. Statistics reveal that.
a. on average, a worker with a bachelor�s degree earns over $10,000 a year more than a worker with a high school diploma.
b. fewer workers possess a high-school degree than ever before.
c. blue-collar jobs are growing faster than white-collar jobs.
d. older workers are slower than younger workers and have less skill.
A. The last time I checked the U.S. Census Bureau reported that the average earnings for a bachelor�s level employee check in at $51,206 a year while the person with a high school diploma was bringing in $27,912 making choice �a� right on target. Asians had the highest percentage of individuals with a bachelor�s degree, followed by Whites, African Americans, and Hispanics. Choice �b� is blatantly false. The number of workers in the labor force with a high-school degree has increased; more than 75% of all workers now sport a high-school diploma. The same could be said of choice �c�: blue-collar jobs have not increased as rapidly as white-collar positions. These changes may be based partially on the fact that the United States has become a service economy rather than focusing primarily on the production of goods. Some exams�as well as many textbooks�will mention the �changing view of work.� This phrase generally indicates that in the past work was seen as drudgery, while today it is seen as a vehicle to express our identity, self-esteem, and status. In the past work was primarily a way to pay the bills. Today, the rewards of a career are often conceptualized as fulfilling emotional needs. This would seem to indicate that people who don�t need to work would still continue to do so. Is this really the case? According to a 1978 text on lottery winners by H. R. Kaplan, million dollar winners who quit their jobs felt dissatisfied. (We should all be lucky enough to be included in a study like this!) And did you by any chance mark choice �d�? Well if you did, you need to know that experience impacts job performance more than age does. Some research demonstrates that older workers are actually more adept than younger ones in terms of skill as well as speed! This phenomenon disproved a notion in psychology known as �decrement,� which suggested that speed, skills, and retention would decrease as one entered old age.
508. When professional career counselors use the term leisure they technically mean.
a. the client is having fun at work or away from work.
b. the client is relaxing at work or away from work.
c. the client is working at less than 100% capacity at work or away from work.
d. the time the client has away from work which is not being utilized for obligations.
D. Leisure time is defined as time away from work in which the individual has the freedom to choose what he or she would like to do. Leisure time is said to be �self-determined.� Career is sometimes defined as the total work one does in a lifetime plus leisure. A leisure activity that one engages in for pleasure rather than money is often referred to as an avocation. Dual-career families often report a lack of leisure time which can in turn abet additional stress for both partners.
509. In terms of leisure time and dual-career families.
a. dual-career families have more leisure time.
b. dual-career families have the same amount of leisure time as families with one wage earner.
c. dual-career families have less leisure time.
d. dual-career families have more weekend leisure time.
C. Both partners in the single-career family have more leisure time. Some books and exams are already using the term leisure counseling which should alert you to the emphasis which is being placed on this topic. Fortunately, research shows that in most cases, dual-career households manage to spend as much time with their children as households with a single wage earner.
510. A client who says, �I feel I cannot really become an administrator in our agency because I am a woman,� is showing an example of.
a. gender bias.
b. counselor bias.
c. the trait-and-factor theory.
d. developmental theory and career choice.
A. Here is an agency that makes �biased� employment choices based on one�s �gender.� The ideal answer to this dilemma was set forth in 1964 when Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (amended in 1972) stated that women would have equal work opportunities and equal job pay. I purposely used the word ideal inasmuch as some statistics demonstrated that in 1964 a man was earning a buck for every 59 cents earned by a woman. Since 1964, however, progress has been slower than a turtle with ankle weights, with women now bringing in about 76 cents for each dollar a man earns. The EEOC is the watchdog for Title VII guidelines that prohibit discrimination on the basis of color, sex, religion, race, or national origin. Since 1978, EEOC has enforced �Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures.� The procedures speak of �adverse impact.� A test or selection process is said to have adverse impact if it does not meet the �80% Four-fifths Rule.� Here, the hiring rate for minorities is divided by the figure for nonminorities. If the quotient is less than 80% (4/5s), then adverse impact is evident. Thus, a typical exam question might inform you that a firm�s selection process is such that 60 of the employees hired are Black, while 80 are White. You would then be asked to determine whether the selection process was plagued via adverse impact. Your computation would be: 60/80=75%. Since 75% is less than 80%, the process would indeed have an adverse impact. This formula also is used for promotion situations. The fact that minorities ought to be moved �up� more in jobs could be used as a memory device that the minority or subgroup rate is placed �up� or on the top (i.e., the numerator) of the equation. The uniform guidelines also discuss �differential validity,� which is evident when a selection process (e.g., a test) is valid for one group, yet less valid or totally invalid for another group. (Note: This is not the same as �discriminant validity.� See question 627 for a discussion of this term.) Tests plagued by differential validity should not be utilized for hiring or promotion purposes. Incidentally, choice �b� or �counselor bias� might be used to describe a counselor who was sympathetic with the agency�s position. As for choices �e� and �d� be prepared to see them a lot. The chances are extremely good that you will see a question related to �trait-and-factor theory� and �developmental theory� on any major exam. The trait-and-factor theory assumed that via psychological testing one�s personality could be matched to an occupation which stressed those particular personality traits. Some industrial psychology exams will speak of �profile matching.� In this approach, a job candidate�s personality or skills profile is matched to that of successful workers. The decision to hire is then based on the closeness or similarity of the match based on a pattern of predictor scores. Choice �d,� the developmental approach, views career decisions as longitudinal and reversible.
511. One major category of career theory is known as the trait-factor (also called the trait-and-factor) approach. It has also been dubbed the actuarial or matching approach. This approach.
a. attempts to match conscious and unconscious work motives.
b. attempts to match the worker and the work environment (job factors). The approach thus makes the assumption that there is one best or single career for the person.
c. attempts to match career behavior with attitudes.
d. attempts to match cognition with the workload.
B. Historically speaking, the trait-and-factor theory is considered the first major and most durable theory of career choice. The term actuarial used in the question means that empirical statistical data (such as the results from a test) is used rather than simply relying on subjective clinical judgment. The Parsons�s work mentioned earlier (i.e., Choosing a Vocation) stressed a careful self-analysis conducted �under guidance� and then put down on paper to determine your personal �traits.� The traits could then be matched to occupations using advice from individuals who had �made a careful study of men and vocations of the conditions of success.� Also familiarize yourself with the name Edmund Griffith Williamson, the chief spokesperson for the so-called Minnesota Viewpoint, which expanded upon Parsons�s model to create a theory of counseling which transcended vocational issues. Choice �a� would be indicative of a psychoanalytic theory of career counseling. Exam hint: Most popular career theories are based on middle-class or upper middle-class white males who are heterosexual and not disabled.
512. The trait-and-factor career counseling, actuarial, or matching approach (which matches clients with a job) is associated with.
a. Parsons and Williamson.
b. Roe and Brill.
c. Holland and Super.
d. Tiedeman and O�Hara.
A. The trait-and-factor model is sometimes classified as a �structural� theory since it emphasizes individual differences or what your exam might call structural differences. Note: Some exams may ask you if the trait-and-factor model is grounded in �differential psychology� which is the study of individual differences. The answer is a resounding �yes,� of course. The assumption in this approach is that human beings are rational. Hence, when the proper information (e.g., from tests) is available, the individual can make a proper or wise choice of career. C. F. Patterson, from the University of Minnesota, was the other major proponent of this approach and thus, his name could easily be added to choice �a.� The theory has been accused of being oversimplified because it subordinated personal choice making and advanced the idea of �a single job for life.� In other words, the theory assumes that an individual�s traits can be measured so accurately that the choice of an occupation is a one-time process. Computer career guidance programs often adhere to the trait-and-factor model. Experts began to question the notion that a single �right occupation� existed for each personality profile. Choice �b� mentions Roe and Brill who espoused personality theories of career choice. In choice �c,� Holland suggested that a person�s personality needs to be congruent with the work environment, while Super emphasized career development rather than career choice. As for choice �d,� Tiedeman and O�Hara support a decision-making theory.
513. The trait-and-factor or actuarial approach asserts that.
a. job selection is a long-term development process.
b. testing is an important part of the counseling process.
c. a counselor can match the correct person with the appropriate job.
d. b and c.
D. Parsons suggests three steps to implement the trait-and-factor approach. (a) Knowledge of the self and aptitudes and interests. (b) Knowledge of jobs, including the advantages and disadvantages of them. (c) Matching the individual with the work. Though today�s career counselors generally do not practice from a pure trait-factor base, experts insist, nevertheless, that remnants of the trait-and-factor approach are still evident in some of the modern theories such as those suggested by Crites, Super, and Holland.
514. In 1909 a landmark book entitled Choosing a Vocation was released. The book was written by Frank Parsons. Parsons has been called.
a. the Father of lifestyle.
b. the Father of modern counseling.
c. the Father of vocational guidance.
d. the fourth force in counseling.
C. What�s that: you felt you could have answered this one in your sleep? Well don�t scold me for being redundant. Instead, why not thank your lucky stars that the repetition could save you a point on the test? The phrase �the fourth force in counseling� referenced in choice �d� has been suggested to describe �multiculturalism.� Third force psychology usually refers to humanistic approaches.
515. Which statement is not true of the trait-and-factor approach to career counseling?
a. The approach attempts to match the person�s traits with the requirements of a job.
b. The approach usually relies on psychometric information.
c. The approach is developmental and thus focuses on career maturity.
d. The approach is associated with the work of Parsons and Williamson.
C. Developmental approaches delineate stages or specify vocational choice in terms of a process which can change throughout the life span. Thus, vocational development parallels psychosocial, cognitive, and personality development. Eli Ginzberg, an economist, Sol Ginsburg, a psychiatrist, Sidney Axelrad, a sociologist, and John Herma, a psychologist, are often cited as pioneers in this area, questioning the premise that career choice was a single event. The theories proposed by Super and Tiedeman and O�Hara are also derived from developmental psychology.
516. Edmund Griffith Williamson�s work (or the so-called Minnesota Viewpoint) purports to be scientific and didactic, utilizing test data from instruments such as the.
a. Rorschach and the TAT.
b. Binet and the Wechsler.
c. BDI and the MMPI.
d. Minnesota Occupational Rating Scales.
D. Suggested memory devices: Minnesota means matching or Minnesota and matching both begin with an �M.� Williamson was associated with the University of Minnesota for over 40 years. Remember that you are looking for the best answer. All of the tests listed might be used by a modern-day counselor of the trait-factor persuasion; nevertheless, choice �d� mentions a test specifically aimed at enhancing the actuarial approach to career choice. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI), the Guilford-Zimmerman Temperment Survey (GZTS), the Adjective Checklist, BDI, and MMPI-2 would probably be the favorites of counselors who favor a personality theory of career choice. The model is not overly popular with our current crop of counselors and it has been sarcastically referred to as the �test-and-tell� paradigm of career counseling.
517. The trait-and-factor approach fails to take _______ into account.
a. individual change throughout the life span.
b. relevant psychometric data.
d. job requirements.
A. Choice �b,� psychometric data, refers to the use of test results in counseling, a practice which is stressed by trait-and-factor practitioners. The correct answer (choice �a�) has been a major criticism of this model and perhaps accounts for some of the popularity of developmental theories.
518. Anne Roe suggested a personality approach to career choice.
a. based on cognitive-behavioral therapy.
b. based on a model of strict operant conditioning.
c. based on the premise that a job satisfies an unconscious need.
d. based on the work of Pavlov.
C. The American clinical psychologist Anne Roe was one of the first individuals to suggest a theory of career choice based heavily on personality theory. Some exams refer to Roe�s work as the �person-environment� theory. The theory is primarily psychoanalytic, though it also draws on Maslow�s hierarchy of needs. Roe�s major propositions are that needs which are satisfied do not become unconscious motivators; that higher order needs will disappear even if they are rarely satisfied, but lower order needs (such as safety) will be the major concern; and that needs which are satisfied after a long delay will become unconscious motivators. Roe emphasized that early child rearing practices influence later career choices since a job is a major source of gratification for an unconscious need. P.S.: If you answered �d,� salivate and crack open your old career counseling text! You�re rusty!
519. Roe was the first career specialist to utilize a two-dimensional system of occupational classification utilizing.
a. unconscious and preconscious.
b. fields and levels.
c. yin and yang.
d. transactional analysis nomenclature.
B. The eight occupational �fields� include: service, business contact, organizations, technology, outdoor, science, general culture, and arts/entertainment. The six �levels� of occupational skill include: professional and managerial 1, professional and managerial 2, semiprofessional/small business, skilled, semiskilled, and unskilled.
520. All of the following are examples of Anne Roe�s �fields� except.
c. arts and entertainment.
D. See the previous answer. �Unskilled� refers to a �level� of occupational skill or responsibility rather than an �occupational field.�
521. All of the following are examples of Anne Roe�s �levels� except.
c. semiprofessional/small business.
d. professional and managerial.
A. Review the last two questions and answers unless you chose choice �a.� All of the other alternatives describe �levels.�
522. Roe spoke of three basic parenting styles: overprotective, avoidant, or acceptant. The result is that the child.
a. experiences neurosis or psychosis.
b. will eventually have a lot of jobs or a lack of employment.
c. will develop a personality which gravitates (i.e., moves) toward people or away from people.
d. will suffer from depression in the work setting or will be highly motivated to succeed.
C. Some texts and exams will refer to the avoidant child rearing style as �rejecting.� It is an emotionally cold or hostile style. The acceptant style is �democratic.� If the person moves �toward� people, he or she would choose the �fields� of service, business, organization, or general cultural while an individual who moves away from people would gravitate toward outdoor, science, or perhaps technology. Research tends to support the contention that an individual raised in a warm, accepting family where person-to-person interaction was rewarded would tend to seek out careers emphasizing contact with others. A cold, �avoiding� family of origin would thus be more likely to produce an individual who would shun person-oriented careers.
523. Roe�s theory relies on Abraham Maslow�s hierarchy of needs in the sense that in terms of career choice.
a. lower order needs take precedence over higher order needs.
b. self-actualization needs take precedence over lower order needs.
c. all needs are given equal consideration.
d. the need for self-actualization would overpower a physical need.
A. The job meets the �most urgent need.�
524. Some support for Roe�s theory comes from.
a. the BDI.
c. the Rorschach and the TAT.
d. the gestalt therapy movement.
C. Suggested memory device: Roe begins with an �r� and so does Rorschach. The TAT is similar in that it is a projective test.