1. The maximum payload weight for a C-17 is ________ pounds
B.
2. Low EGT margin engines are more susceptable to ENG EGT X alerts on the WAP when OAT is at or above ____ and thrust is at or near maximum thrust?
D.
3. ____ thrust is the recommended rating for engine out climbs
A.
4. Which thrust rating is recommended for normal climb?
B.
5. The THRUST LOSS warning will extinguish when the ______ is reset
A.
6. In the event of boost pump failure, fuel can be suction fed by the engine driven fuel pump at ____ thrust rating up to an altitude of ____ ft and at a pitch angle no greater than 21.5 degrees
B.
7. The engine starting system can be used in flight as well as on the ground.
A. True
B. False
A.
8. The starter is designed to start the engine with normal starting loads. Excessive loads are applied when the engine driven hydraulic pumps are on. A ______ may result if the pumps are on during engine start.
D.
9. Each engine thrust reverser system has two sets of blocker doors, sleeves and cascades. Sleeves at the back of the fan and core exhausts move aft, exposing cascades to the diverted airflow. The cascades direct the airflow up and forward
D.
10. The APU AUTO SHUT DN ORIDE switchlight will override all automatic shutdowns except ____
C.
11. To trigger an engine or APU fire annunciation,
B.
12. The cargo compartment APU warning horn can be inhibited during ground operations by the ____ switch on the Entrance Light Panel
A. OFF/ARM
B. AGENT DISCH
C. ORIDE
D. INTL HORN INHIBIT
D.
13. If FIREX AGENT DISCHARGE 1 POWER CB on the __________ is open, the ___________will be inoperative.
A. overhead panel, APU Fire Agent DISCH switch
B. right EPC, APU warning system
C. left EPC, the APU warning system
D. overhead panel, the APU fire and overspeed CAWS aural warning
A.
14. If an individual fuel tank indicator on the overhead is inoperative, the totalizer shows
A. Correct total fuel
B. A blank window
C. A series of dashes
D. Estimated fuel
A.
15. When fuel quantities drop below approximately ____ lbs for the inboard tanks and ____ lbs for the outboard tanks, the respective transfer pumps become uncovered and ineffective
A. 37,400; 24,500
B. 28,000; 12,000
C. 16,000; 4,000
D. 27,500; 16,000
B.
16. (w/o OBIGGS II) Do not enter the underfloor maintenance tunnel until ____
A. Maintenance drains the OBIGGS storage bottles
B. The area has been ventilated
C. A & B
D. All three liquid oxygen storage bottles have been drained and purged.
C.
17. The electrical system is normally operated in the ____ mode with generators No. 1 and No. 2 supplying left side power and generators No. 3 and No. 4 supplying right side power
A. Parallel
B. Alternate parallel
C. Split-parallel
D. Linked
C.
18. The battery switch must be ON to provide battery power to the ____
A. Transformer rectifiers
B. Emergency buses
C. Transfer buses
D. AC buses
B.
19. As a minimum, the batteries are designed to provide emergency power for up to ____ of operation
A. 15 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. One half-hour
D. One hour
C.
20. Shutdown of the aircraft electrical system with either emergency light switch in the ON or ARM position, will cause the emergency lights to remain illuminated and could cause
A. depletion of the emergency batteries
B. depletion of the aircraft batteries
C. depletion of the IRU batteries
D. automatic shutdown of the APU
A.
21. (w/OBIGGS II) If there is a total loss of electrical power during high pressure pneumatic air supply operation, _____________ may result. Immediately shut down the pneumatic cart
A. OBBIGS manifold failure
B. Fuselage fire
C. A hung start
D. Wing manifold failure
B.
22. When the COMPT AIR FLOW switchlight is pressed,
A. The right pack, the trim air regulators, the flight compartment/crew rest SOVs, and recirculation fan shut off
B. The cooling augmentation valve opens and the left pack is commanded to low flow schedule for avionics cooling
C. A & B
D. None of the above
C.
23. If flight through contaminated air is experienced with the air conditioning pack(s) operating, the conditioned airflow used for avionics cooling ____
A. Is unaffected
B. Will be contaminated
C. Is filtered
D. Is partially filtered
B.
24. If the ambient temperatures are above ____ , avionics cooling air flow must be supplied from conditioned air augmentation (APU or air conditioner ground unit)
A. 100 degrees F
B. 95 degrees F
C. 90 degrees F
D. 85 degrees F
C.
25. (Pressurization) If the primary controller malfunctions or fails, the
A. system can be semi-automatically controlled during climbs and descents
B. system must be manually controlled
C. monitor controller automatically performs the function of the primary controller
D. other automatic controller must be manually selected
C.
26. The cabin pressurization SEMI mode controls cabin pressure according to
A. The baro-corrected altitude set in the LDG ALT-FT display window
B. An optimum schedule determined by the A/PDMC
C. A schedule of 3000 ft. AGL along the mission computer flight plan
D. The altitude set in the window on the AFCS panel adjusted for terrain elevation from the NAV database
A.
27. If the cabin pressure differential exceeds 8.2 delta P, the ____ will automatically open
A. Negative pressure relief valves
B. Cabin pressure relief valves
C. FEDS hatches
D. Maintenance/ditching hatch
B.
28. A self-contained ice detector located in the No. ____ engine inlet detects ice formation on a sensing element within the detector strut.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B.
29. Engine anti-ice provides icing protection to the engine fan blades.
A. True
B. False
B.
30. The primary purpose of the transfer pump is to ____ in the event of No. 2 or No. 3 engine loss
A. Assist in cargo door/ramp closing
B. Assist in landing gear retraction
C. A & B
D. None of the above
C.
31. When the RAT is the sole means of hydraulic pressure, do not slow below ____ as the RAT may stall and result in loss of aircraft control
A. 150 KCAS
B. 200 KCAS
C. 180 KCAS
D. 130 KCAS
D.
32. If the RAT does not extend on the first attempt, cycle the RAT switchlight to off and ______
A. depress again
B. turn off the transfer pump
C. extend the landing gear
D. extend the slats/flaps
A.
33. If steering commands from the tillers and rudder pedals are in disagreement
A. The rudder command will be overridden.
B. The tiller command will be overridden.
C. The system blends the rates to provide steering
D. The greater command is used
A.
34. If the nose gear torque link is disconnected:
A. Rudder pedals will not move
B. Nose wheel steering is not available
C. The nosewheel will not center upon retraction
D. EOCS is not available
B.
35. Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes?
A. No. 1
B. No. 2
C. No. 3
D. No. 4
B.
36. If ground speed on the MFD ND appears excessive:
A. No action is required
B. All four IRU's should be realigned if on the ground
C. In-flight turn off the IRU being used for navigation
D. Re-align only the IRU in large font on the appropriate NAV SENSORS page
B.
37. In the event of large disparity between the IRU ground speed and the anti-skid brake controller sensed ground speed, braking capability will be reduced. If in flight, accomplish the landing using ____
A. Normal procedures
B. One brake inoperative procedures
C. Landing With Erroneous Ground Speed procedure.
D. Anti-skid inop procedures
C.
38. Pitch Reference Trim is available ____
A. Only with APPR mode engaged
B. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in EFCS
C. With the FCS ACTR Panel PITCH TRIM switch in MECH
D. B & C
D.
39. If the ________________ fails, automatic ground spoilers may not deploy during a rejected takeoff or subsequent landing.
A. TOGA switch
B. Speedbrake/DLC switch
C. GND SPLR/LAPES switch
D. Autothrottle disengage button
C.
40. Which of the following disengages the autopilot?
A. The PILOT ID switch is moved from P to CP or from CP to P.
B. Using the trim switch on the stick grip
C. Failure of a single engine
D. Pushing TOGA button while airborne
A.
41. In frontside flight the default or basic mode for the AFCS pitch axis is the ____ mode
A. Altitude select or capture
B. Vertical Speed/Altitude Hold
C. Speed Hold or select
D. Split axis or turbulence
B.
42. If the F/D is used with the slats retracted and flaps extended, ensure that airspeed command is at ____ or above
A. Vmma
B. Vmfr
C. Vmsr
D. Vmco
A.
43. You may modify an RNAV or GPS route waypoint's lateral definition after loading from the WWNDB.
A. True
B. False
B.
44. The F/D Traffic Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) submode is engaged by pressing the ____ when a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) is present and the A/R mode is not engaged
B.
45. When the FPV drift angle exceeds the limit of the HUD or PFD field of view, pitch information from the flashing FPV is ___________ and only the ________ FPV symbol will provide correct vertical path information.
A. Unusable, caged
B. Useable, actual
C. Unusable, actual
D. Useable, caged
A.
46. If entering a tactical environment immediately after takeoff, TACTICAL can be selected on the GPWS/TAWS CONTROL page, but the displays will not switch to tactical until the ____
A. Aircraft is farther than 15nm from the runway
B. Aircraft is above 1500 feet AGL
C. Aircraft is above 2500 feet AGL
D. Either A or B
D.
47. There are ____ smoke detectors located on the aircraft
A. 6
B. 12
C. 22
D. 34
C.
48. A target aircraft is within 6NM and could be potentially hazardous. This is ____
A. Other Traffic
B. Proximate Traffic
C. A Traffic Advisory (TA)
D. A Resolution Advisory (RA)
C.
49. The PPI SKE and ND MAP formats depict only ____ altitudes for TCAS traffic
A. Absolute
B. Actual
C. AGL
D. Relative
D.
50. On the CMDS, ____ mode operates the same as the AUTO mode
A. STBY
B. MAN
C. SEMI
D. BYP
C.
51. (IRCM) The laser is invisible and can injure eyes or skin within _____ feet for a single aft turret or _____ feet if the two forward turrets are installed.
C.
52. During an MCK 1 restart, the IFF transmits stale altitude data.
A. True
B. False
A.
53. The ADTD does not boot unless its operating temperature is ___ degrees C or above. After the ADTD is first turned on, the heaters/ADTD may take up to ___ minutes to reach this temperature. The ADTD 5 has an operating temperature range from ______ to _____ degrees C.
A. 0, 20, -23, 60
B. 0, 10, 10, 149
C. 32, 20, -40, 40
D. 32, 10, -23, 60
A.
54. Which of the following Navigation radio signals are synthesized when listening for the ident from the ICS?
A. ILS
B. TACAN
C. DME Only
D. All of the above
D.
55. (APS150) What mode would be selected on the Radar Control Panel to see rainfall inside/behind areas of turbulence
A. GAIN MAX
B. MAP1
C. WX AUTO
D. WX MAN
D.
56. The ramp blowdown system may not function if the weight on the ramp exceeds ____ pounds
A. 5,250
B. 10,275
C. 15,750
D. 20,750
D.
57. The maximum number of 463L pallets the C-17 can carry is ____
A. 16
B. 18
C. 20
D. 22
B.
58. When the CREW OXY LOW message illuminates on the WAP, it indicates
A. Oxygen quantity remaining in the passenger converter is 2.5 liters or less
B. Oxygen quantity is less than 7.5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi
C. Oxygen quantity remaining in the crew converter is 2.5 liters or less
D. Oxygen quantity is less than 5 liters or supply pressure is below 60 +/- 5 psi
D.
59. The passenger oxygen system contains one ____ liter passenger converter and one ____ liter auxiliary converter
A. 75; 75
B. 75; 25
C. 25; 75
D. 25; 25
A.
60. How is FED initiator fired?
A. It will automatically fire when the pilot's FED ARM switch is set to ARM
B. By pulling the quick release pin, turning the T-handle 90 degrees and pulling downward
C. By pulling one of the manual release handles straight down then turning them either right or left with no weight on the wheels
D. By pushing up sharply on the initiator T-handle
B.
61. What is the total number of life rafts installed in the FEDS areas?
A. Five
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
C.
62. There are normally ____ first aid kits installed on the aircraft with provisions for ____ total
A. 9; 18
B. 6; 18
C. 6; 26
D. 6; 102
C.
63. There are a total of ____ fire extinguishers onboard the aircraft with ____ in the cockpit and ____ in the crewrest area
A. 6; 2; 1
B. 9; 2; 1
C. 9; 2; 2
D. 12; 2; 2
B.
64. For takeoffs, landings and crash conditions the ACM seat's inboard glide fitting shall be positioned ____
A. In line with the respective pilot/copilot seat
B. Outboard of the center position
C. A minimum of 10 inches outboard of the center position
D. To the extreme outboard position
C.
65. When implementing the Delta VROT Derated Takeoff Procedure and the MC displays SELECT MAX after DRT TOLD planning is complete, increase delta VROT incrementally by ___ knots or less, as desired, up to a maximum of _____ knots.
A. 2; 10
B. 3; 15
C. 4; 16
D. 5; 15
B.
66. Before entering NAV/DNAV mode, IRU INOP 1,2 and IRU INOP 3,4 will assert on the WAP unless both parking brakes are set. If both parking brakes are set, a(n) ______ message indicates an actual IRU failure
A. IRU INOP X
B. EFCS MCD
C. GPS MCD
D. NAV READY
A.
67. Do not change the ENGINE IGNITION source during engine start. Switching sources may result in a
C.
68. Select engine anti-ice on when temperature (SAT) is ____ degrees C or below and dew point and temperature are within ____ degrees C of each other or dew point is not available
A. 4; 2
B. 6; 3
C. 5; 2
D. 7; 3
B.
69. Taxiing with flaps extended deflects engine thrust exhaust toward the ground, possibly burning asphalt ____
D.
70. The aircraft is capable of backing up a ____ % slope at a gross weight of ____ lbs (sea level, 90F)
B.
71. To prevent damage to the reverse interlock solenoids, do not move the throttle levers beyond the reverse idle detent until ____
A. The pilot not flying says its OK
B. Either the REV indication is illuminated on the MFD's or until the solenoids are heard to release
C. Betty says "thrust reversers deployed"
D. The nose wheel makes contact with the runway
B.
72. Abrupt use of brakes when backing the aircraft should be avoided to prevent
A. The aircraft from setting on its tail
B. Brake failure
C. Damage to main landing gear tires
D. Spatial disorientation
A.
73. Do not attempt takeoff with any hydraulic reservoir temperature indicating less than ____ degrees C. Low rudder temperature indicates insufficient rate of rudder deflection to correct for an engine failure on takeoff
A. -17
B. 0
C. 7
D. -7
C.
74. For all takeoff profiles, applicable lineup distance penalties must be applied _______
A. When CFL is within 200 feet of runway available
B. To ensure MC performance data is attained
C. When takeoff performance is marginal
D. When required to meet climb performance requirements
B.
75. If the takeoff is discontinued after reaching VGO, ____
A. Immediately advance all throttles to MAX
B. All main gear fuse plugs will melt
C. Retract the flaps to put more weight on the wheels to increase braking effectiveness
D. Stopping on the remaining runway may not be possible
D.
76. If a GPWS/TAWS aural or visual warning is received during an approach in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC), ____. Exceptions will be annotated in command guidance.
A. Execute a missed approach or go around
B. Check radar altimeter and continue if at a safe altitude
C. Check GPWS since it may be malfunctioning
D. Confirm your position with approach control and continue if you are on a published segment of the approach
A.
77. (Approach to Assault Landing) The PM will advise the PF when passing through ____ feet and ____ feet AGL
A. 300; 75
B. 100; 60
C. 100; 50
D. 300; 50
D.
78. On Extended Range aircraft with more than ____ pounds total fuel, delay braking until nose gear touchdown unless there is less than ____ pounds of fuel in the four extended range compartments combined
A. 185,000; 1,000
B. 185,000; 4,000
C. 165,000; 1,000
D. 165,000; 4,000
D.
79. If AGS does not deploy on landing, DLC spoilers are available to manually deploy _____ of AGS effectiveness.
A. 25 percent
B. 5 percent
C. 50 percent
D. 15 percent
A.
80. If the touch-and-go is continued after an engine failure, ____
A. Rotate to 15 degrees of pitch
B. Raise the gear immediately after takeoff
C. Ensure that the throttles are advanced to MAX immediately
D. Continue with normal takeoff procedures
C.
81. To preclude damage to the slat seals, the APU ____ with the slats in the extended position. If the APU must be started with the slats extended, they should be ____
A. May be operated; extended before the APU is started
B. Should not be operated; cooled prior to starting the APU
C. Should not be started or operated; retracted as soon as possible
D. There is no restriction on operating the APU with the slats extended
C.
82. Operating engines in idle reverse thrust for extended periods during high OAT's may cause one or more engine FIREX bottles to discharge uncommanded
A. True
B. False
A.
83. If a MASTER CAUTION and an EFCS MCD cue annunciate during the takeoff roll,
A. If below Vgo, reject the takeoff if possible
B. If takeoff is continued, the PM will repeatedly press the EFCS RESET button as soon as EFCS MCD is annunciated. Allow 1 second between button presses
C. Ensure FROZEN GAINS appears on the MCD STATUS page
D. A & B
D.
84. If the starter valve will not close after engine start (light remains illuminated more than 30 seconds after the button pops out), which of the following actions could result in a starter failure?
A. Selecting another ignition system
B. Pulling out the starter valve push-button
C. Shutting down the engine after removing the bleed air supply
D. Shutting down the engine before removing the bleed air supply
D.
85. Delay engine starter re-engagement for ____ once N2 RPM indication is lost from the MFD engine display to ensure that engine rotation has stopped
A. 20 seconds
B. 30 seconds
C. 40 seconds
D. 1 minute
C.
86. (IRCM) Ground operations longer than ____ minutes with the outside air temperature above 38 degrees C / 100 degrees F may result in TX x FAIL and degraded IRCM performance
A. 25
B. 10
C. 5
D. 60
A.
87. If AN/ARC-210 COM radio prolonged loss of contact (PLOC) is suspected or experienced while flying in Europe, which of the following actions should you take?
A. Immediately squawk 7600
B. Disable squelch
C. Request relay from another aircraft and/or attempt ATC contact on Guard using any radio
D. All of the above
D.
88. In addition to an engine fire, disintegration, seizure or uncontrollable overspeed, the ENGINE FIRE/EMERGENCY ENGINE SHUTDOWN Checklist will be run with ____
A. Severe compressor stall or engine vibration
B. Engine/pylon fuel leak
C. Uncontrollable EGT
D. All of the above
D.
89. If an engine reverts to the N2 mode, all engine responses are normal except ____
A. No reverse thrust is available during landing ground roll
B. Touch and go landings are prohibited
C. That no overspeed protection is provided
D. The engine will lock 85% N2
C.
90. If the N1 RPM indication drops to zero or all displays are blank, ____
A. The EEC has failed
B. This could indicate a catastrophic engine failure
C. Shutdown and restart the engine to reset the EEC
D. The EEC is running an internal test and the displays will return in 60 seconds
B.
91. A Four Engine Flameout is most likely to occur when flying through
A. Heavy rain
B. Hail and icing
C. Volcanic ash
D. All of the above
D.
92. If an engine consistently surges and bleed system malfunctions are suspected, it may be possible to achieve surge free operation by ____
A. Shutting down and restarting the engine
B. Cycling the thrust reverser
C. Turning off the engine bleeds
D. Pulling that engine's ignition circuit breakers
D. (Question thrown out...correct answer should be C.)
93. During a landing with one engine inoperative, which engine throttles are placed in reverse idle?
A. All engine throttles
B. Only operative engine throttles
C. Only inoperative engine throttles
D. No engine throttles
A.
94. When the decision is made to do a 3-engine go-around, ____
A. Use normal Go-Around Procedures
B. Do not select 1/2 flaps until a positive rate of climb is achieved
C. Use INT thrust on the good engines to avoid losing another one
D. The gear should be left down in case the go-around is unsuccessful
A.
95. If engine vibration is suspected during flight,
A. Execute a Precautionary Engine Shutdown check if vibration is severe
B. Advance the engine throttles one at a time (from left to right) to isolate the vibrating engine
C. Apply the Vibration procedure in Section III of the flight manual to isolate the vibrating engine
D. Immediately pull the suspected engine FIRE Handle
C.
96. For PITCH AUTHORITY CAWS alert while airborne,
A. Let go of the stick to allow autotrim to regain control
B. Turn the pitch trim switch on the overhead FCS panel to MECH
C. Depressurize hydraulic systems 2 and 3
D. Slow the aircraft and simultaneously split the STAB TRIM handles
D.
97. If a MASTER CAUTION and an EFCS MCD cue annunciate during the takeoff roll,
A. If below Vgo, reject the takeoff if possible.
B. If takeoff is continued, the PM will repeatedly press the EFCS RESET button as soon as EFCS MCD is annunciated. Allow 1 second between button presses
C. Ensure FROZEN GAINS appears on the MCD STATUS page
D. A & B
D.
98. (FCC FIXED GAIN) Large abrupt rudder inputs at speeds over ___ KCAS can overstress the vertical stabilizer and rudders
A. 250
B. 300
C. 225
D. 200
D.
99. Fuel dump above ____ feet may cause engine flameout due to loss of fuel pressure
A. 20,000
B. 15,000
C. 17,500
D. 10,000
A.
100. Normally fuel dump is accomplished with the center separation valve closed. Confirm that both lights illuminate or
A. Check for open feeder circuit breakers
B. Cycle the dump switch from off to on
C. Open the separation valve immediately
D. Discontinue fuel dumping and land as soon as practical
C.
101. Loss of a hydraulic system may occur when the quantity decreases causing the HYD QTY LOW X or HYD QTY LOW X, Y WAP message(s) to be displayed. If this message appears ____
A. Put the flaps down while there is still some pressure
B. Be prepared for complete loss of flight controls
C. Decrease power on the engine to slow the pumps down
D. Shut off all pumps within the affected system
D.
102. Primary flight controls are powered by how many hydraulic systems?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
B.
103. If the hydraulic system pressure increases above 4200 psi,
A. Turn the pumps off one at a time
B. Turn all pumps off at once
C. Turn all engine-driven pumps off
D. Turn the transfer and auxiliary pumps off
A.
104. When using alternate brake system, increase mission computer generated landing or ground roll distance by ____
A. 500 feet
B. 1000 feet
C. 25%
D. 50%
C.
105. What is the aircraft configuration for an emergency descent?
A. Flaps 1/2; gear down; throttles - IDLE
B. Speed brakes - Deployed; gear down; N2 - 85 percent
C. Clean; throttles - IDLE; Airspeed - 310 knots
D. Throttles - IDLE or IDLE REV; Speed Brakes - Deployed; Airspeed - As Required
D.
106. A personnel restraining harness or parachute is required to be worn ____
A. During all emergencies that may require a bailout
B. When inspecting aircraft doors after an in-flight door/hatch warning
C. During low level flight below 500 AGL
D. Only when directed by the aircraft commander
B.
107. During a rejected takeoff ____
A. Use MAX reverse on all operating engines
B. Asymmetrical reverse thrust should be used with caution
C. Do not use reverse thrust
D. Use MAX reverse on the side with good engines and MAX brakes on the other side
B.
108. There is a maximum of ____ engine start attempts in one hour, followed by a ____ minimum cooling period
A. 2; 30 minute
B. 3; 45 minute
C. 4; 1 hour
D. 5; 1 hour
D.
109. Engine rotation will be completely stopped before the starter is re-engaged. The exception to this is the Engine Clearing Procedure, when the starter may be re-engaged after N2 RPM has decreased below____
A. 18-24%
B. 20%
C. 0, the starter must always completely stop
D. 10%
B.
110. The maximum time limit at MAX/DRT thrust is ____ minutes when not needed for engine failure on takeoff, or engine out go-around for obstacle clearance
A. 5
B. 10
C. 7
D. There is no maximum time limit at MAX/DRT
A.
111. Maximum EGT for engine start is _____degrees
A. 650
B. 500
C. 495
D. 450
C.
112. The APU starter may be operated up to ____ minute(s). Any APU starter engagement is considered a start attempt. ____ minute(s) are required between start attempts with a maximum of ____ attempts per hour
A. 2; 10; 5
B. 1; 10; 5
C. 1; 5; 4
D. 1; 5; 2
C.
113. The recommended minimum airspeed for in-flight reverse thrust is ______ or Vmma, whichever is higher.
A. 225
B. 200
C. 250
D. 300
C.
114. The maximum airspeed for extending the slats is ____; for retracting is ____
A. 270; 270
B. 280; 280
C. 270; 280
D. 280; 270
D.
115. What is the maximum airspeed allowable for extending the landing gear?
A. 225
B. 250
C. 275
D. 300
B.
116. Bank angles more than _____ degrees are not recommended. The maximum bank angle is ______ degrees.
A. 30; 45
B. 45; 60
C. 50; 60
D. 60; 70
D.
117. During taxi with speed greater than 20 knots with symmetric thrust (15 knots with asymmetric thrust), a 20 degree nose wheel steering angle limit applies if gross weight exceeds ____ lbs or with more than ____ lbs of fuel.
A. 490,000; 135,000
B. 502,100; 135,000
C. 490,000; 165,000
D. 502,100; 165,000
C.
118. The maximum taxi speed for paved taxiways is ____ knots; maximum taxiway speed for semi-prepared taxiways is ____ knots with gross weight/fuel weight less than or equal to 435,000/82,000 lbs respectively.
A. 30; 40
B. 40; 30
C. 30; 20
D. 20; 30
B.
119. (Tire cord limits) The maximum wear limit (MWL) is defined as the exposure of the ______ cord layer plus _____ additional landings.
A. third, two
B. third, five
C. second, five
D. second, three
A.
120. The maximum allowable crosswind for landing is ____ knots
A. 30
B. 40
C. 25
D. 35
A.
121. The maximum landing touchdown sink rate for a steep approach (502,100 lbs) is ____ feet/min
A. 1100
B. 660
C. 500
D. 1000
B.
122. If a stall occurs
A. Apply smooth, but positive forward stick
B. Increase thrust to MAX and retract speedbrakes (if required)
C. Roll input to level the wings
D. All of the above
D.
123. (APS150) The Magenta areas represent areas of ____________ turbulence and should always be avoided
A. Light to Moderate
B. Moderate to Severe
C. Clear Air
D. Extreme
B.
124. Flight through extremely heavy rain, particularly with low thrust settings (< 45% N1)
B.
125. ____ should be used for flight in known or anticipated turbulent air
A. The turbulence mode of the auto pilot
B. Extreme caution
C. Engine ignition
D. Slow speeds
C.
126. During wind shear recovery, unless a sink rate exists, do not exceed ____ degrees of pitch below ____ feet
A. 12; 200
B. 10-15; 300
C. 12-15; 200
D. 15; 200
D.
127. Failure to use engine anti-ice when icing conditions are present may result in ____
A. Engine damage due to ice ingestion
B. Engine flameout
C. Reversion to the N1 mode
D. Severe compressor stalls
A.
128. Prior to completing the Before Taxi checklist, check the hydraulic reservoir temperatures. If any temperature is less than ____ , simultaneously cycle control stick and rudder pedals full stroke in all axes until all reservoir temperatures are greater than ____
A. 5 (C) 41 (F); 5 (C) 41 (F)
B. 6 (C) 43 (F); 6 (C) 43 (F)
C. 7 (C) 45 (F); 7 (C) 45 (F)
D. 8 (C) 47 (F); 8 (C) 47 (F)
C.
129. Under Icing and Cold Weather Operation: Taxi speed should be as low as practical on slippery surfaces and taxi speed of ____ knots or less is recommended while turning
A. 10
B. 5
C. 15
D. 12
B.
130. Failure to periodically perform the ground ice shedding procedure can result in damage to the engines. If more than ___ minutes have expired since engine start and icing conditions persist, delay takeoff until the procedure is accomplished
A. 5
B. 15
C. 30
D. 20
B.
131. Consider ramp surface condition and aircraft position relative to ground obstacles and presence of FOD before performing the ice shedding procedure. If slipping occurs during N1 increase or if other unusual engine conditions occur, ____
A. Release brakes and begin takeoff roll
B. Increase N1 to stabilize the engine
C. Shutdown the affected engines
D. Return throttles to idle
D.
132. Under no circumstance will flights be planned through ____ icing conditions. Aircraft operation in ____ icing conditions may be tolerated for short periods of time but evasive action should be undertaken to exit icing conditions as soon as practicable.
A. Moderate; moderate
B. Forecast moderate; light
C. Forecast or known severe; moderate
D. Suspected clear; light
C.
133. (Cold weather/ ground icing conditions) Use of autothrottles for takeoff is strongly encouraged. If an EPR probe icing condition should occur, the autothrottles will ignore the erroneous EPR and maintain the correct power setting via computed throttle lever angle.
A. True
B. False
A.
134. The anti-ice system is designed ____. Therefore, the anti-ice system must be activated before ice buildup
A. To prevent ice buildup rather than remove it once it forms
B. As a deicing system
C. To be used in light icing conditions only
D. For use in severe icing conditions
A.
135. When the aircraft is exposed to ambient temperatures below ____ (F), the water system must be drained along with all other liquids that may freeze, unless the aircraft interior temperature is maintained above ____ (F)
A. 0; 0
B. 32; 32
C. 7; 7
D. 5; 15
B.
136. The Pre-Takeoff Contamination Check is required if holdover time has expired or if freezing precipitation is occurring on an aircraft that was not anti-iced. The contamination check must be completed from OUTSIDE the aircraft within ___ minutes prior to takeoff.
A. 15
B. 10
C. 5
D. 20
C.
137. After deicing is complete, it will take up to ____ for the outflow valve to fully open and lower the cabin pressure to the point where the crew entry door will open normally
A. 5 minutes
B. 90 seconds
C. 3 minutes
D. 30 seconds
B.
138. Intermediate Thrust Rating (INT) is ____. This is the recommended rating for engine-out climbs
A. The maximum thrust approved for the engine
B. The highest thrust certified for continuous use
C. The highest thrust recommended for normal climb
D. The minimum thrust required to safely perform a takeoff
B.
139. Maximum Continuous Thrust (MCT) rating is ____
A. The maximum thrust approved for the engine
B. The thrust recommended for engine-out climb
C. The highest thrust recommended for normal climb operation
D. The maximum thrust required to safely perform a takeoff
C.
140. If VGO is VROT, an increase in VROT due to wind gust increases _______ an equal amount, not to exceed _____ or VBMAX.
A. VGO; VR
B. V1; VGO
C. VR; VGO
D. V1; VR
A.
141. The aircraft static air temperature shall not be used for takeoff calculation since heat radiation picked up by the sensing element can cause considerable error. Using an incorrect temperature may result in an unsafe takeoff.
A. True
B. False
A.
142. If an RSC value from .00 or greater and RCR less than 12 are reported,
A. Actual runway required for takeoff could exceed runway available.
B. Actual runway required for departure will be less than displayed in the mission computer.
C. A DRT takeoff is allowed if the MC returns TOLD.
D. Use the reported RCR for TOLD calculations.
A.
143. A lineup distance penalty must be applied anytime the takeoff is not commenced from the beginning of the usable runway. Apply a standard distance of ____ feet to account for turning the aircraft around on the runway or accessing the runway from a taxiway
A. 100
B. 80
C. 250
D. 200
C.
144. The ____ descent is flown with speed brakes extended with reverse idle thrust
A. Long range
B. En route
C. Mission computer directed
D. Tactical
D.
145. Landing is not permitted with tailwinds greater than ____ or headwinds greater than ____
A. 10, 10
B. 15, 10
C. 10, 40
D. 10, 15
C.
146. (SPRO) CFL values do not account for VMCG. Therefore, continued acceleration after engine failure may result in lateral deviations from the runway centerline in excess of ______ feet and the possibility of a lateral departure from the runway.
A. 15
B. 30
C. 40
D. 50
B.
147. GPWS Mode 4C (gear down, flaps 1/2 detent or less and below 500 feet radar altitude) is inoperative when ____
A. Performing circling approaches
B. TAWS is active
C. TACTICAL mode is selected
D. When flying a "frontside" approach
C.
148. GPWS warnings/alerts shall remain ON during flight.
A. True
B. False
A.
149. (Thrust Reverser Status, 3L) When a SPAM runway is selected for emergency return or landing, the MC adds another thrust reverser selection for four engines (4ENG). 4ENG assumes
A. two engines in forward thrust and two engines in idle reverse
B. four engines in idle reverse for 33% of the landing roll out
C. loss of one engine, one engine in idle reverse, and symmetric engines in maximum reverse
D. all four engines operating and in maximum reverse thrust
D.
150. During Degraded Modes, _________ use(s) the last valid altitude and heading data they received prior to the Degraded Mode. Advise ATC as necessary.
A. IFF and TCAS
B. Weather Radar
C. IRUs
D. TOLD
A.
151. If both MC's fail, fully automatic control of cabin pressurization is lost.
A. True
B. False
A.
152. The visual signal for a BREAKAWAY is
A. Tanker retracts and stows the boom during contact
B. Tanker flashes Pilot Director Lights and/or turns lower Rotating Beacon ON
C. Tanker boom extended approximately 5 feet
D. Pilot Director Lights extinguished during contact.
B.
153. If the receiver overruns the tanker, the receiver will reduce airspeed to ____ , and maintain track and altitude
A. 230 KCAS
B. 255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering speed, whichever is lower
C. 255 KCAS or minimum maneuvering speed, whichever is higher
D. Appropriate refueling speed or Vmma, whichever is lower
C.
154. ____ is the desired standard for daily air refueling operations
A. Emission Option 1
B. Emission Option 2
C. Emission Option 3
D. Emission Option 4
B.
155. When the receiver pilot is closing and approaching the pre-contact position,
A. It is mandatory to call "Stable, Ready" during Emission Option 2 operations
B. The receiver should use TCAS in TA/RA mode until established in precontact
C. The receiver will stabilize in the precontact position and attain a zero rate of closure
D. The boom operator will trail the boom fully extended until the receiver approaches contact
C.
156. Tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies no less than ____ minutes prior to the ARCT
A. 15
B. 20
C. 30
D. 25
C.
157. During an air refueling BREAKAWAY, the receiver pilot should use caution not to overrun the tanker. If overrunning does occur, under no condition should ____, be made until positive separation has been attained
A. An acceleration
B. A climb
C. A rejoin
D. A turn, either right or left
D.
158. A controlled tension brute force disconnect will be accomplished ____
A. Only as a last resort
B. When directed by higher headquarters
C. For all normal disconnects
D. For training purposes only
A.
159. (Emergency Boom Latching Procedures) It is possible to cause structural damage to the air refueling boom and slipway by severe relative movement between the two aircraft when operating in override since the ____ are deactivated. The ____ must initiate all disconnects before exceeding any of the limits
A. Toggles; boom operator
B. Toggles; receiver pilot
C. Limit switches; receiver pilot
D. Limit switches; boom operator
C
160. During the RV Delta (Point Parallel) procedure the receiver(s) will
A. Be established at 1000 ft below the assigned base AAR altitude when departing the RVIP
B. Enter the track via the RVIP and should aim to be at the RVCP at the RVCT
C. Aid the RV, when so equipped, by remaining in electronic contact on radar, A/A TACAN, TCAS or other means as soon as possible, but no later than 50 nm range or the RVIP, whichever occurs first
D. All of the above
D.
161. Crediting Event Accomplishment. Members may credit event accomplishment:
A. When accomplished on training, operational missions, and satisfactory evaluations
B. When accomplished during upgrade training prior to the evaluation for the current crew position (do not log training events for the upgrading crew position prior to the evaluation).
C. When accomplished during ACIQ and PCO formal courses, graduates may credit night AR accomplished during the course to semi-annual training requirements.
D. All of the above.
D.
162. Crewmembers enrolled in PCO, IAC, CPAD, and ACAD are exempt from quarterly phase training.
A. True
B. False
B.
163. Which of the following results in an individual being declared NMR?
A. Fail to maintain flying currency.
B. Fail to complete semi-annual flying continuation training requirements.
C. Fail to complete ground continuation training requirements.
D. Any of the above.
D.
164. A member may also credit a Day Low Level (M055) each time they accomplish a NVG Low Level (NV00)
A. True
B. False
A.
165. How many Receiver AR (R010) events may be accomplished per sortie?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
A.
166. With the exception of missions launched from Alpha or Bravo alert or when self alerting, crew duty time and flight duty period both begin ____
A. 1 hour after alert
B. At alert time
C. When the crew member arrives at the squadron
D. As designated by the aircraft commander
A.
167. The maximum flight duty period for a basic crew (including Basic +1) is ____ hours; for an augmented crew ____ hours
A. 12; 16
B. 20; 24+45
C. 16; 24
D. 18; 24+45
C.
168. Available crewmembers will assist in clearing during ______________ and anytime the aircraft is below ________ feet MSL.
A. taxi operations; 18,000
B. taxi operations; 10,000
C. taxi in congested areas; 10,000
D. taxi in congested areas; 18,000
B.
169. Equipment will be properly secured and all crewmembers and passengers will be seated with seat belts and shoulder harnesses (shoulder harness does not apply to pax) fastened during taxi, takeoff, landing, AAR, and low levels unless crew duties dictate otherwise.
A. True
B. False
A.
170. With weather at CAT I minimums on a CAT I ILS, the pilot may not see the runway environment at DA; however, the initial portion of the approach lights may be visible. The pilot may continue to ___ HAT with reference to the approach lights only. The pilot may not descend below ___ feet above touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are distinctly visible and identifiable
A. 200; 200
B. 200; 100
C. 100; 100
D. 100; 50
C.
171. If on an instrument approach, the PM must still provide subsequent instrument advisory calls if the PF can maintain visual contact with the landing runway, and states "Visual."
A. True
B. False
B.
172. The stabilized criteria (from target) from 300 AGL to the runway is
A. Airspeed: +10/- 5 kts; Bank Angle: +/- 15 degrees; Rate of Decent: +/- 300 FPM
B. Airspeed: +/- 10 kts; Bank Angle: +/- 15 degrees; Rate of Decent: +/- 300 FPM
C. Airspeed: +10/- 5 kts; Bank Angle: +/- 10 degrees; Rate of Decent: +/- 400 FPM
D. Airspeed: +/- 5 kts; Bank Angle: +/- 15 degrees; Rate of Decent: +/- 400 FPM
A.
173. Prior to making any changes to the selected/armed Flight Guidance including Altitude, or performing any T.O. 1-C-17A-1 defined irreversible/critical action, the pilot performing the action will VERBALIZE the intended changes. The other pilot will acknowledge the step by stating
A. "Verified"
B. "Confirm"
C. "Roger"
D. "Acknowledged"
B.
174. Minimum runway/taxiway widths for C-17 operations are:
A. 150 ft runway, 90 ft taxiway
B. 100 ft runway, 70 ft taxiway
C. 90 ft runway, 50 ft taxiway
D. 75 ft runway, 45 ft taxiway
C.
175. Do not taxi an aircraft within ___ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ___ feet.
A. 25; 10
B. 25; 25
C. 15; 10
D. 10; 5
A.
176. Takeoff minimums requiring a departure alternate. Aircraft may takeoff using the following minimums provided a departure alternate is specified: ____
A. All RVR readouts are 1600 or greater for non-operational missions
B. Touchdown and rollout RVR are equal to or greater than 1000 for operational missions
C. For answer "b" to qualify, the airfield must have operational centerline lighting and the crew must be fully qualified
D. All of the above
D.
177. During flight, avoid thunderstorm activity by any means available by at least ____ NM at or above FL 230 and ____ NM below FL 230
A. 10, 20
B. 20, 10
C. 15, 25
D. 25, 15
B.
178. Weather minimums for NVG departures for crewmembers who are non-current and/or unqualified is ______. Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures weather down to _____ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____).
C.
179. Oceanic Procedures. Ten minute plotting information will include:
D.
180. (IAP) Instrument approach RVR/visibility and, if required, ceiling minimums will be as published for a category ____ aircraft. If approach speeds exceed 165 knots, the minimums for category _____ will be used.
A. C; D
B. D; E
C. E; F
D. B; C
B.
181. If full flight instrumentation is not available and operational, aircraft are limited to a DH/MDA based on ____
A.
182. Aircrews may fly NVG instrument approaches which transition to NVG landings with weather down to ______ (OG/CC or equivalent may approve down to _____) or circling minimums (whichever is higher).
A.
183. If involved in a mishap or incident, pull the CVR power circuit breaker ____
B.
184. Aircrews may fly any GPS approach procedure with ___________
A. GPS-A in the approach title
B. RNAV (GPS) RWY in the approach title
C. RNAV (RNP) in the approach title
D. RNAV (RNP) in the approach title with a SAAAR statement in the profile view
B.
185. The Air Tasking Order (ATO):
A. Tasks elements of composite forces
B. Provides mission objectives and general guidance
C. Indicates actions required by individual situations
D. All of the above
D.
186. Maximum on Ground (MOG) is based solely on parking space available.
A. True
B. False
B.
187. From the left seat an imaginary line drawn from the row of rivets inside the number ___ engine cowling at approximately the ___ o'clock position closely identifies 25-foot wingtip clearance
A. 1; 4
B. 2; 4
C. 1; 6
D. 3; 4
A.
188. Which statement is TRUE for the following situation: You are preparing for engine running off/onload operations and a thrust reverser will not extend
A. Offload operations can be conducted if it is an outboard engine
B. ERO operations are absolutely not permitted
C. Shutdown of the engine should be considered prior to ERO operations
D. Symmetrical engines must be shut down
C.
189. When operating into semi-prepared runways, aircrews must input the numerical rolling friction factor (RFF) into the mission computer to calculate take-off data prior to landing
A. True
B. False
A.
190. When planning a route some advantages of ingressing at low altitudes are:
A. Reduced exposure to air defense threats, aircraft shadow, element of surprise
B. Noise propagation, increased visual acquisition capability, reduced exposure to air defense threats
C. Noise propagation, reduced exposure to air defense threats, element of surprise
D. Increased visual acquisition capability, fuel consumption, proximity to the ground
C.
191. Disadvantages to using a HUD include
A. Pilot Dependency
B. Ability to stay "heads up"
C. Tendency to fixate
D. A & C
D.
192. Low-level routes should be planned
A. Directly along and overhead major lines of communication
B. To avoid navigation update points that are easy to visually identify
C. To provide an adequate run-in/escape to/from the objective area
D. To clearly indicate the objective area to enemy forces
C.
193. ____ terrain masking is placing terrain behind the aircraft so it is difficult to distinguish the aircraft from the background. ____ terrain masking is putting the terrain between the aircraft and the threat
A. Direct; Military Crest
B. Indirect; Direct
C. 45 Degree; Parallel Ridge
D. Perpendicular Ridge; Indirect
B.
194. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Two-Thirds Tactic or Military Crest for Terrain Masking:
A. Allows the flexibility to quickly cross the ridge when engaged by an air or ground threat.
B. Leaves more room to maneuver in the event of a route abort or aircraft malfunction.
C. Gives less blue-sky background to ground threats
D. A & B
D.
195. A commit point is a geographic location, configuration, or time relative to a sequence along the ingress, run-in, egress, and/or escape where aircraft will cease or limit defensive maneuvers versus a threat and rely solely on the aircraft defensive systems.
A. True
B. False
A.
196. When performing a tactical arrival, decelerate from en route speeds as soon as the threat will allow.
A. True
B. False
A.
197. For low-altitude, level slowdowns, use __ of ground speed as a general rule of thumb. Add __ if above 280KCAS to allow time to configure.
A. 1%; 2NM
B. 2% ; 1NM
C. 1% ; 1NM
D. 3% ; 2NM
C.
198. What approximate descent gradient can be obtained flying 230 KCAS and configured with Slats and Speed Brakes?
A. 300 ft/NM
B. 525 ft/NM
C. 950 ft/NM
D. 1480 ft/NM
B.
199. Standard terminology for PM assault landing calls is ___ of the "zone".
A. Front half, center, back half
B. Brick one, end
C. Front, middle, back
D. First third, middle third, last third
C.
200. A 45 degree bank turn decreases the aircraft's climb performance by ____
A. 3%
B. 13%
C. 29%
D. 50%
C.
201. (1 on X) During AR with tanker formations, after receiving the scheduled onload from the first tanker, descend in trail ____ the current tanker ( ____ the next tanker)
A. 1000 feet below, 500 feet below
B. 500 feet below, 1500 feet below
C. 500 feet below, level with
D. 1000 feet below, 1500 feet below
A.
202. In a tactical environment, a ____ is an established reference point from which the position of an object can be referenced by bearing (Magnetic) and range (NM)
A. SARNEG
B. CHATTERMARK
C. BULLSEYE
D. POPEYE
C.
203. The Magenta areas represent areas of ____________ turbulence and should always be avoided.
A. Light to Moderate
B. Moderate to Severe
C. Clear Air
D. Extreme
B.
204. Maneuvering against threats falls into three categories; Preemptive, Reactive, and ____
A. Defensive
B. Proactive
C. "There I was"
D. Endgame
D.
205. It is OK to say the color code corresponding to a radio frequency when checking in on the radio, i.e. "THUG 17 checking in on GREEN 11."
A. True, it lets the Eye in Sky know you're on the correct frequency
B. False, you've now compromised the frequency
B.
Author
PokerPilot
ID
192418
Card Set
C-17 Pilot MQF_Nov 2012.txt
Description
Nov 2012 GENERAL C-17 MQF. For questions contact Maj Vince Livie
