Biochem exam 2

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Biochem exam 2
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2013-01-28 11:37:17
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  1. 1. Pyruvate is the direct product of which two enzymes?
    A. glyceraldehyde-3-P dehydrogenase andhexokinase
    B. enolase and hexokinase
    C. pyruvate kinase and lactate dehydrogenaseE. phosphoenolpyruate carboxykinase and hexokinase
    D. enolase and pyruvate kinase
    C. pyruvate kinase and lactate dehydrogenase*(2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  2. 2. Which compound consumed during the production of pyruvate from glucose must be regenerated for glycolysis to continue uninterrupted?
    A. ADP
    B. NADH
    C. CoA
    D. NAD+
    E. Acetyl CoA
    D. NAD+* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  3. 3. The direct product of the reaction of phosphorylase with glycogen is which of the following? 
    A. isomaltose
    B. glucose-6-P 
    C. glucose 
    D. glucose-1-P
    D. glucose-1-P* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  4. 4. Decreased levels of fructose-2,6-bisphosphate will cause which of the following to occur?
    A. decrease in glycolysis and an increase in gluconeogenesis 
    B. increase in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
    C. decrease in glycolysis and gluconeogenesis
    D. increase in glycolysis and a decrease in gluconeogenesis
    E. no effect on glycolysis but an increase in gluconeogenesis
    A. decrease in glycolysis and an increase in gluconeogenesis* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  5. 5. Transport of glucose into which of the following tissues is insulin-dependent?
    A. liver
    B. muscle
    C. red blood cells
    D. brain
    E. intestinal brush border cells
    B. muscle* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  6. 6. The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase is the last step in which of the following pathways?
    A. glycogenolysis and the beta oxidation of fatty acids
    B. glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis 
    C. glycogenolysis and glycolysis
    D. gluconeogenesis and glycogenesis
    E. glycogenolysis and glycogenesis
    B. glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  7. 7. Which of the following enzymes is the overall rate-limiting enzyme of the pathway in which it is active?
    A. phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
    B. pyruvate carboxylase
    C. glucose-6-phosphatase
    D. fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase 
    E. hexokinase
    D. fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  8. 8. Total absorption of glucose from the renal filtrate into the kidney requires which of the following?
    A. insulin
    B. transport of calcium ions
    C. cAMP
    D. transport of sodium ions
    E. AMP
    D. transport of sodium ions* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  9. 9. A vast amount of ATP is produced daily by our bodies to meet the physiological demands of cells. Which of the following statements about ATP is correct?
    A. Energy released by hydrolysis of ATP is coupled to endergonic chemical Reactions
    B. ATP is produced by the TCA Cycle
    C. ATP has the highest group transfer potential of all biological molecules
    D. More ATP is produced by substrate level phosphorylation than by oxidative phosphorylation
    A. Energy released by hydrolysis of ATP is coupled to endergonic chemical Reactions* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  10. 10. Conditions of low O2 (hypoxia) will result in which of the following?
    A. decreased intracellular sodium
    B. increased activity of the mitochondrial electron transport chain
    C. decreased intracellular calcium
    D. decreased ATP
    D. decreased ATP* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  11. 11. In the electron transport chain, how many complexes pump protons across the inner mitochondrial membrane?
    A. one
    B. three
    C. two
    D. four
    B. three* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  12. 12. Which of the following statements defines the chemiosmotic hypothesis?
    A. an accumulation of electron carriers NADH and FADH2, that cannot enter the electron transport chain
    B. oxidation of FADH2 to FAD in the electron transport chain in complex II
    C. pumping of protons from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space creates a concentration difference of protons and produces energy to drivethe synthesis of ATP
    D. pumping of protons from the cytosol to the mitochondrial matrix creates a concentration difference of protons and produces energy to drive the synthesis of ATP
    C. pumping of protons from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space creates a concentration difference of protons and produces energy to drivethe synthesis of ATP* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  13. 13. Which of the following cofactors IS NOT required in the TCA Cycle?
    A. cytochrome c
    B. coenzyme A
    C. FAD
    D. NAD
    A. cytochrome c* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  14. 14. Which of the following statements correctly describes the electron transport chain?
    A. acetyl CoA is a component of complex II B. the electron transport chain is involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation
    C. electron enter the electron transport chain at complexes III and IV
    D. coenzyme Q is the final electron acceptor
    B. the electron transport chain is involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation* (2011)
  15. 15. Which of the following statements concerning the TCA Cycle is false?
    A. intermediates of the TCA Cycle are maintained constant by anaplerotic reactions-4-
    B. conversion of isocitrate to alpha ketoglutarate is a rate limiting step in the cycle
    C. a decrease in the NADP/NAD ratio will inhibit the TCA Cycle due to substrate Unavailability 
    D. the TCA Cycle uses acetyl CoA as a fuel and in the process electrons are transferred to NAD and FAD
    C. a decrease in the NADP/NAD ratio will inhibit the TCA Cycle due to substrate Unavailability* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  16. 16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of insulin?
    A. it is a peptide hormone
    B. it is secreted in response to elevated blood glucose levels
    C. it is synthesized in the pancreas
    D. the hormone binds to intracellular receptors
    D. the hormone binds to intracellular receptors* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  17. 17. Which of the following best describes the metabolism of fructose?
    A. fructokinase converts fructose to fructose-6-P
    B. fructose is formed from the hydrolysis of lactose
    C. aldolase B converts fructose-1-P to glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone Phosphate
    D. a fructokinase deficiency depletes the liver of ATP and leads to cataract formation
    C. aldolase B converts fructose-1-P to glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone Phosphate* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  18. 18. The process of glycogenolysis:
    A. is regulated by controlling the activity of glycogen phosphorylase 
    B. is activated by increased levels of glucose-6-P
    C. is favored by insulin
    D. in muscle is allosterically inhibited by AMP
    A. is regulated by controlling the activity of glycogen phosphorylase* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  19. 19. Which of the following is not a role of UDP-glucose?
    A. used in glycosaminoglycan synthesis 
    B. used in glycogenesis
    C. involved in glycoprotein synthesis
    D. involved in lactose synthesis
    A. used in glycosaminoglycan synthesis* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  20. 20. Which of the following is not a defense against oxygen toxicity?
    A. thiamine
    B. vitamin E
    C. glutathione peroxidase
    D. superoxide dismutase
    E. catalase
    A. thiamine* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  21. 21. An individual with a disease caused by a defect in mitochondrial DNA might be expected to have which of the following?
    A. deletion of the X chromosome
    B. increased activity of complex IV
    C. increased ratio of NADH/NAD+
    D. high ratio of ATP/ADP
    C. increased ratio of NADH/NAD+* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  22. 22. If you have not eaten in the past 24 hours, which of the following pathways will be most active?
    A. glycolysis
    B. glycogenolysis
    C. gluconeogenesis
    D. glycogenesis
    C. gluconeogenesis* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  23. 23. The Pentose Phosphate Pathway does all of the following except:
    A. protect red blood cells from reactive oxygen species (ROS)
    B. generation of NADPH
    C. provides intermediate for glycosaminoglycan synthesis
    D. provide ribose for nucleotide synthesis
    C. provides intermediate for glycosaminoglycan synthesis* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  24. 24. Group I and II hormones have which of the following in common?
    A. type I and II hormones are lipophilic
    B. most type I and II hormones require transport proteins
    C. most type I and II hormones have intracellular receptors
    D. type I and II hormones have second messengers
    B. most type I and II hormones require transport proteins* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  25. 25. All of the following molecules can function as second messengers except:
    A. AMP
    B. Ca++
    C. IP3
    D. cAMP
    A. AMP* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. 26. In contrast to liver, muscle does not release glucose into the blood in response to epinephrine because muscle lacks
    A. phosphorylase
    B. phosphoglucomutase
    C. glucose-6-phosphatase
    D. epinephrine receptors
    E. adenylate cyclase
    C. glucose-6-phosphatase* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. 27. Which of the following vitamins is required for the Pentose Phosphate pathway to operate normally
    A. thiamine
    B. biotin
    C. pantothenic acid
    D. niacin
    E. riboflavin
    • A. thiamine*
    • D. niacin* (2011)
  28. 28. In the fed state, which of the following pathways increase in activity?
    A. glycogenesis
    B. glycogenolysis
    C. A and C
    D. A and B
    E. glycolysis
    C. A and C* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. 29. If mitochondrial electron transport was blocked from NAD to CoQ, which one of the following substrates could be used as an energy source?
    A. pyruvate
    B. succinate 
    C. alpha ketoglutarate
    D. malate
    E. isocitrate
    B. succinate* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. 30. Which of the following is not a function of the TCA Cycle?
    A oxidizes acetyl CoA
    B. produces H2O
    C. produces GTP
    D. produces NADH E. produces FADH2
    B. produces H2O* (2011)
  31. 31. Concerning membrane structure:
    A. carbohydrates account for over 50% of the composition of membranes
    B. specific phospholipids are found in equal proportions in both of the bilayers
    C. as the protein/lipid ratio decreases the functional complexity of the membrane increases
    D. increasing the level of saturated fatty acids decreases membrane fluidity
    D. increasing the level of saturated fatty acids decreases membrane fluidity* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. 32. Passive facilitated transport has which of the following characteristics?
    A. specificity for solute
    B. can transport solutes against a concentration gradient C. subject to inhibition
    D. A and B
    E. A and C
    E. A and C* (2011)
  33. 33. Which of the following is an example of a membrane related disease?
    A. Wilson’s Disease
    B. Marfan Syndrome
    C. Ehlers Danlos Syndrome
    D. Osteogenesis Imperfecta
    A. Wilson’s Disease* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  34. 34. The uptake of macromolecules from the extracellular medium to inside the cell is termed:
    A. diffusion
    B. facilltated transport
    C. endocytosis
    D. exocytosis
    C. endocytosis* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  35. 35. UDP-glucuronate is involved in all of the following except:
    A. glycogen synthesis 
    B. glucuronide formation
    C. bilirubin excretion
    D. detoxification reactions
    A. glycogen synthesis* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  36. 36. Which of the following types of plasma membrane receptors utilize second messengers to facilitate responses to hormones?
    A. JAK-STAT receptors
    B. tyrosine kinase receptors
    C. ion channel receptors
    D. heptahelical receptors
    D. heptahelical receptors* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  37. 37. Glucagon exerts its primary effects on which of the following tissues/organs?
    A. brain
    B. liver
    C. heart
    D. muscle
    B. liver* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  38. 38. Which of the following statements best describes the Cori Cycle?
    A. The transfer of ketone bodies from the liver to muscle which is used to synthesize glucose which returns the liver
    B. the formation of ketone bodies in heart, the transfer to the liver and the synthesis of glucose which is returned to the heart
    C. the transfer of alanine to the liver which is used to synthesize glucose which is returned to muscle
    D. The transfer of lactate formed in muscle to the liver which is used to synthesize glucose which is returned to muscle
    D. The transfer of lactate formed in muscle to the liver which is used to synthesize glucose which is returned to muscle* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  39. 39. Concerning gluconeogenesis, which of the following statements is false?
    A. key enzymes are pyruvate carboxylase, PEP carboxykinase, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and glucose-6-phosphatase
    B. the primary precursors are amino acids, lactate and glycerol
    C. the pathway increases in activity in the fed state
    D. the process occurs mainly in the liver
    C. the pathway increases in activity in the fed state* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  40. 40. Concerning carbohydrate digestion:
    A. Salivary amylase has a greater activity than pancreatic amylase
    B. Absorption of dietary fructose occurs via active transport
    C. Dietary cellulose cannot be digested because of a lack of alpha-1,4-glycosidases
    D. Lactose intolerance leads to a buildup of hydrogen and methane by intestinal Bacteria 
    D. Lactose intolerance leads to a buildup of hydrogen and methane by intestinal Bacteria* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  41. 41. The reactive oxygen species, superoxide anion, can be formed At which site on the mitochondrial electron transport chain?
    A. Complex II
    B. Complex III D.
    C. Coenzyme Q
    ATP synthase
    C. Coenzyme Q* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  42. 42. A patient diagnosed with thiamine deficiency exhibited fatigue and muscle cramps. The muscle cramps have been related to an accumulation of which of the following organic acids?
    A. alpha-ketoglutarate 
    B. succinate
    C. malate
    D. fumarate
    A. alpha-ketoglutarate* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  43. 43. Concerning the PDH complex:
    A. the enzyme is subject to covalent modification 
    B. the complex is located in the cytosol
    C. the products are FADH2 and acetylCoA
    D. the enzyme is stimulated by ATP and NADH
    A. the enzyme is subject to covalent modification* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  44. 44. Concerning the process of uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation:
    A. increases electron transport and ATP synthesis
    B. decreases electron transport and ATP synthesis
    C. has no effect on electron transport or ATP synthesis
    D. increases electron transport and decreases ATP synthesis
    D. increases electron transport and decreases ATP synthesis* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  45. 45. Formation of galactose in a patient on a galactose free diet requires which of the following enzymes?
    A. Uridyl transferase
    B. Epimerase
    C. Transaldolase
    D. Galactokinase
    B. Epimerase* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  46. 46. During phagocytosis, there is a large increase in the activity of which of the following pathways of carbohydrate metabolism?
    A. Glycogenolysis
    B. Glycolysis
    C. Pentose Phosphate pathway
    D. Uronic Acid pathway
    C. Pentose Phosphate pathway* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  47. 47. Which of the following would be an example of an anaplerotic reaction?
    A. Formation of fumarate from succinate
    B. Formation of isocitrate from citrate
    C. Formation of oxaloacetate from pyruvate and CO2
    D. Formation of succinyl CoA from alpha ketoglutarate
    C. Formation of oxaloacetate from pyruvate and CO2* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  48. 48. Digestion of sucrose produces:
    A. Galactose only
    B. Glucose only
    C. Glucose and galactose
    D. Glucose and fructose
    D. Glucose and fructose* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  49. 49. Which of the following is not a function of NADPH?
    A. Mitochondrial electron transport
    B. Fatty acid synthesis
    C. Cholesterol synthesis
    D. Reduction of oxidized glutathione
    A. Mitochondrial electron transport* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  50. 50. Which of the following coenzymes requires the vitamin niacin?
    A. FAD
    B. NAD
    C. Lipoic acid
    D. Coenzyme A
    B. NAD* (2011)
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)

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