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  1. 1. When moving toward the stern of the vessel, you are heading _____?
    A. amidships
    B. athwartships
    C. forward
    D. aft
  2. 2. A direction that runs from side to side on a vessel is _____?
    A. amidships
    B. athwartships
    C. forward
    D. aft
  3. 3. What is the entire left side of the vessel called?
    A. port side
    B. starboard side
    C. bow
    D. stern
  4. 4. What is the entire right side of the vessel called?
    A. port side
    B. starboard side
    C. bow
    D. stern
  5. 5. What is the back end of a vessel called?
    A. port side
    B. starboard side
    C. bow
    D. stern
  6. 6. When you are climbing onto the vessel's rigging at the mast, you are going ____.
    A. aloft
    B. below
    C. topside
    D. forward
  7. 7. Which of the following is the BEST description for the windward side of the vessel?
    A. The side from which no wind is blowing. B. The side from which old sea waves are rising.
    C. In the direction from which the wind is blowing.
    D. The side of calm weather.
  8. 8. The vertical partitions that make up the compartments of a vessel (the same thing as a wall in a building) is / are ______.
    A. overheads
    B. bulkheads
    C. deck plates
    D. knife edges
  9. 9. The force of water on the hull acting in a vertical or upward force (pushing it up) causing the vessel to float is ______.
    A. buoyancy
    B. gravity
    C. draft
    D. equilibrium
  10. 10. The ability to keep water out of a compartment or vessel is called ______.
    A. stability
    B. scuttle
    C. watertight stability
    D. watertight integrity
  11. 11. Of the three basic types of hulls, which hull skims along the surface of the water as speed increases?
    A. displacement hull
    B. planing hull
    C. semi-displacement
    D. semi-planning
  12. 12. What type of keel has stiffeners (vertical or upright members to increase strength) to protect the boat�s hull plating, and reduce roll?
    A. Flat plate keel
    B. Plate keel
    C. Bar keel
    D. Plating keel
  13. 13. What is the point on a vessel's underwater body that reaches the greatest depth, measured from the waterline to bottom of the keel?
    A. beam
    B. freeboard
    C. draft
    D. super structure
  14. 14. What term is used to describe the difference between light displacement and loaded displacement?
    A. general weight
    B. dead weight
    C. static weight
    D. none of the above
  15. 15. Weight and buoyancy ______.
    A. are not equal to each other but push in the same direction
    B. are equal to each other and act in opposite directions
    C. are equal to each other but act in the same direction
    D. have no effect on each other
  16. 16. Which of the following statements concerning the center of gravity is FALSE?
    A. The center of gravity will move away from added weight.
    B. The lower the center of gravity, the more stable the vessel.
    C. The center of gravity is a point above the center of buoyancy.
    D. The center of gravity is the point at which the weight of the boat acts vertically downward.
  17. 17. When a boat is at rest, the center of buoyancy acting upwards/vertically is below the center of gravity acting downwards. It is at this point that a boat is considered to be _________.
    A. listing
    B. healing
    C. at an even keel
    D. in equilibrium
  18. 18. Which type of stability balances the vessel fore and aft?
    A. longitudinal
    B. static
    C. transverse
    D. dynamic
  19. 19. Internal forces caused by the placement of weight aboard a vessel are called _______ forces?
    A. longitudinal
    B. static
    C. transverse
    D. dynamic
  20. 20. In a compartment, when loose water shifts from side to side or forward and aft due to turning, speed changes, or wave action, which may cause the vessel to not want to right itself. This causes a loss of stability and is referred to as ___________. A. dynamic effect
    B. liquid effect
    C. free surface effect
    D. down flooding
  21. 21. When a vessel collects ice on deck, the center of gravity will move ______ and ______ the ice on a vessel, affecting vessel stability.
    A. Down, away from
    B. Off center, close to
    C. Up, away from
    D. Up, towards
  22. 22. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A. A watertight compartment is a space within a vessel.
    B. Watertight compartments are only meant to keep water in.
    C. Watertight compartments are only meant to keep water out.
    D. Watertight compartments are considered private spaces
  23. 23. A tool used to open and close individual dogs on watertight doors and hatches is called a ________.
    A. torque wrench
    B. hex wrench
    C. dogging wrench
    D. spanner wrench
  24. 24. Watertight hatches can be mounted on the deck of a vessel in different ways. Of the following, which is NOT a feature on a watertight hatch?
    A. Flush mounted to the deck
    B. Have a quick acting hatch actuator handle C. Have individual dogs
    D. Have a scuttle mounted in the center, for quick access through the hatch
  25. 25. The knife edge on a water tight door, hatch, or scuttle, is bright, smooth, and ______.
    A. unpainted
    B. painted
    C. warped
    D. extremely sharp
  26. 26. When inspecting a watertight door, which of the signs will help you determine if flooding has occurred?
    A. Observe if sweating is coming from the door indicating cold water is behind the door B. Tapping on the length of the door, beginning at the bottom, to determine by change of sound if water is behind the door. C. Slowly open the door a little and listen for hissing air escaping, and watch for water to escape around the gasket.
    D. All of the above.
  27. 27. When using the tow bitt, the point where the static pulling force becomes such that any increase in engine load could lead to damage to the engine or tow bitt is called excessive ___________.
    A. elongation
    B. elasticity
    C. fairlead
    D. bollard pull
  28. 28. The unused or belayed end of a line (it is the remaining part of the line, including the end that is not worked) is called the _____?
    A. running end (bitter end)
    B. standing part
    C. overhand loop
    D. underhand loop
  29. 29. Lines are made of natural or synthetic fibers, the fibers are twisted into______.
    A. strands
    B. yarns
    C. small stuff
    D. braids
  30. 30. Natural fiber and synthetic fiber line is measured by its _____ .
    A. circumference
    B. length
    C. diameter
    D. weight
  31. 31. Which of the following characteristics describe a plain laid line?
    A. Hollow braided
    B. Core is made of large, single yarns in a slack braid
    C. Three strands, right laid
    D. Eight strands with four twisted to the right and four twisted to the left
  32. 32. What is the name of the natural fiber plant manila line made from?
    A. Abaca
    B. Cotton
    C. Hemp
    D. Manila
  33. 33. What type of synthetic line is half the strength of nylon, 25% lighter than nylon, and it is designed to float on water?
    A. Polyester
    B. Polypropylene
    C. Dacron
    D. Kevlar
  34. 34. A periodic inspection of all working lines used at your unit should be made paying special attention to ______.
    A. the color
    B. the weather
    C. how clean the line is
    D. cockles
  35. 35. After making a line fast to a cleat, the most common method of stowing the extra line on deck or on the dock is to ___________ the line.
    A. fake down
    B. bundle
    C. coil
    D. flemish
  36. 36. What is the name of the piece of protective covering used to shield pieces of line when it runs over taff rails, chocks, or other surfaces? This gear is made of sheathing materials like old fire hoses, leather, or heavy canvas.
    A. Plating
    B. Chafing
    C. Armor
    D. Anti-abrasion
  37. 37. What is the general term for any wooden support used in the rigging of a ship?
    A. Mast
    B. Yards
    C. Booms
    D. Spar
  38. 38. The weakest point of a line is at the ____. A. knot or splice
    B. figure eights
    C. round turn
    D. standing part
  39. 39. What knot is used to put a temporary eye in the end of a line?
    A. Clove hitch
    B. Slip clove hitch
    C. Bowline
    D. Double-Becket bend
  40. 40. What knot is used to join two lines of unequal size?
    A. Clove hitch
    B. Slip clove hitch
    C. Bowline
    D. Double-Becket bend
  41. 41. Which of the following is NOT a tool used in splicing line?
    A. Pusher
    B. Fid
    C. Mouse
    D. Marlinspike
  42. 42. When splicing three-strand, plaid-laid natural fiber line, there is a minimum of how many tucks per strand?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
  43. 43. When splicing three-strand, plaid-laid synthetic line, there is a minimum of how many tucks? A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 4
    D. 5
  44. 44. The _____ splice may be used to finish off the end of a line to prevent an unwhipped line from unlaying?
    A. king
    B. back
    C. single
    D. double
  45. 45. The _____ splice can be used on the end of fender lines?
    A. crown
    B. back
    C. round
    D. double
  46. 46. When back splicing double-braided nylon line, tie a slip knot approximately ______ fid lengths from �X�.
    A. 4
    B. 5
    C. 6
    D. 7
  47. 47. When back splicing double-braided nylon line, at what mark do you pull the core from the cover?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. R
    D. X
  48. 48. When back splicing double-braided nylon line, what is the distance from mark "1" to mark "2"?
    A. A distance equal to two short sections of the tubular fid.
    B. A distance equal to three short sections of a wire fid.
    C. A distance equal to the short section of the tubular fid.
    D. Both B and C
  49. 49. When eye splicing a large eye into double-braided nylon line, you are placing the cover into the core. Where is the fid holding the cover inserted into the core?
    A. In at mark 2 and out at mark 3
    B. In at mark 3 and out at mark 2
    C. In at mark 1 and out at mark 2
    D. In at mark 2 and out at mark 3
  50. 50. What type of stitch is used to finish an eye splice made with double-braided nylon line?
    A. Eye stitch
    B. Permanent stitch
    C. Sail line stitch
    D. Lock stitch
  51. 51. A __________ whipping is a durable method of securing strands of a line from coming unraveled.
    A. temporary
    B. permanent
    C. quick
    D. lock
  52. 52. A ___________ whipping is a quick fix, which is not durable, and will easily unravel over time.
    A. temporary
    B. permanent
    C. quick
    D. lock
  53. 53. What type of seizing is the most commonly used and most practical?
    A. Throat
    B. Rack
    C. Round
    D. Flat
  54. 54. Which of the following is not a deck fitting? A. Blocks
    B. Bitts
    C. Cleats
    D. Chocks
  55. 55. What is the standard number of figure eights used when making a line off to a bitt or Sampson post?
    A. one
    B. two
    C. three
    D. four
  56. 56. When two lines with eye splices are placed on a bollard, it may not be possible to remove the bottom line until the top line is removed. Both lines can be set and ready for easy removal, by doing what?
    A. Doubling up the eye
    B. Dipping the eye
    C. Lacing the eye
    D. Dropping the eye
  57. 57. Normally, only four lines are required when mooring. During times of foul weather the optional ______ lines may be used to provide additional holding strength.
    A. cantilever
    B. stern
    C. after bow spring
    D. breast
  58. 58. What line handling command would be used to tell you to take all tension off of line one?
    A. EASE line one
    B. SLACK line one
    C. SURGE line one
    D. CHECK line one
  59. 59. When the command SINGLE UP on line one (1) is given, this means to _____?
    A. Take in all but one bight so there remains a single part to the line.
    B. Pass an additional bight on the specified line so there are three parts to the line.
    C. Allow the pier line handler enough slack to take the line off the fitting and bring the line aboard.
    D. When working with another ship�s lines, it means to cast off the ends of their lines.
  60. 60. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
    A. Fenders are a hard, inflexible material.
    B. Fenders are made of rubber, synthetic materials, or foam.
    C. Fenders protect the hull.
    D. Fenders can be placed between vessels or on docks.
  61. 61. The Coast Guard-approved type III dynamic strength-tested personal flotation device (PFD) is rated for _______, and is established as the minimum flotation requirement for shore and cutter-based boat operations.
    A. 60 knots
    B. 50 knots
    C. 60 miles per hour
    D. 50 miles per hour
  62. 62. The type III PFD, also known as a "flotation aid" has how many pounds of buoyancy at a minimum?
    A. 10
    B. 15.5
    C. 15
    D. 25.5
  63. 63. Which of the following is a FALSE statement concerning the Coast Guard approved Type III PFD?
    A. Designed for the conscious wearer
    B. It will turn an unconscious crewmember�s face up
    C. It comes in different sizes and colors
    D. It provides the best mobility while wearing it
  64. 64. What accessories shall be outfitted on PFDs in service?
    A. Mk-124 flare and whistle
    B. A mirror and distress signal light
    C. A personnel marker light (PML) (chemical light)
    D. A whistle and distress signal light (or personnel marker light)
  65. 65. Which of the following is an advantage to wearing the Type III Personal Floatation Device (PFD)?
    A. Flotation characteristics are marginal and not suitable for wear in heavy seas.
    B. Tendency to ride-up on the wearer in the water.
    C. Allows for greater wearing comfort
    D. Wearer may have to tilt head back to avoid a face-down posture in the water.
  66. 66. The Type III PFD vest shall be international orange in color, have Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) grade reflective ____ installed.
    A. tape
    B. name tag
    C. unit identification patch
    D. inventory number
  67. 67. How many pounds of buoyancy does the antiexposure coverall provide?
    A. 22 to 45
    B. 12 to 20
    C. 15 to 50
    D. does not provide any buoyancy
  68. 68. How many straps must be tightened on the antiexposure coveralls before entering the water?
    A. 2
    B. 5
    C. 7
    D. 12
  69. 69. A dry suit is comprised of how many layers?
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4
  70. 70. What is worn as layer 1 protection of the Maritime Cold Weather Suit System (dry suit)? A. Cotton undergarment
    B. Wool underwear
    C. Thermal layer undergarment
    D. Polypropylene underwear
  71. 71. Which of the following items must be removed prior to donning the dry suit to prevent damage to wrist and neck seals?
    A. Rings
    B. Watches
    C. Earrings
    D. All of the above
  72. 72. What condition is the Dry Suits stowed?
    A. Clean and laying flat
    B. Clean
    C. Clean and dry
    D. Folded in half
  73. 73. What emergency signaling device is used to attract attention by reflecting light directly at the target?
    A. Personnel marker light (PML)
    B. Emergency signal mirror
    C. Distress signal light
    D. Personal location beacon
  74. 74. What emergency signaling device has a night end that produces a red flare and a day end that produces orange smoke?
    A. Mk-79 Mod 0 Illumination Signal Kit
    B. Distress Signal Light
    C. Mk-124 Mod 0, Smoke and Illumination Signal
    D. Emergency Signal Mirror
  75. 75. How many storage pockets does the Boat Crew Survival Vest have?
    A. three
    B. five
    C. seven
    D. nine
  76. 76. The Personnel Marker Light (PML) "chemical light stick" may be worn on the boat crew survival vest. It is not an authorized substitute for the distress signal light. (True/False)
    A. True
    B. False
  77. 77. On the survival vest the signal whistle produces an audible sound that may be heard up to _____meters/_____ yards.
    A. 274/300
    B. 3,658/4,000
    C. 2,286/2,500
    D. 1,000/1,100
  78. 78. The first thing every crewmember needs to learn about recovering a person-in-the-water (PIW) is how to _____________.
    A. call out "MAN OVERBOARD"
    B. prevent it from happening
    C. follow the coxswain�s commands
    D. act as a look out
  79. 79. What is the first step of action to take once a person has fallen overboard?
    A. Call out "MAN OVERBOARD"
    B. Throw the person a life ring
    C. Maintain sight of the person
    D. Give clear loud verbal commands
  80. 80. In which direction does the boat immediately turn if someone falls overboard? A. Away from all vessel traffic
    B. Toward the opposite side the person fell C. Toward the same side the person fell
    D. To the port side only
  81. 81. During a man-overboard, sounding _____ blasts on the sound signal, horn, or whistle alerts the boats in the area that a danger exists?
    A. five or more long
    B. three or more short
    C. five or more short
    D. one prolonged
  82. 82. Which of the following influences the approach to recover a PIW?
    A. Wind
    B. Maneuverability of the boat
    C. Sea/surf conditions
    D. All of the above
  83. 83. What are the initial steps to be taken when you see a person fall over the side from a boat?
    A. Sound alarm, throw a ring buoy, keep an eye on the MOB
    B. Sound alarm, radio for assistance
    C. Sound alarm; plot a course to the MOB�s position
    D. Break tow immediately
  84. 84. A surface swimmer surf cap is worn by surface swimmers during all deployments at night and when water temperature is below __ degrees.
    A. 50
    B. 60
    C. 72
    D. 82
  85. 85. A mask and snorkel is used by surface swimmers _______________.
    A. When water temperature is below 60 degrees
    B. For all deployments
    C. Only during the day
    D. Only during the night
  86. 86. What are surface swimmers wearing when they deploy from shore-based boats? A. Dry Suit
    B. Several thermal layers
    C. Whatever PFD and organizational clothing they got underway with
    D. Flippers and goggles only
  87. 87. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the boat swimmer harness? A. Tending line that is 70-ft long
    B. Has a buoyancy of 15.5 pounds
    C. A rescue knife is attached to the harness waist strap.
    D. All of the above
  88. 88. The surface swimmer enters the water and swims to the person in the water on the command from whom?
    A. The Boat Crewmember
    B. The Engineer
    C. The Coxswain
    D. The OIC
  89. 89. Which visual signal between a surface swimmer and line tender would indicate that the surface swimmer is OK?
    A. Taps top of head
    B. One arm raised over head
    C. Three tugs on the line
    D. Two blasts on the whistle
  90. 90. The Stokes litter is designed to transport incapacitated personnel _______.
    A. on shore only
    B. between ships, boats, and helicopters
    C. through ship board scuttles
    D. on helicopters only
  91. 91. Which strap on the Stokes litter goes over the chest floatation pads?
    A. The gray strap
    B. The black strap
    C. The blue strap
    D. The green strap
  92. 92. If the patient is secured to a backboard or spinal immobilization device, what do you do with this equipment when placing the patient into the stokes litter?
    A. only remove it in heavy seas
    B. remove it immediately
    C. only remove it if the patient is in no pain D. do not remove it
Card Set:
2013-01-29 18:29:21
USCG SWE BM3 Operations Seamanship

This is the Pamphlet review for USCG BM3 Operations and Seamanship.
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