Qtr 2 spinal neurology Exam II

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Qtr 2 spinal neurology Exam II
2013-01-31 21:48:05

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  1. What process flags microbe for macrophage destruction?
  2. What process does the macrophage use to engulf the a microbe?
    Oxidative burst
  3. How does the phagolysosome degrade the microbe? 
    • Catalase breaks hydrogen peroxide down
    • Lysosomal acid hydrolases degrade dead microorganisms
  4. What is caused by premature degranulation, faulty phagocytosis, presence of membranolytic substances, long term persistent leukocyte activation?
    leukocyte-induced tissue injury
  5. What disease is the presence of membranolytic substances found?
  6. What are the two categories of chemical mediators?
    Cell-derived and Plasma-derived
  7. What are the types of cell-derived chemical mediators?
    • preformed (histamine and mast)
    • Synthesized as needed (prostaglandin)
  8. What are the classifications of plasma derived chemical mediators?
    • Complement
    • Kinins
    • Coagulation Factors
  9. What type of chemical mediator are vasoactive amines?
    • Dell-derived 
    • Preformed
  10. What chemical mediator is released by basophils, platelets (in response to injury) and mast cells?
  11. What type of reaction does histamine cause?
    • vasodilatioin
    • venular endothelia cell contraction
    • Junctional widening
  12. What type of chemical mediator is serotonin?
  13. What are arachidonic acid metabolites (Eicosanoid)?
    • Cell derived (synthesized)
    • Prostagladins, thromboxane
    • Leukotrines
  14. What are the functions of prostagladins and thromboxane?
    Vasodilation and prolong edema
  15. What are the functions of leukotrines?
    chemotaxins, vasoconstrictors, increase vascular permeability and bronchospasm
  16. What is the main function of the clotting system and where is it derived?
    Converts soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin clot
  17. What is the main function of the kinin system?
    Release of bradykinnins
  18. What is the complement system activated by?
    C1 or C3 (punch holes in membrane)
  19. What is the function of PAF (platelet activating factor)
    • vasodilation
    • vascular permeability
    • leukocyte adhesion
  20. What is the function of cytokines?
    Tell other cells how to act
  21. What is the function of nitric oxide? and where is it produced?
    • vascular smooth muscle relaxation
    • kills microbes in activated macrophages
    • supresses platelet adhesion
  22. What are the possible outcomes of acute inflammation?
    • Complete resolution
    • scarring
    • abscesses
    • progression to chronic inflammation
  23. What is the excessive build up of scar tissue called?
  24. What is the common WBC called? and what are they activated by?
    • Macrophage
    • Activated by: Tcells, endotoxins, other inflammatory processes
  25. Where are T and B lymphocytes produced? And what is their function?
    • T-Thymus:ID imminuglobin needed
    • B-Bone marrow: Produce immunoglobin
  26. What is a plasma cell derived from?
    It is a B cell that differentiates due to immunoglobin production
  27. Where are eosinophils found?
    • Parasitic infection 
    • Allergy (immunoglobin E)
  28. What is it called when t cell activated macrophages engulf indigestible foreign bodies and form clusters that resemble squamous cells? and what are two examples?
    Granulomatous inflammation

    • Tuberculosis
    • Crohn's disease
  29. What is the main function of lymph nodes?
    Stop the spread of infection
  30. What pattern of inflammation has a watery effusion and where is it mainly found?
    • Serous
    • Upper airway infection
    • GI mucus
  31. What type of inflammation is seen in nemonia, bronchitis, adhesive pericarditis?
    Fibrinous (Fiber accumulation)
  32. What type of inflammation has the presence of puss?
    Suppurative (abscess)
  33. What type of inflammation occurs via necrotic epithelial surface? (e.g. bed sores)
  34. What are the acute phase reactions to inflammation?
    • Fever 
    •      -anorexia
    •      -skeletal muscle protein                    
    •        degradation
    •      -Hypotension
  35. What types of leukocytosis occurs in bacterial, parasitic and viral infections (respectively)?
    • Bacterial- Neutrophilia
    • parasitic- Eosinophilia
    • virial- lymphocytosis
  36. What is the suffix giving to benign tumors of the connective tissue?
    oma (i.e. fibroma)
  37. What suffix is given to malignant tumors of connective tissue?
    sarcoma (chondrosarcoma)
  38. What suffix is given to benign tumors of epithelial cells?
    pappilloma (i.e. squamous cell pappilloma)
  39. What is the suffix given to malignant tumors of epithelial cells?
  40. What is mesothelloma?
    malignant tumor of the plura
  41. What is invasive meningloma?
    malignant tumor of the brain coverings
  42. What is adenoma?
    benign tumor of epithelial lining of glands or ducts
  43. What is the process of going from differentiated to undifferentiated?
  44. What type of tumor grows by expansion?
  45. What is the most common cancer found in men and women (respectively)?
    • Men-Prostate
    • Women-breat
  46. What is the most common type of cancer to cause death?
    Lung cancer
  47. What are the four main DNA damaging agents associated with cancer?
    • Chemicals 
    • Radiation
    • Viruses
    • Free Radicles
  48. What are the four steps of invasion and metastasis of malignant tumors?
    • 1. loosing of cell to cell contact
    • 2. attachment to novel ECM components
    • 3. Degradation of ECM
    • 4. tumor migration
  49. What are ten known carcinogens?
    • 1. Arsenic: lung, skin, blood
    • 2. Asbestosis: Lung, pleura, GIT
    • 3. Benzene: Leukemia, hodgkin lymphoma
    • 4. Beryllium: Lung
    • 5. Cadmium: prostate
    • 6. Chromium: Lung
    • 7. Ethylene oxide: leukemia
    • 8: Nickel: Nose, Lung
    • 9. Radon: Lung
    • Vinyl Chloride: Blood vessels, liver
  50. What recognizes antigens on tumor surface?
    CD8+ and CTLs
  51. What is a progressive loss of body fat an lean body mass, accompanied by profound weakness, anorexia, and anemia, caused by release of cytokines by the tumor or host?
  52. What is the Triple A effect?
    athenia, anorexia, anemia