American Government Test 1

Card Set Information

American Government Test 1
2010-05-19 21:43:47
American Government POLS University West Georgia

Chapters 1-3
Show Answers:

  1. 1. The newest federal cabinet department is
    a. Veterans Affairs.
    b. Homeland Security.
    c. Education.
    d. Health and Human Services.
  2. 2. Since the 1960s, Americans’ trust in their government has generally
    a. remained stable.
    b. risen slightly.
    c. fallen slightly.
    d. fallen sharply.
  3. 3. The belief that you can influence how your government acts is called
    a. political efficacy.
    b. saliency.
    c. popular sovereignty.
    d. autocracy.
  4. 4. Which of the following is not a reason given to explain American citizens’ increased political apathy?
    a. citizens’ lack of understanding of politics
    b. the increasing belief that people cannot make a difference in politics
    c. an increase in the knowledge of how government operates
    d. the perception that government is out of touch with public opinion
  5. 5. Survey data shows that the level of Americans’ political knowledge is
    a. uniformly high.
    b. low and spotty.
    c. high regarding history but low regarding governmental processes.
    d. high concerning current events but low concerning history.
  6. 6. What aspect of citizenship was most important for the ancient Greeks?
    a. voting
    b. holding office
    c. military service
    d. talking and debating
  7. 7. According to the text, which of the following is the most important act of a citizen?
    a. participating in public debates
    b. voting for the candidate of one’s choice
    c. holding office in the government
    d. being born in the nation of which you are a citizen
  8. 8. It is important for Americans to have knowledge of democratic principles so that they
    a. will be able to determine who is or is not un-American.
    b. understand what forms of political conduct are consistent with democracy.
    c. are better able to assess their own interests when making political choices.
    d. will be better able to judge the legitimacy of other nations.
  9. 9. According to a 2007 poll, compared to readers of major newspaper Web sites, the audience of The Daily Show with Jon Stewart and The Colbert Report had __________ political knowledge.
    a. no
    b. less
    c. equal
    d. more
  10. 10. Of the nearly 200 governments in the world, what is the estimate of the number of actual constitutional democracies?
    a. 20
    b. 75
    c. 110
    d. 150
  11. 11. Government can best be defined as
    a. the institutions and procedures by which a territory and its people are ruled.
    b. the set of political principles and values that guide political life.
    c. the legalized theft of others’ property.
    d. the invisible hand that turns private interests into public goods.
  12. 12. What is the principle difference between an autocracy and an oligarchy?
    a. the responsiveness to popular opinion
    b. the number of people in charge
    c. the level of wealth of the rulers
    d. international diplomatic recognition
  13. 13. A government that accepts no legal limits on its power but may accept the restraint of other social institutions, such as churches, is known as
    a. oligarchic.
    b. authoritarian.
    c. totalitarian.
    d. democratic.
  14. 14. If the government were controlled by a small group of wealthy landowners and corporate leaders, this would be best described as
    a. an oligarchy.
    b. an autocracy.
    c. an authoritarian regime.
    d. a totalitarian state.
  15. 15. An autocracy exists when
    a. the government is controlled by a single individual.
    b. the government is controlled by a small but powerful group of people.
    c. the constitution of a government is followed strictly.
    d. the government is controlled by one dominant religious group.
  16. 16. Which of the following is not an example of a public good?
    a. a military defense force
    b. a police force
    c. a job
    d. the administration of the courts
  17. 17. Which of the following is not an example given by the text of a totalitarian regime?
    a. pre–World War II Italy
    b. the Soviet Union
    c. Nazi Germany
    d. the United Kingdom
  18. 18. Who said that the best government was the one that “governed least”?
    a. John Locke
    b. Thomas Jefferson
    c. Abraham Lincoln
    d. Franklin D. Roosevelt
  19. 19. The willingness to be restrained by the power of social institutions, but not political or legal institutions, is a hallmark of a(n) __________ regime.
    a. totalitarian
    b. authoritarian
    c. democratic
    d. oligarchic
  20. 20. According to the text, what is the main benefit of a constitutional government?
    a. The government is limited by the rule of law.
    b. The government must obey democracy.
    c. The government will distribute social goods equally.
    d. The government is stable.
  21. 21. A government that is formally limited by laws and rules is called
    a. democratic.
    b. constitutional.
    c. oligarchic.
    d. authoritarian.
  22. 22. Before the eighteenth century,
    a. governments were primarily democratic.
    b. totalitarian rule was common.
    c. governments rarely sought the support of their people.
    d. most governments were based on respect for the rule of law.
  23. 23. Which major changes in Western governments led to the establishment of constitutional government?
    a. legal limits on government and the right of more people to vote
    b. the right of revolution and the spread of socialism
    c. debt relief for the poor and the right of citizens to hold office
    d. the colonialism of the New World and the right of revolution
  24. 24. The demand that there be no taxation without representation is a good example of what political reform of the eighteenth century?
    a. more popular influence on government
    b. the decline in citizenship
    c. the spread of autocracy
    d. greater attention to the economic effects of politics
  25. 25. Historically, what were the most effective intermediaries for increasing political participation?
    a. elected monarchies
    b. universities
    c. independent judiciaries
    d. parliaments
  26. 26. John Locke and John Stuart Mill are important philosophers for which of the following ideologies?
    a. popular participation
    b. liberty and political rights
    c. tradition and religion in government
    d. revolutionary action
  27. 27. Which of the following is an instrument of direct democracy?
    a. the electoral college
    b. litigation
    c. initiatives
    d. all of the above
  28. 28. Why did the Progressives support women’s suffrage in the early twentieth century?
    a. The Progressives were a group dominated by women.
    b. The Progressives wanted to make the United States as democratic as possible.
    c. The Progressives believed women would support their reform movement.
    d. The Progressives needed to develop a voting bloc to check and limit upper-middle-class northerners.
  29. 29. According to the text, what is the goal of politics?
    a. to have a say in a government’s leadership, organization, and policies
    b. to get as much power as possible in order to serve one’s own interests
    c. to construct a perfect constitutional order
    d. to construct a political system that is conducive to economic growth
  30. 30. Direct democracy is best defined as
    a. a state of continual revolution.
    b. the system that allows people to vote by telephone or over the Internet.
    c. a system that allows citizens to vote directly for laws and policies.
    d. the competition between interest groups for governmental power.
  31. 31. Having some share or say in the composition of a government’s leadership, how it is organized, or what its policies are going to be is called
    a. government.
    b. power.
    c. autocracy.
    d. federalism.
  32. 32. Political culture refers to
    a. the way that artists, musicians, filmmakers, and cultural critics use their message to influence political decision making.
    b. the factors that influence the way informal social organizations make decisions.
    c. the shared values, beliefs, and attitudes that serve to hold a nation and its people together.
    d. the system of organizing politically, which is defined in the Articles of Confederation.
  33. 33. Throughout American history, the concept of liberty has been linked to
    a. the idea of privacy.
    b. the idea of limited government.
    c. the idea of unlimited government.
    d. the Articles of Confederation.
  34. 34. What are the three core values of American politics?
    a. liberty, equality, and democracy
    b. democracy, patriotism, and the rule of law
    c. equality, oligarchy, and free enterprise
    d. anarchy, equality, and patriotism
  35. 35. In American political culture, economic freedom means
    a. low inflation.
    b. job security.
    c. laissez-faire capitalism.
    d. low taxes.
  36. 36. “One person, one vote” reflects the principle of
    a. political equality.
    b. equality of opportunity.
    c. majority rule.
    d. economic liberty
  37. 37. The term laissez-faire means
    a. fair trade.
    b. laziness is folly.
    c. hard work.
    d. leave alone.
  38. 38. The belief that political authority should rest with the people themselves is called
    a. equality of opportunity.
    b. political equality.
    c. pluralism.
    d. popular sovereignty.
  39. 39. The Constitution’s Preamble, beginning with the words “We the People . . .,” is an illustration of what principle?
    a. majority rule
    b. political equality
    c. popular sovereignty
    d. minority rights
  40. 40. Political rights are a protection against
    a. pluralism.
    b. the tyranny of the majority.
    c. the equality of result.
    d. socialism.
  41. 41. The existence of slavery in the United States is a good example of how
    a. American values are not always reflected in practice.
    b. Americans do not value liberty.
    c. European ideals have influenced American political culture.
    d. political needs are often placed above economic needs.
  42. 42. The separate but equal doctrine was introduced in what Supreme Court case?
    a. Plessy v. Ferguson
    b. the Civil Rights Cases
    c. Brown v. Board of Education
    d. Roe v. Wade
  43. 43. Plessy v. Ferguson and Brown v. Board of Education reveal two very different visions of what political value?
    a. liberty
    b. democracy
    c. equality
    d. fairness
  44. 44. Disputes over affirmative action demonstrate that
    a. Americans disagree over the public’s legitimate role in ensuring the equality of opportunity.
    b. Americans are generally supportive of equality of results.
    c. economic liberties are more important than democracy.
    d. Americans have stopped valuing democracy.
  45. 45. Which of the following statements is true?
    a. The United States has a greater gap in income between the poorest and richest than any other developed nation.
    b. The gap between the rich and the poor can be explained by American support of oligarchy.
    c. American Politics is structured by centuries-long class antagonism.
    d. Income gaps between Americans are small copared with those in other developed nations.
  46. 46. According to the text, the United States did not become a fully democratic nation until
    a. the 1860s, after the Civil War.
    b. the 1820s, when property requirements for voting were dropped.
    c. the early twentieth century, when women were granted suffrage.
    d. the 1960s, when the right of African Americans to vote was enforced by federal laws.
  47. 47. Which of the following was not once a restriction placed on the right to vote?
    a. race
    b. gender
    c. property
    d. All of the above were restrictions.
  48. 48. In __________ women were granted the constitutional right to vote.
    a. 1863
    b. 1870
    c. 1900
    d. 1920
  49. 49. Low voter turnout and political apathy endanger
    a. equality.
    b. economic liberty.
    c. democracy.
    d. constitutionalism.
  50. 50. Political apathy among Americans hurts which core political value the most?
    a. democracy
    b. freedom of religion
    c. economic liberty
    d. equality of opportunity
  51. 51. The American value of pluralism was identified most clearly by which Founder?
    a. John Adams
    b. George Washington
    c. Alexander Hamilton
    d. James Madison
  52. 52. Which statement is most closely associated with James Madison?
    a. There are so many groups competing for power in the United States that no single group will ever predominate.
    b. An effective government requires energy and secrecy in order to become militarily and financially successful.
    c. Political trustworthiness is best found at the level of local government.
    d. Political knowledge should be in the sole possession of the elite.
  53. 53. What led the British to raise taxes on the American colonists during the 1760s?
    a. the French and Indian Wars
    b. the cost of the war against Napoleon in Europe
    c. the expenses incurred in colonizing South Africa
    d. the extensive roads and canals built by the British in North America
  54. 54. Colonial protesters of the Stamp Act and the Sugar Act rallied around what famous political slogan?
    a. “No taxation without representation.”
    b. “Give me liberty or give me death.”
    c. “Remember the Alamo.”
    d. “A house divided against itself cannot stand.”
  55. 55. Who orchestrated the Boston Tea Party?
    a. John Adams
    b. Samuel Adams
    c. Samuel Lipton
    d. Alexander Hamilton
  56. 56. A ___________ is a system of government in which states retain sovereign authority except for powers expressly delegated to a national government.
    a. republic
    b. confederacy
    c. democracy
    d. bicameral state
  57. 57. Who was not appointed to help draft the Declaration of Independence?
    a. Thomas Jefferson
    b. Benjamin Franklin
    c. John Adams
    d. George Washington
  58. 58. The first written constitution for the United States was called
    a. the Magna Carta.
    b. the Bill of Rights.
    c. the Articles of Confederation.
    d. the Constitution.
  59. 59. Under the United States’ first constitution,
    a. there was no president.
    b. the president was more powerful than Congress.
    c. the Senate was the most powerful political institution.
    d. the president was directly appointed by the state legislatures.
  60. 60. How was power in Congress divided under the Articles of Confederation?
    a. Each state had an equal vote.
    b. Each state’s votes were proportionate to its population.
    c. The states were not formally represented in Congress.
    d. Each state’s power depended on its geographic size.
  61. 61. As a constitution, the Articles of Confederation were concerned primarily with
    a. creating a national government that had significant power and authority.
    b. creating a federal form of government.
    c. creating a form of government in which the states were largely subservient to the national government. d. limiting the powers of the central government.
  62. 62. Under the Articles of Confederation, it was left to the __________ to execute the laws passed by Congress.
    a. states
    b. chief executive
    c. courts
    d. bureaucracy
  63. 63. What was the purpose of the Annapolis Convention?
    a. to discuss the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation
    b. to plot the revolt known as Shays’ Rebellion
    c. to write the Declaration of Independence
    d. to draft a new Bill of Rights
  64. 64. Shays’s Rebellion was an attempt to
    a. prevent the state of Massachusetts from foreclosing on the lands of debt-ridden farmers.
    b. invade New England by Loyalists from Canada.
    c. overthrow the federal government under the Articles of Confederation.
    d. bring a Georgian slave revolt to Virginia.
  65. 65. The 1787 convention to draft a new constitution was held in
    a. Boston.
    b. New York City.
    c. Philadelphia.
    d. Washington, D.C.
  66. 66. Shays’s Rebellion was significant because it
    a. convinced many observers that the government of the Confederation had become dangerously inefficient and indecisive.
    b. led to the admission of Vermont into the Union.
    c. led to the abolition of slavery.
    d. convinced Congress to approve the Louisiana Purchase.
  67. 67. The Virginia Plan of the Constitutional Convention proposed a system of representation in the national legislature that was based upon
    a. equal representation between the states.
    b. the concept of universal suffrage.
    c. the population of each state or the proportion of each state’s revenue contribution, or both.
    d. the geographical size of a state.
  68. 68. According to historian Charles Beard, the framers of the Constitution were most concerned with
    a. establishing principles of good government.
    b. pursuing military glory and imperialism.
    c. promoting their economic interests.
    d. creating a religious community.
  69. 69. At the Constitutional Convention, the plan to create a Congress where representation was distributed according to population was called the
    a. Virginia Plan.
    b. Adams Proposal.
    c. New Hampshire Suggestion.
    d. Washington Doctrine.
  70. 70. What did the New Jersey Plan propose for Congress?
    a. Representation would be equal for each state.
    b. Representation would be apportioned according to population.
    c. The powers of Congress would check those of state legislatures.
    d. Representatives to Congress would be appointed by the state legislatures.
  71. 71. The Great Compromise led to the
    a. legalization of slavery.
    b. creation of a bicameral Congress.
    c. creation of the Supreme Court.
    d. peaceful conclusion of Shays’ Rebellion
  72. 72. The issue of representation, which threatened to wreck the entire Constitutional Convention, was resolved by the Great Compromise, also called the
    a. New Jersey Plan.
    b. Connecticut Compromise.
    c. Pennsylvania Compromise.
    d. Virginia Plan.
  73. 73. During the Philadelphia Convention, in order to win concessions from large states, representatives from smaller states like Delaware threatened to
    a. boycott goods from large states.
    b. ban travel across their borders.
    c. form alliances with foreign nations.
    d. go to war with the large states.
  74. 74. Bicameralism is a constitutional principle that means the
    a. division of national government into two branches.
    b. division of the powers of the Executive
    Branch between two individuals: the president and the vice president.
    c. division of the powers of the Executive Branch between two individuals: the Head of State and the Head of Government.
    d. division of Congress into two chambers.
  75. 75. James Madison believed that in the Constitutional Convention the greatest conflict of interests was between
    a. large states and small states.
    b. northern states and southern states.
    c. the wealthy and the poor.
    d. Catholics and Protestants.
  76. 76. The ability of the president to veto a bill passed by Congress is a good example of what principle of limited government?
    a. separation of powers
    b. federalism
    c. checks and balances
    d. civil liberties
  77. 77. Which of the following was designed by the framers to be an office directly elected by the people?
    a. congressional representative
    b. senator
    c. president
    d. all of the above
  78. 78. Procedures outlining how to amend the Constitution are found in Article
    a. I.
    b. II.
    c. V.
    d. X.
  79. 79. Only one-third of the Senate is up for re-election during any single election year, because the framers believed that
    a. too many elections would be difficult for the states to run.
    b. the voters should not have to make too many decisions during any single election.
    c. this was the only way to protect the Senate against radical changes.
    d. the state legislatures would conspire with each other to elect a Senate dominated by a single party.
  80. 80. Alexander Hamilton argued that the chief executive office should possess
    a. popularity.
    b. judgment.
    c. energy.
    d. gravitas
  81. 81. Judicial review is the power of
    a. the courts to decide on the constitutionality of actions taken by the other branches of government.
    b. Congress to review the decisions of the federal courts.
    c. the president to appoint judges to the federal courts.
    d. the states to review the constitutionality of federal actions and laws.
  82. 82. What is the term length of a federal judge?
    a. two years
    b. four years
    c. six years
    d. barring impeachment, life
  83. 83. The framers of the Constitution intended to create a presidency capable of
    a. completely dominating Congress.
    b. withstanding excessive popular pressure by making it subject to indirect election through the electoral college.
    c. spending money with little interference from any other branch of government.
    d. regulating all forms of commerce.
  84. 84. The principle of giving each branch of government its own constituency is what Montesquieu calls a
    a. tyranny.
    b. democracy.
    c. mixed regime.
    d. republic.
  85. 85. Compared with the Articles of Confederation, federalism under the Constitution has led to
    a. greater centralization of power.
    b. increased state autonomy.
    c. the establishment of unitary government.
    d. more local autonomy, at the expense of the states.
  86. 86. Who was not one of the writers of the Federalist Papers?
    a. James Madison
    b. John Adams
    c. Alexander Hamilton
    d. John Jay
  87. 87. Brutus and Federal Farmer are two pseudonyms used by the
    a. Federalists.
    b. Antifederalists.
    c. Publius.
    d. Monarchists.
  88. 88. Each of the following was an Antifederalist, except
    a. Patrick Henry.
    b. John Jay.
    c. George Mason.
    d. Richard Henry Lee.
  89. 89. Which constitutional principle of the United States has been most frequently imitated by other nations?
    a. bicameralism
    b. federalism
    c. lifetime tenure for judges
    d. written constitutions
  90. 90. The essential dilemma of a limited government raised by the ratification debates is that
    a. a government too weak to do harm also cannot do good.
    b. power sharing is inherently unstable and too often violent.
    c. a government of expressed powers will slip into an oligarchy.
    d. government may promote civil virtue only at the expense of national power.
  91. 91. The idea of a “living constitution” means
    a. the Constitution should be continually amended to keep up with the times.
    b. the judiciary can shape the interpretation of the Constitution in line with contemporary problems and values.
    c. each generation must design its own constitution.
    d. only an unwritten constitution can grow with a people.
  92. 92. In a federal system a majority of governmental responsibilities are
    a. the sole responsibility of the federal government.
    b. under the complete authority of state governments.
    c. shared by both state and federal authorities.
    d. provided by local government agencies.
  93. 93. Which of the following is the best example of a unitary system of government?
    a. The federal government sets education policies for all schools.
    b. The federal government establishes general guidelines for school policy.
    c. The government makes funding for schools dependent on test scores.
    d. The federal government provides parents with vouchers for private schools.
  94. 94. The federal system can be best defined as
    a. a system of government where member nations meet in a multinational conference.
    b. a system of government in which power is divided between a national government and lower levels of government.
    c. a system in which the power of the central government is funded through taxation of the local
    d. the sharing of legislative powers between an upper and lower house.
  95. 95. The specific powers granted to the national government in Article I, Section 8, of the Constitution are called the
    a. implied powers.
    b. expressed powers.
    c. sovereign powers.
    d. executive powers.
  96. 96. The source of an implied power under the Constitution is the _________ clause.
    a. full faith and credit
    b. comity
    c. necessary and proper
    d. commerce
  97. 97. Which of the following is an example of the police powers of state government?
    a. the establishment and funding of a system of criminal law
    b. the regulation of health codes
    c. laws establishing curfews
    d. all of the above
  98. 98. What is the purpose of the Tenth Amendment?
    a. to offer each state constitution the same level of protection provided by the federal constitution
    b. to limit the powers of the central government by establishing reserved powers for states and individuals
    c. to grant citizens of each state access to the federal court system
    d. to establish the electoral college
  99. 99. A state’s authority to regulate the safety, health, and morals of its citizens is called _________ power.
    a. police
    b. reserved
    c. concurrent
    d. supremacy
  100. 100. When both state and national governments possess a certain level of authority, it is called
    a. an implied power.
    b. a reserved power.
    c. an express power.
    d. a concurrent power
  101. 101. What constitutional clause affirms that national laws and treaties, made under the authority of the Constitution, are the supreme law of the land?
    a. the full faith and credit clause
    b. the necessary and proper clause
    c. the republican government clause
    d. the supremacy clause
  102. 102. Chartering banks is a _________ power, because both federal and state governments have the authority to do it.
    a. necessary
    b. police
    c. concurrent
    d. reserve
  103. 103. Why was Massachusetts’s decision to recognize gay and lesbian marriages such a controversial issue of federalism?
    a. The law was found to be in violation of the Fifth Amendment.
    b. The Constitution requires all states to honor and recognize the official acts of other states.
    c. The act was an attempt to enforce restrictions against federal habeas corpus violations.
    d. Massachusetts did not obtain the approval of at least half of the other states before passing the law.
  104. 104. The __________ clause of the Constitution requires that states should normally recognize the laws, acts, and judicial decisions of other states.
    a. supremacy
    b. full faith and credit
    c. concurrent power
    d. double jeopardy
  105. 105. When Alaska passed a law in the 1970s that gave state residents preference over nonresidents in obtaining work on oil pipelines, this law violated the
    a. interstate commerce clause.
    b. full faith and credit clause.
    c. privileges and immunities clause.
    d. takings clause.
  106. 106. What is the main purpose behind the privileges and immunities clause of Article IV?
    a. It prevents a state from discriminating against nonresidents.
    b. It compels each state to recognize the laws of other states.
    c. It requires all states to provide a uniform standard of benefits and entitlement.
    d. It states that the Bill of Rights applies to the actions of state governments, as well as the national government.
  107. 107. Why were local governments important during the early years of the Republic?
    a. State administration was often weak.
    b. Under dual federalism, most power was given to municipalities.
    c. Political parties were weakest in the cities until after the Civil War.
    d. The power of federal patronage was very strong.
  108. 108. According to the text, when was the era of dual federalism?
    a. from the ratification of the Constitution until the end of the Civil War
    b. from the ratification of the Constitution until the New Deal
    c. from the Civil War until World War II
    d. from the New Deal until the 1960s
  109. 109. Which of the following was not a function of government most commonly performed by state governments during the era of dual federalism?
    a. commercial laws
    b. education
    c. patents and copyrights
    d. insurance laws
  110. 110. During the era of dual federalism, what was the primary goal of the federal government’s domestic policies?
    a. to promote competition between the states
    b. to assist the development of commercial activity within and between the states
    c. to protect citizens from the abuses of state governments
    d. to keep the states from going to war with each other
  111. 111. Which level of government writes the majority of criminal laws?
    a. the national government
    b. the state governments
    c. the local governments
    d. the special districts
  112. 112. How did the traditional system of dual federalism establish a “commercial republic”?
    a. The federal government passed laws forbidding any regulation of capitalism.
    b. The function of the federal government was to promote and assist commerce.
    c. Dual federalism established property-holding requirements for federal officeholders.
    d. The federal government was originally designed to regulate and control the marketplace.
  113. 113. How has the structure of federalism made way for the longevity of the U.S. government?
    a. It has allowed for many divisive policy decisions to be made by states, rather than the national
    b. It has kept the national government small and aloof throughout most of America’s history.
    c. It has allowed states to develop in numerous and different ways.
    d. all of the above
  114. 114. What was one effect of dual federalism during the early Republic?
    a. The national government was spared the task of making difficult policy decisions, such as the
    regulation of slavery, because the states did it themselves.
    b. The national government was unable to raise sufficient amounts of money through taxes and tariffs.
    c. The number of federal criminal laws expanded rapidly, while state criminal laws decreased.
    d. All of the above were effects of dual federalism.
  115. 115. Which clause of the Constitution has been critical in allowing the growth of national power?
    a. the commerce clause
    b. the full faith and credit clause
    c. the comity clause
    d. the Tenth Amendment
  116. 116. What was the overall importance of the Supreme Court case McCulloch v. Maryland?
    a. The Court interpreted the delegated powers of Congress broadly, creating the potential for increased national powers.
    b. The Court gave a very restricted definition of Congress’s delegated powers, in keeping with the era of dual federalism.
    c. The Court announced that dual federalism did not conform to the framers’ design.
    d. The Supreme Court declared that all national banks were unconstitutional.
  117. 117. The commerce clause explicitly gives Congress the power to regulate all of the following types of commerce, except that
    a. among the states.
    b. with foreign nations.
    c. with Indian tribes.
    d. with multinational corporations.
  118. 118. During most of the nineteenth century, Congress used its powers to __________ commerce.
    a. regulate
    b. facilitate
    c. limit
    d. corrupt
  119. 119. What economic policy was the national government not allowed to implement during the nineteenth century?
    a. establishing a series of national banks
    b. giving patents and copyright protections
    c. regulating the health and safety of the workplace
    d. promoting transportation between the states
  120. 120. In __________, the Supreme Court reinterpreted the commerce clause, changing it from a check on national power to a source of national power.
    a. 1915
    b. 1937
    c. 1973
    d. 1981
  121. 121. The constitutional idea of states’ rights was strongest during which historical period?
    a. the years immediately preceding the Civil War
    b. Reconstruction
    c. the Great Depression
    d. the 1960s
  122. 122. Those seeking to restrain the powers of the national government look to what part of the Constitution?
    a. the commerce clause
    b. the states’ rights clause
    c. the First Amendment
    d. the Tenth Amendment
  123. 123. Which Supreme Court case has not limited federal power?
    a. United States v. Lopez
    b. Printz v. United States
    c. Gibbons v. Ogden
    d. All of the above have limited federal power.
  124. 124. Which constitutional amendment has been used to restrict the scope of authority by the federal government over the states?
    a. First
    b. Fifth
    c. Tenth
    d. Fourteenth
  125. 125. During the Great Depression, a camp of unemployed individuals who had lost their homes was referred to as
    a. a Hooverville.
    b. a Roosevelt Town.
    c. a supply-side shanty.
    d. a capitalism camp.
  126. 126. A federal grant for states to afford increasing health care facilities would be an example of a
    a. categorical grant.
    b. formula grant.
    c. block grant.
    d. Ulysses S. Grant.
  127. 127. A __________ grant requires state and local governments to submit proposals to the federal government and compete for funding.
    a. Pell
    b. formula
    c. project
    d. federal
  128. 128. What was a major reason for the declining importance of state governments during the 1960s?
    a. State governments were not raising enough revenue.
    b. The national government distrusted states due to racism in the South.
    c. The national government was limited by the principle of home rule.
    d. State governments had delegated their powers to the national government.
  129. 129. When the federal government sets environmental standards that every state must follow, it is an example of
    a. cooperative federalism.
    b. dual federalism.
    c. regulated federalism.
    d. “marble cake” federalism.
  130. 130. The principle of __________ grants the federal government the power to override any state or local law in one particular area of policy.
    a. cooperative federalism
    b. grant-in-aid
    c. preemption
    d. dual federalism
  131. 131. Disapproval over unfunded mandates is most common among those who want
    a. to reduce the power of the federal government.
    b. to increase the scope of federal regulations.
    c. to exercise a strong principle of preemption.
    d. a return to the days of national supremacy.
  132. 132. Which president was the first to promote New Federalism?
    a. Franklin Roosevelt
    b. Dwight Eisenhower
    c. Lyndon Johnson
    d. Richard Nixon
  133. 133. Block grants are designed to
    a. fund a large number of similar projects.
    b. fund urban improvements on a specific city block.
    c. give the states considerable say in how the money should be spent.
    d. fund capital improvements in a specific block of schools.
  134. 134. Using block grants to return power to states was part of the Nixon and Reagan administrations’
    a. New Deal.
    b. Great Society.
    c. New Federalism.
    d. New Frontier.
  135. 135. What have many political scientists called “laboratories of democracy”?
    a. the executive agencies of the federal government
    b. the states
    c. local governments
    d. special districts
  136. 136. Many of the debates concerning federalism reflect
    a. the regional competition that has existed throughout American history.
    b. the greatest source of tension between Republicans and Democrats.
    c. differing views about the ultimate goal of government itself.
    d. conflict of interest problems between government officials and business leaders.
  137. 137. The Tenth Amendment of the United States Constitution addresses
    a. civil rights.
    b. reserved powers.
    c. implied powers.
    d. concurrent powers.
  138. 138. Federal laws concerning crime mostly deal with
    a. terrorism.
    b. the District of Columbia and other federal territories.
    c. drug trafficking and organized crime.
    d. international crime.
  139. 139. Who wrote the Supreme Court opinions in both McCulloch v. Maryland and Gibbons v. Ogden?
    a. Alexander Hamilton
    b. James Madison
    c. John Marshall
    d. Roger Taney
  140. 140. Congressional grants paid for __________ percent of the development of an interstate highway after World War II.
    a. 10
    b. 50
    c. 90
    d. 100