Biology 1170 Test 1

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  1. What are 3 Mechanisms of Hypothalamic Control over Endocrine Function?
    • 1. Production of ADH & Oxytocin.
    • 2. Secretion of regulatory hormones to control activity of the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
    • 3. Control of sympathetic output to adrenal medullae.
  2. The Endocrine System regulates physiological processes through the binding of _____ to receptors.
  3. This organ produces ADH, Oxytocin, and regulatory Hormones.
  4. This gland produces ACTH, TSH, GH, PRL, FSH, LH, and MSH, and releases Oxytocin & ADH.
    Pituitary gland
  5. This gland produces these hormones: (T3), (T4), & Calcitonin.
    Thyroid Gland
  6. How do Hormones work?
    They alter the operations of target cells by changing the types, quantities, or activities of important enzymes and structural protiens.
  7. A Hormone May ...
    • 1. Stimulate the synthesis of an enzyme or a structural protein not already present in the cytoplasm by activating appropriate genes in the cell's nucleus.
    • 2. Increase or decrease the rate of synthesis of a particular protein by changing the rate of transcription or translation
    • 3. Turn an existing enzyme or membrane channel "on" or "off" by changing its shape or structure.
  8. What are the 3 groups of hormones?
    • 1. Amino Acid Derivatives
    • 2. Peptide Hormones
    • 3. Lipid Derivatives
  9. This portion of the adrenal gland produces Epinephrine & Norepinephrine
    Adrenal Medulla
  10. This portion of the Adrenal gland produces cortisol, corticosterone, aldosterone, androgens
    Adrenal Cortex
  11. This organ produces insulin and glucagon
  12. This gland produces melatonin
    Pineal gland
  13. This gland produces the Parathyroid Hormone
    Parathyroid gland
  14. The heart secretes which natriuretic peptides?
    • Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
    • Brain Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)
  15. The thymus secretes what?
  16. Adipose tissue secretes Lepton?
    True or False:
    Adipose tissue secretes Leptin
  17. The Kidneys secrete what?
    Erythropoietin (EPO) & Calcitriol
  18. Gonads produce which hormone?
    Androgens (especially testosterone)
  19. Ovaries produce which hormones?
    Estrogens, progestins, inhibin
  20. Small molecules that are structurally relate to amino acids, which are the building blocks of protien.
    Amino Acid Derivatives
  21. Most peptide hormones are synthesized as ________ - inactive molecules that are converted to active hormones before or after they are secreted.
  22. Groups of Peptide Hormones Include?
    • Glycoproteins
    • Short polypeptide
    • Small proteins
  23. Groups of amino acid derivative hormones include:
    • Thyroid derivative hormones
    • Tryptophan Derivative Hormones
  24. Thyroid Hormones & Catecholamines are derivatives of what amino acid?
  25. Melatonin is a derivative of which amino acid?
  26. What are the two classes of lipid derivatives?
    • Eicosanoids
    • Steroid Hormones
  27. Eicosanoids are  derived from the 20 carbon chained fatty acid called
    Arachidonic acid
  28. Steroid hormones are derivatives of What?
  29. _____ are involved primarily in coordinating local cellular activities.
  30. In some tissues, prostaglandins are converted to ______ & ______ which also have strong paracrine effects.
    Thromboxanes & Prostacyclins
  31. The Hormone ACTH stands for
    Adrenocorticotropic Hormone
  32. The Hormone TSH stands for
    Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
  33. The Hormone GH stands for
    Growth Hormone
  34. The Hormone PRL stands for
  35. The Hormone FSH stands for
    Follicle-stimulating hormone
  36. The Hormone LH stands for
    Luteinizing Hormone
  37. The Hormone MSH stands for
    Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone
  38. The Hormone OXT stands for
  39. The Hormone ADH stands for
    Antidiuretic Hormone
  40. TSH has what hormonal effect?
    Secretion of thyroid hormones by the thyroid gland
  41. ACTH has what hormonal effect?
    • Sectretion of Glucocorticoids
    • (Cortisol, Corticosterone)
    • by the adrenal cortex
  42. FSH has what hormonal effects?
    • Secretion of estrogen & follicle development
    • &
    • Stimulation of Sperm Maturation
  43. LH has what hormonal effect?
    Ovulation, formation of courpus luteum, & secretion of progesterone in females.

    Secretion of testosterone in males
  44. PRL Has what hormonal effects?
    Production of milk by the mammary glands
  45. GH has what hormonal effects?
    Growth, protein synthesis, lipid mobilization and catabolism.
  46. MSH has what hormonal effect?
    increased melanin synthesis in epidermis
  47. ADH has what hormonal effects?
    Reabsorbtion of water in the kidneys which elevates blood volume and pressure
  48. OXT has what hormonal effects?
    • Labor contractions, milk ejection &
    • Contractions of the ductus deferens and
    • prostate gland
  49. Effects of thyroid hormones on peripheral tissues:
    • 1)Elevated oxygen consumption and energy use; in children may cause rise in body temp
    • 2)Incresed heart rate and force of contraction
    • 3)Incresed sensitiivity to sympathetic stimuli
    • 4)Maintains normal sensitivity to respiratory centers.
    • 5)Stimulates red blood cell formation
    • 6)stimulates activity in other endo-tissues
    • 7)Accelerates turnover of minerals in bone
  50. What are normal Blood Calcium Levels?
    (8.5-11) mg/dl
  51. What gland reacts to high blood calcium levels?
    Thyroid gland
  52. What gland reacts to low levels of Blood calcium?
    Parathyroid gland
  53. T3 & T4 have what hormonal effects?
    Increase energy utilization, oxygen consumption, growth and development
  54. Calcitonin has what hormonal effects?
    Decreases Calcium concentrations in body fluids
  55. PTH has what Hormonal effects?
    Increase blood calcium levels?
  56. Mineralcorticoids (Primarily Aldosterone) have what hormonal effects?
    Increse renal absorbtion of Na+ and water, and accelerate the urinary loss of K+
  57. Glucocorticoids (hydrocortisone, cortisol, cortisterone) have what hormonal effects?
    Release of amino acids from skeletal muscles and lipids from adipose tissues; promote liver formation of glucose and glycogen; promoter peripheral utilization of lipids; anti-inflammatory effects.
  58. Androgens have what hormonal effects?
    Not important in adult men; encourages bone growth, muscle growth, and blood formation in children and women
  59. Epinephrine, Norepinephrine have what hormonal effects?
    Increases cardiac activity, blood pressure, glycogen breakdown, blood glucose levels, releases lipids by adipose tissue
  60. Among the functions suggested for melatonin in humans are the following:
    • 1) Inhibiting reproductive functions
    • 2) Protecting against damaging free radicals
    • 3) Influencing circadian rythms
  61. What are circadian rythms?
    daily changes in physiological processes that follow a regular day and night pattern
  62. ______ raises blood glucose levels by increasing the rates of glycogen breakdown and glucose release by the liver.
  63. what lowers blood glucose levels by increasing the rate of glucose uptake and utilization by most body cells.
  64. Name 5 effects insulin has on its target cells:
    • 1)Accelerates glucose uptake
    • 2)Accelerates glucose utilization and enhances atp production.
    • 3)Stimulates glycogen formation in skeletal muscles and liver
    • 4) Stimulates amino acid absorbtion and protein synthesis.
    • 5)Stimulates triglyceride formation in Adipose tissue
  65. Normal Blood Glucose levels are what?
    (70-110 mg/dl)
  66. The Primary effects of glucagon are what?
    • 1)Stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in skeletal muscle and liver cells.
    • 2)Stimulating the breakdown of triglycerides in adipose tissue.
    • 3)Stimulating the production and release of glucose by the liver.
  67. Alpha cells produce what hormone that mobilizes lipid reserves; and promotes glucose synthesis and glycogen breakdown in liver to elevate blood glucose concentration.
  68. Beta cells produce what hormone to facilitate uptake of glucose by target cells and stimulate formation and storage of glycogen and lipids.
  69. The delta cells produce what hormone that inhibits insulin and glucagon secretion; and slows rates of nutrient absorbtion and enzyme secretion along the digestive tract.
    GH-IH   (Somatostatin)
  70. F cells produce what hormone that inhibits gallbladder contraction; regulates production of pancreatic enzymes; and influences rate of nutrient absorbtion by the digestive tract.
    PP (Pancreatic Polypeptide)
  71. What hormone coordinates and regulates the immune response?
  72. ANP and BNP have what hormonal effect?
    They increase water and salt loss at the kidneys; decrease thirst; suppress secretion of ADH and ALdosterone
  73. What hormonal effect does erythropoietin have?
    Stimulates red blood cell production
  74. What hormonal effect does calcitriol have?
    • Stimulates calcium and phosphate absorbtion; stimulates calcium release from bone;
    • inhibits PTH secretion
  75. What hormonal effects does leptin have?
    Suppresses appetite; permissive effects on GnRH and gonadotropin synthesis
  76. what hormonal effects do androgens of the interstitial cells have?
    • support functional maturation of sperm, protein synthesis in skeletal muscles,
    • male secondary sex characteristics, and assosciated behaviors
  77. Inhibin produced by the nurse cells have what hormonal effect?
    Inhibits secretion of FSH
  78. What hormonal effects do estrogens developed from the ovaries have?
    Support follicle maturation, female secondary sex characteristics, and assosciated behaviors
  79. What hormonal effect do the progestins of the ovaries have?
    Prepares the uterus for implantation; prepares mammary glands for secretory activity.
  80. What are 5 of blood's important functions?
    • 1) Transporting disolved gases, nutrients, hormones, and metabolic wastes.
    • 2) Regulating the pH and Ion composision of iterstitial fluids.
    • 3)Restricting fluid loss at injury sites.
    • 4)Defending against toxins and pathogens.
    • 5)Stabilizing body temperature.
  81. What is the aproximate temperature of blood in celcius and fahrenheit?
    • 38 degrees Celcius
    • 100.4 degrees Fahrenheit
  82. Blood is how many times as viscous as water?
    Five times
  83. Blood has a normal ph range of what?
  84. blood plasma equals what % of the blood?
  85. Formed elements make up what % of blood?
  86. Water makes up ____% of blood plasma
  87. Plasma proteins make up ____% of blood plasma
    7 %
  88. Red blood cells make up ____% of the formed elements in blood.
  89. the percentage of whole blood bolume contributed by formed elements is called what
  90. the term ____ _____ refers to the combination of plasma and the other formed elements together
    Whole Blood
  91. Formed elements are produced throught the process of what?
  92. The liver synthesizes and releases more than _____% of the plasma proteins.
  93. There cannot be a difference between nutrient and waste concentrations between arterial blood and venous blood. True or false?
    False: There can be a difference
  94. Small membrane bound cell fragments that contain enzymes and other substances important to clotting
  95. Participate in the body's defense mechanisms.
    White blood cells or Leukocytes
  96. What are the five classes of Leukocytes
    (White Blood Cells)?
    • 1)Neutrophils
    • 2)Eosinophils
    • 3)Basophils
    • 4)Lyphocytes
    • 5)Monocytes
  97. The most abundant blood cells are called ...
    Erythrocytes, or Red Blood Cells
  98. These specialized cells are essential for the transport of oxygen in the blood.
    RED Blood Cells
  99. The Normal hematocrit, or packed cell volume (PCV) in adult males is ____ and adult females is ____.
    46 & 42
  100. what is used for ATP production, growth, and maintenance of cells, and includes lipids, carbohydrates, and amino acids.
    Organic Nutrients
  101. Albumins constitute roughly ___ % of the plasma proteins.
  102. As the most abundant plasma protein, ____ are major contributors to the osmotic pressure of plasma.
  103. Globulins account for approximately ___ % of the proteins in plasma.
  104. Important plasma _____ include antibodies and transbort ______.
    Globulins X 2
  105. What forms the basic framework for a blood clot?
  106. What functions in clotting and normally accounts for roughly 4% of plasma proteins.
  107. The Male hormone _____ Stimulates Red Blood Cell Production while the female hormones ______ do not. This reflects the difference in their hematocrit
    Androgens & Estrogens
  108. Red blood cells are formed by _______, and contain _______ that can be recycled.
    Erythropoiesis & Hemoglobin
  109. The Percentage of blood sample that consists of formed elements is known as _____.
  110. 2 conditions that could affect the hematocrit include:
    Dehydration & Erythropoietin stimulation
  111. An Average RBC has a diameter of ______ nanometers and a maximum thickness of ____ nanometers.
    7.8 & 2.85
  112. The center of the RBC narrows to about _____.
    .8 nanometers
  113. The RBC shape has three important effects on its function which include:
    • 1)Giving each RBC a large Surface-area to volume ratio.
    • 2)Enables RBC's to form stacks that smooth flow through narrow blood vessels.
    • 3)Enabling RBC's to bend and flex when entering small capilaries and branches.
  114. Circlulating RBC's lack nuclei and ribosomes, and cannot divide or synthesize structural proteins or enzymes; therefore, the life of a RBC is normally less than _____ Days.
  115. What molecules account for more than 90% of a RBC's Intracellular proteins?
    Hemoglobin (Hb)
  116. Each Hb molecule has two ____ chains and two _____ chains of peptides.
    Alpha & Beta
  117. Each heme unit holds an iron ion in such a way that the iron can interact with an oxygen molecule forming what?
    Oxyhemoglobin (HbO2)
  118. Blood that contains RBCs filled with Oxyhemoglobin is what color?
    Bright Red
  119. Each Hb chain contains a single molecule of _____ which is a non-protein pigment complex.
  120. The binding of an oxygen molecule to the iron in a heme unit is completely reverisible. A hemoglobin molecule whose iron is not bound to wxygen is called ______.
  121. Fetal hemoglobin binds oxygen more readily than does the hemoglobin of adults. True or False?
    True, Fetal hemoglobin is different from adult hemoglobin
  122. Each RBC cpmtaoms about _____ Hb Molecules. Because an Hb molecule contains four heme units, each RBC can potentially carry more than a billion molecules of oxygen at a time.
  123. When the alpha and beta chains of hemoglobin bind to carbon dioxide _____ is formed.
  124. The amount of oxygen that binds to the hemoglobin depends mostly on the oxygen content of what?
    The blood Plasma
  125. After the RBC travels about ____ miles in ___ Days, either its plasma membrane ruptures or some other damage is detected by phagocytes, which engulf the RBC
    700 & 120
  126. About __ % of the circulating RBCs are replaced each day, and in the process approximately _____ million new RBCs enter the bloodstream EACH SECOND!!
    1 & 3
  127. Two of the best known inherited disorders characterized by abnormal hemoglobin production are:
    • 1) Thalassemea
    • 2) Sickle cell anemia (SCA)
  128. What results from an inability to produce adequate amounts of alpha or beta chains of hemoglobin?
  129. As a result of Thalassemia, The rate of RBC production is ____ and mature RBCs are ____ lived which reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of blood.
    Decreased & Short
  130. What results from a mutation affecting the amino acid sequence of the beta chains of the Hb Molecule.
    Sickle Cell Anemia (SCA)
  131. Large quantities of free iron are toxic to cells, so in the body, iron is generally ___ ___ ___ ____ ____ _____
    bound to trasport or storage protiens.
  132. In adults ________ is the only site of RBC production, as well as the primary site of WBC formation.
    Red Bone Marrow
  133. RBC formation, or erythropoiesis occurs only in ______ aka. _____.  
    Red Bone Marrow, or Myeloid tissue
  134. Myeloid tissue is located in what seven bones?
    • 1) Vertebrae    2) Sternum
    • 3) Ribs            4) Skull
    • 5) Scapulae     6) Pelvis
    • 7) Proximal limb bones
  135. Under extreme stimulation, areas of _____ bone marrow convert to _____ bone marrow to increase the rate of RBC Formation
    Yellow & Red
  136. What are the 6 stages of RBC Maturation?
    • 1) Proerythroblast
    • 2) Basophilic Erythroblast
    • 3) Polychromatophilic Erythroblast 
    • 4) Normoblast
    • 5) Reticulocyte
    • 6) Mature red Blood Cell
  137. For Erythropoiesis to proceed normally, the red bone marrow must recieve adequate supplies of amino aacids, iron and vitamins including what 3 important vitamins?
    B12, B6, &  Folic Acid
  138. In order to absorb Vitamin B12, we need _____ _____, which is produced in the stomach.
    Instrinsic Factor
  139. If Vitamin B12 is not obtained from the diet, normal stem cell divisions cannot occur and ____ ____ Results.
    Pernicious Anemia
  140. Pernicious anemia is caused in what 3 ways?
    • 1) Deficiency of Vitamin B12
    • 2) Decreased production of Intrinsic factor
    • 3) Problem with Absorbtion of Vitamin B12 bound to intrinsic factor
  141. Erythropoietin or (EPO), is also Called _____ _____ _____.
    Erythropoiesis stimulating Hormone
  142. A glycoprotein, formed by the kidneys and liver, and appears in the plasma when peripheral tissues, especially the kidneys, are exposed to low oxygen levels.
    EPO, AKA. Erythropoietin
  143. A low level of oxygen in tissues is called what?
  144. EPO is released under 4 Circumstances?
    • 1) During anemia
    • 2) when blood flow to the kidneys declines
    • 3) when the oxygen content of air in the lungs declines.
    • 4)Respiratory surfaces of the lungs are damaged. 
  145. EPO has TWO major Effects:
    • 1) Stimulates cell division rates in erythroblasts and n the stem cells that produce erythroblasts.
    • 2) Speeds up the maturation of RBCs mainly by accelerating Hb synthesis.
  146. Under Maximum EPO stimulation, bone marrow can increase RBC formation tenfold to about ________ cells per second.
    30 Million
  147. Substances that can trigger a reaction by a protective mechanism called an immune response are called what?
  148. ___ ____ are substances that your immune system recognizes as "normal"
    Surface Antigens
  149. What is determined by the presence or absence of specific surface antigens in the RBC plasma membranes?
    Blood Type
  150. what are the 3 most important surface antigens?
    A, B, & RH (or D)
  151. The Presence of Anti-A and/or Anti-B antibodies is _______ determined and they are present throughout life
  152. When an antibody meets its specific surface antigen, the RBCs ______ and may also hemolyze.
  153. Antibodies are also known as ______.
  154. In a ____ _____ antibodies react with their target antigens causing agglutination and hemolysis of the affected RBCs.
  155. The Various types of ___ ___ ___ contribute to the body's Defenses.
    White Blood Cells
  156. Unlike RBCs, WBCs have _____ and other organelles, but they lack _____.
    Nuclei & Hemoglobin
  157. Helps defend the body against invasion by pathogens, and they remove toxins, wastes and abnormal or damaged cells.
    White blood Cells, or Leukocytes
  158. Circulating Blood Cells have 4 Characteristics.
    • 1) All can migrate OUT of the bloodstream.
    • 2) All are capable of Amoeboid movement
    • 3) All are Attracted to Specific Chemical Stimuli.
    • 4) Neutrophils, Eosinophils, and Monocytes are capable of Phagocytosis.
  159. What white blood cell is highly mobile, and generally the first of the WBCs to arrive at the site of injury?
  160. An RBC-related disorder caused by a cross-reaction between fetal and maternal blood types.
    Hemolytic Disease
  161. When fetal and maternal vascular systems are closely intertwined, the mother's antibodies may cross the placenta, attacking and destroying fetal RBCs resulting in What?
    Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
  162. The most common form of hemolytic desease of the newborn develops after a(n) ______ woman has carried a(n) _____ Fetus.
    Rh-   &    Rh+
  163. Roughly ___ % of Rh- mothers who carried Rh+ children become sensitized within 6 months of delivery.
  164. The mother's Anti-Rh antibody production can be prevented if such antibodies (available under the name ______) are administered to the mother in weeks 26-28 of pregnancy and during the delivery.
  165. These antibodies destroy any fetal RBCs that cross the placenta before they can stimulate a maternal immune response.
  166. What cells are responsible for cell-mediated immunity?
  167. A specific defense mechanism against invading foreign cells, and for the coordination of the immune response.
    Cell-Mediated Immunity
  168. What cells are responsible for Humoral Immunity?
    B-Cells are responsible for Humoral Immunity
  169. A specific defense mechanism that involves the production of antibodies that are distributed by blood, lymph, and interstitial fluid and are capable of attacking foreign antigens throughout the body.
    Humoral Immunity
  170. What Cells are responsible for immune Surveillance?
    Natural Killer (NK) cells
  171. The detection and subsequent destruction of abnormal cells.
    Immune surveillance
  172. Transport oxygen from lungs to tissues and carbon dioxide from tissues to lungs
  173. Cell Characteristics: Phagocytic, engulfs pathogens or debris in tissues, release cytotoxic enzymes and Chemicals. Move into tissues after several hours. Produced in Red Bone Marrow.
  174. Cell Characteristics: Phagocytic: Engulf antibody-labeled materials, Reduce inflammation, increase in allergic and parasitic situations; Move into tissues after several hours, produced in Red Bone Marrow
  175. Cell Characteristics: Enter damaged tissues and release histamine and other chemicals that promote inflammation; Survival time unknown; Produced in Red Bone Marrow
  176. Cell Characteristics: Enter tissues to become Macrophages; engulf pathogens or debris; Move into tissues after 1-2 days, survive for months or longer; produced PRIMARILY in Red Bone Marrow.
  177. Cell characteristics: Cells of the lymphatic system, providing defense against specific pathogens or toxins; survive for months to DECADES, circulate from blood to tissues and back, Produced in Red Bone Marrow AND Lymphatic Tissues
  178. Formed element that Clumps together, sticks to vessel wall, and activates intrinsic pathway; Remain intact for 7-12 days, Produced by MEGAKARYOCYTES in Red Bone Marrow.
  179. the targets of Hormones that are involved with the regulation of other WBC populations are called what?
    Colony-Stimulating Factors
  180. M-CSF stimulates the production of what?
  181. G-CSF stimulates the production of what?
    • Granulocytes, which are:
    • 1) Neutrophils
    • 2) Eosinophils
    • 3) Basophils
  182. GM-CSF stimulates the production of What?
    Both Granulocytes and Monocytes
  183. Multi-CSF  does what?
    Accelerates the production of granulocytes, monocytes, platelets, and RBCs
  184. what are disc-shaped structures formed from megakaryocytes that function in the clotting process?
  185. Platelets in nonmammilian vertebrates are necleated cells called what?
  186. The Clotting system includes what 3 things?
    • 1) Platelets
    • 2) Plasma protiens
    • 3) Cells and tissues of the blood vessels
  187. An abnormally low platelet count is in what range?
    80,000/microliter or less
  188. What is the name for an abnormally low platelet count?
  189. Usually results from accelerated platelet formation in response to infection, infflamation, or cancer.
  190. In thrombocytosis, platelet counts can exceed ______.
  191. The Functions of Platelets include:
    3 things
    • 1) Releasing chemicals important to clotting process
    • 2) Forming a temporary patch in the walls of damaged blood vessels
    • 3)Reducing the size of a break in the vessel wall
  192. Platelet production, or _______ , occurs in the Red Bone Marrow.
  193. ______ are enormous cells with large nuclei. During their development, and growth they manufacture structural proteins, enzymes, and membranes. They then begin shedding cytoplasm in small membraned-enclosed packets known as platelets.
  194. A mature megakaryocyte gradually loses all of its cytoplasm, producing about ______ platelets before the nucleus is engulfed by phagocytes and broken down for recycling.
  195. The rate of megakaryocyte activity and platelet formation is influenced by what 3 things?
    • 1) Thrombopoietin
    • 2) Interleukin-6
    • 3) Multi-CSF
  196. TPO or Thrombopoietin accelerates ____ formation and stimulates the production of Megakaryocytes
  197. _____ involves vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and blood coagulation
  198. Hemostasis consists of 3 phases:
    • 1) The Vascular phase
    • 2) The Platelet Phase
    • 3) The Coagulation Phase
  199. A cut in the wall of a blood vessel triggers a contraction in the smooth muscle fibers of the wall and decreases the diameter of the vessel at the site of the injury. This Contraction is called what?
    Vascular Spasm
  200. During the Vascular phase, the vascular spasm occurs for about ____ minutes.
  201. During the Vascular Phase of Hemostasis, What changes occur in the endothelium of the blood vessel at the site of injury?
    • 1) Endothelial cells contract and expose underlying basement membrane to bloodstream.
    • 2) Endothelial cells begin releasing chemical factors and local hormones.
    • 3) The Endothelial Plasma Membrane becomes Sticky.
  202. The attachment of ______ to sticky endothelial surfaces, to basement membrane, and to exposed collagen fibers marks the start of what phase of Hemostasis?
  203. Endothelins is a peptide hormone that has what 3 functions?
    • 1) Stimulates smooth muscle contraction 
    • 2) Promotes vascular spasm
    • 3) Stimulates the division of endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, and fibroblasts to accelerate the repair process.
  204. The attachment of platelets to exposed surfaces is called ____ ______.
    Platelet Adhesion
  205. After platelet adhesion, the arrival of more platelets to stick to these platelets forming a platelet plug in the process called ____ _____.
    Platelet Aggregation
  206. Platelet aggregation begins within ____ seconds after an injury occurs.
  207. Several Key factors limit the growth of a platelet plug: name 5
    • 1) Prostacyclin
    • 2) Inhibitory compounds released by WBCs
    • 3) Circulating plasma enzymes that break down ADP near the plug.
    • 4) Compounds that, when abundant, inhibit plug formation.
    • 5)The development of a blood clot
  208. The ____ phase does not start until 30 seconds or more after the vessel has been damaged.
  209. _____ involves a complex sequence of steps leadint to the conversion of circulating fibrinogen into the insoluble protein fibrin.
  210. Factor III is also known as what?
    Tissue Factor
  211. In the extrinsic pathway,Tissue Factor produced by endothelial cells combines with ____ and another clotting factor (_____) to form an enzyme complex capable of activating ______.
    • Tissue Factor
    • Ca2+
    • Factor X
  212. The Intrinsic pathway begins with the activation of proenzymes ( usually ______) exposed to collagen fibers at the injury site
    (or to a glass surface of a slide or collection tube)
    Factor XII
  213. In the Intrinsic Pathway, after a series of linked reactions, activated Factors _____ and _____ combine to form an enzyme complex capable of activating Factor X
    VIII & IX
  214. The Common pathway begins when enzymes from either the extrinsic or intrinsic pathway activate Factor X, forming the enzyme ______.
  215. ______ converts the proenzyme prothrombin into the enzyme thrombin.
  216. What enzyme completes the clotting process by converting fibrinogen (a soluble plasma protein) to insoluble strands of fibrin?
  217. The ____ Pathway is shorter and faster than the ____ pathway, and it is usually the first to initiate clotting.
    • Extrinsic
    • Intrinsic
  218. The ____ Pathway produces a small amount of thrombin very quickly. This patch is reinforced by the _____ pathway, which later produces more Thrombin.
    • Extrinsic
    • Intrinsic
  219. Thrombin generated in the common pathway stimulates blood clotting in what two ways?
    • 1) Stimulating the formation of tissue factor
    • 2) Stimulating the release of PF-3 by platelets
  220. The activity of the common pathway stimulates only the extrinsic pathway.
    True or false?
    False: The common pathway activity stimulates both the extrinsic and intrinsic pathway.
  221. A compound that is released by basophils and mast cells, accelerates the activation of antithrombin-III, and is used clinically to impede or prevent clotting.
  222. Enzymes that inhibit clotting.
  223. An anticoagulant that inhibits several clotting factors, including Thrombin.
  224. An Agent that inhibits the production of Thromboxane A2 and prostaglandins preventing platelet aggregation and subsequent clot formation and prolonging bleeding time.
  225. _____ is released by endothelial cells where this protein binds to thrombonin and converts it to an enzyme that activates Protein C.
  226. A plasma protein that inactivates several clotting factors and stimulates the formation of plasmin.
    Protein C
  227. An enzyme that gradually breaks down fibrin strands
  228. Which two things affect almost EVERY aspect of the clotting process?
    Calcium Ions & Vitamin K
  229. Adequate amonts of ____ must be present for the liver to synthesize four of the clotting factors, including Prothrombin.
    Vitamin K
  230. This process pulls the torn edges of the vessel closer together, reducing the bleeding and stabalizing the injury site. Additionally, it reduces the size of the damaged area, making it easier for fibrocytes, smooth muscle cells, and endothelial cells to Complete repairs.
    Clot retraction or Syneresis
  231. As repairs to damaged tissues proceed, the clot gradually dissolves in a process called what?
  232. The process of Fibrinolysis begins with the activation of _______ by two enzymes: _____ & ______. This activation produces the enzyme _______, which begins digesting the fibrin strands and eroding the clot.
    • Plasminogin
    • Thrombin
    • Tissue plaminogen activator
    • Plasmin
  233. The inferior pointed tip of the heart is called what?
    The apex
  234. A muscular ridge that extends horizontally from the inferior portion of the interventricular septum and connects to the anteerior papillary muscle.
    The Moderator Band
  235. An internal network that coordinates the contractions of cardiac muscle cells.
    Conducting system
  236. What delivers the stimulus for contraction to the papillary muscles?
    The Moderator Band
  237. What consists of four dense bands of tough elastic tissue that encircle the heart valves and the base of the pulmonary trunk and aorta?
    The Cardiac Skeleton
  238. What are two of the cardiac Skeleton's main functions?
    • 1) Stabalize the positions of the heart valves and ventricular muscle cells.
    • 2) Electrically insulate the ventrivular cells from the atrial cells.
  239. The ____ System distributes electrical impulses through the heart
  240. What are the two types of cardiac muscle cells involved in a normal heartbeat?
    • 1) Specialized muscle cells of conducting system
    • 2) Contractile cells
  241. unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle contracts without what?
    Neural or hormonal stimulation
  242. The Conducting system includes what elements?
    • 1) The sinoatrial node
    • 2) The Atrio ventricular node
    • 3) Conducting cells
  243. In the atria, conducting cells are found where?
    The Internodal pathways
  244. In the ventricles, where are the conducting cells included?
    3 Structures
    • 1) AV bundle
    • 2) Bundle Branches
    • 3) Purkinje fibers
  245. Each time conducting cell membranes of the SA & AV nodes repolarize, the membrane then drifts toward threshold in a gradual process called what?
    Prepotential or Pacemaker potential
  246. The Prepotential results from a slow inflow of ___ without a compensating outflow of ____.
    • Na+
    • K+
  247. On an ECG, What illustrates the depolarization of the atria?
    The small P Wave
  248. On a ECG, this appears as the ventricles depolarize.
    The QRS complex
  249.  The ventricles begin contracting shortly after the peak of what wave illustrated by an ECG?
    R Wave
  250. On an ECG, this extends from the start of atrial depolarization to the start of the QRS complex.
    P-R interval
  251. On an ECG, this indicates the time required for the ventricles to undergo a single cycle of depolarization and repolarization.
    Q-T interval
  252. On an ECG, this indicates ventricular repolarization.
    T Wave
Card Set:
Biology 1170 Test 1
2013-02-18 18:18:40
1170 Lee test

Lee Test 1 1170 matireal
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