Pharmocology exam 1 all notes

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Pharmocology exam 1 all notes
2013-02-14 01:57:11
UL Lafayette

Nurs 309
Show Answers:

  1. Prototype Nonselective adrenergic agonist
  2. Prototype alpha 1 adrenergic agonist
  3. Prototype alpha 2 adrenergic agonist
  4. Prototype beta adrenergic agonist
  5. Prototype beta 1 agonist
  6. Prototype dopaminergic agonist
  7. Prototype Alpha antagonist
  8. Prototype beta blocker
  9. Sympathetic/ Adrenergic system responsible for Fight or flight will :
    • Increased heart rate
    • dilate pupils
    • mobilize energy
    • redirect bloodflow from nonessential organs to skeletal muscles
  10. Postganglionic neurotransmitter that is produced and store in the presynaptic nerve terminals of the SNS
  11. Hormone converted from norepinephrine in the adrenal Medulla, also known as adrenaline
  12. Epinephrine was stimulate all adrenergic receptors except
  13. ______ receptors are less sensitive to epinephrine so it's initial response will Be to _______stimulation
    Alpha and Beta
  14. Alpha-1 receptors are found in
    Eyes, blood vessels, bladder, male sex organs, prostatic capsule
  15. Alpha-2 receptors are found In
    Presynaptic nerve terminals
  16. Beta-1 receptors are found in
    Primarily the heart, and kidneys
  17. Beta-2 receptors are found in
    Arterioles of the heart, lungs, skeletal muscles, bronchi, uterus, liver
  18. Alpha-1 is responsible for
    Vasoconstriction of coronary arteries and veins and decrease smooth muscle motility in the G.I. tract
  19. Alpha-2 receptors are responsible for
    Shutting down the release of norepinephrine
  20. Beta-1 receptors are responsible for
    Increase cardiac output by increasing the speed of conduction, increasing the force of contraction, and increasing the pulse rate
  21. Beta-2 receptors are responsible for
    Dilation to promote breathing, creating energy from the breakdown of that stored in fat tissue also known as lipolysis, or from providing glucose to the cells through new creation of glucose (gluconeogenesis) or the breakdown of glycogen into glucose
  22. Beta three receptors are responsible for
    help break down fats in fact issues for imaging heat and plays a major role in regulation of weight but also causes tremors that's making pharmacologically unuseful at this time
  23. Alpha-1 and beta-1 receptors response to what type of stimuli
    Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine
  24. Alpha-2 and beta-2 receptors response to what type of stimuli
    Epinephrine and norepinephrine
  25. Many dopamine receptors are located where
    In the kidneys. and in low amounts dopamine Binds with vascular and renal receptors dilating blood vessels, increasing blood flow to the renal, mesenteric, and coronary heart
  26. As dopamine increases, beta-1 receptors are stimulated. Dopamine in highest concentrations act on alpha-1 receptors.
  27. There are 5 types of dopamine receptors and only two mediate responses in the Adrenergic nervous system, what are those two?
    Dopamine one and dopamine two
  28. Stimulation of dopamine one and dopamine two receptors results in ________ ;however stimulating both receptors may have either complementary or opposing effects
    Peripheral vasodilation
  29. _________ Is a dopamine one agonist in the prototype for dopaminergic agonist drugs
  30. Fenoldopam is use in the hospital for short-term management of what disease
    Severe hypertension
  31. Fenoldopam is contradicted in patients with what issues
    Hypersensitivity to sulfites, history of glaucoma or intraocular hypertension, Hypokalemia because fenoldopam may reduce serum potassium with administrative for more than six hours. Also is given cautiously in the patients with acute cerebral infarction or hemorrhage just because it may call hypotension
  32. When giving Fenoldapam
    Should be diluted with sodium chloride or dextrose, titrated, and monitored closely
  33. Prazosin is used to treat what diseases
    • CHF
    • Raynaud vasospasms
    • prostatic outflow obstruction
  34. Prazosin blocks postsynaptic alpha-1 adrenergic recepotrs and lowers what two blood pressures
    supine and standing
  35. You should not use Prazosin in what contrindicated populations
    • Hypersensitivy
    • pts. with angina because hypotension may worsen the condition
    • CHF or renal failure
  36. Light headedness, dizziness, headache, drowsiness, weakness, lethargy, nausea, and palpitations are all adverse effects of what drug.
  37. Symptomatic hypotension, tachycardia, adbominal or back pain, GI effects, sweating, and CNS effects such as insomnia, dizziness, nervousness, or anxiety are all adverse efeects of _______________
  38. ___________ is used for the treatment of hypertensio, angina, and controlled CHF
  39. Pharmacodynamics of Metoporol is?
    decreases cardiac output, blood pressure, and slows atrioventricular conduction and suppression of automaticity
  40. enteral route uses _______ for the ingestion and absorption of drugs.
    GI tract
  41. Parenteral route, which includes topical as a sub classification, distrubutes drugs how?
    By bypassing the GI tract in forms of injections and topical appliance to skin or mucous membranes
  42. Most drug absortption occurs where?
    small intestines
  43. Desired therapeutic effect of the drug is called?
  44. what is phatmacokinetics?
    the changes that occur to the drug while it is inside the body
  45. Pharmacodynamics is _____________
    the effects of the drug on the body
  46. What are effects that may occur when the drug is given along with another drug, food, or substance?
    drug interactions
  47. Core patient variables are:
    • health status
    • life span and gender
    • lifestyle, diet, and habits
    • environment
    • culture and inherited traits
  48. Pre clincal trials are designed
    to provide basic safety, bioavailability, pharmacokinetic, and intial efficay data about the drug and are carried out in animal subjects in the laboratory setting
  49. Parasympathetic/cholinergic nervous system is stimulated by what neurotransmitter
  50. What are the 2 drug categories in the PSNS
    • cholinergic agonists
    • anticholinergics
  51. PSNS is responsible for:
    • Salvation
    • Lacrimation
    • Urination
    • Digestion
    • Defecation
  52. ACh cause _____________ to produce nitric oxides, which diffuses to ______ and results in vasodilation and perfusion of organs
    • endothelial cells
    • smooth muscle
  53. Cholinergic receptors include
    • Nicotinic M
    • Nicotinic N
    • Muscarinic
  54. Nicotinc M receptors are found? N?
    • M: neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle
    • N: in cell bodies of postganglionic neurons in the SNS, PSNS, and adrenal medulla
  55. Muscarinic receptors reponds to _____ and binds to _____
    • ACh
    • muscarine
  56. Pilocarpine (akarpine) causes
    miosis and increase salivary flow
  57. When using pilocarpine drops ask about? Oral or topical admin?
    • retinal detachment
    • bradyarthymias
  58. Direct acting nicotinic agonists is
  59. Indirect acting cholinergic agonist
    AChE is cleared by ACh and blocks the action of ACh
  60. Neostigmine (progstigmin) is a long-acting cholinesterase inhibitor and potent miotice used in the management of______
  61. Neostigmine helps_____________
    drain fluids from the eyes which decreases pressure and is a category X drug because it may cause fetal defomities. Also helps with myasthenia gravis
  62. Neostigmine is best given how? and what should you ask and do before admin?
    • Parenterally
    • Ask last bowel movement and check on resp. status and issues
  63. Cholinergic antagonists used for bradycardia and choliergic crisis is?
  64. Atropine works how?
    targets and block muscarine receptors. You  should know hx of cardiac arrthymias before giving this drug
  65. Alkaloids
    reacts with the body's acids and forms salts which is soluable in body fluids
  66. glycosides
    contains CHO or sugar molecule
  67. Gums
    mucilagenous secretions that attract and hold water
  68. Volatile oils
    insoluable in H2O, derived from plants and only evaporate in air
  69. Fixed oils
    derivered from both plants and animal sources and consistency varies with temperature
  70. Resins
    solid or semisolid, water insoluable, organic substances of vegetable origin commonly used as a laxative or caustic agents
  71. USP
    standards of strength, quality, purity, and prepartions of medicinal compounds
  72. National Formulary
    expands efforts to set national standards fro drug quality
  73. 1906
    pure food and drug act passed
  74. 1938
    Food, drug, and cosmetic act
  75. the most frequent indications for adrenergic agonist drug is____________
  76. Epinephrine is used for
    asthma and shock and should be watched in people with hypersesitvity, sulfite sensitvity, closed angle glaucoma, and druing labor
  77. Phenylephrine is used when?
    • parenterally for vascular failure in shock
    • topical for relief of nasal mucocal congestion
  78. Organogenesis in the pregnant female occurs when?
    from implantation to 58-60 days after conception
  79. drug excretion rates _________ during pregnacy due to what?
    Increase; by the 3rd trimester renal blood flow has increased 40%-50% increasing glomerular filtration rate
  80. ____________ decrease gastric tone and motility and prolongs stomach empyting times which might alter oral medications
  81. Play therapy is used for?
    reduction of children's anxiety
  82. Im injections should be given in the leg until what age group?
    School aged (6-12) now given ventrogluetual
  83. Bilirubin accumulation in the CNS is called________ and is life threatining
  84. Induction of the P-450 system is accomplished by the stimulating synthesis of the _______ enzymes
  85. decreased P-450 enzymes the longer the half life of a drug will be due to decrease liver functioning
  86. The inhibition of CYP3A4 causes?
    decrease GI metabolism of the drug allowing more of the drug to be absorbed
  87. what effects CYP3A4
    grapefruit juice, St. Johns Wart both inhibit it