Pharmacology #3

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  1. This IV form of calcium is associated with a metallic taste, mild local irritation, and is more irritating than other IV calciums.
    Calcium gluceptate
  2. When using IV calcium to treat severe hypocalcemia, what adverse events might you experience?
    • Bradycardia
    • AV block
    • Cardiac arrhythmias
    • Cardiac arrest
  3. Calcium chloride should not be administered ___ or ___ (routes of administration) because of tissue necrosis and sloughing.
    • SC
    • IM
  4. Calcium chloride can be slowly infused through IV, but leakage into the perivascular tissues can cause _____.
  5. What are 2 factors that increase risk of adverse events in patients receiving IV calcium supplementation?
    • Rapid infusion
    • Patient is already receiving digitalis (raises calcium levels)
  6. _____ (aka Tums) contains ____% Ca2+ is best absorbed with meals because it requires gastric acidity for absorption.
    • Calcium carbonate
    • 40%
  7. _____ is best absorbed in achlorhydric patients and contains ____% Ca2+.
    • Calcium citrate
    • 21%
  8. Oral calcium supplementation blocks the absorption of iron, norfloxacin, and _____.
    Oral etidronates
  9. IV phosphate (PO4) supplementation can cause _____ & _____; oral phosphates can also cause these problems but less commonly.
    • ectopic calcification
    • kidney failure
  10. What is the overall annual percentage of bone loss in the elderly?
  11. In phase 1 of postmenopausal bone mineral density depletion, what is the result of estrogen deficiency?
    An increase in the number & activation of bone resorption sites.
  12. What causes the slow, continuous loss of BMD in Phase II of postmenopausal BMD depletion?
    A permanent imbalance between rates of bone formation and resorption.
  13. In terms of bone stuff, estrogen has 2 major functions, they are _____ & _____, which is basically what bisphosphonates do.
    • Block osteoclast proliferation
    • Slow bone resorption
  14. Loss of estrogen at menopause increases what?
    Rate of bone resorption
  15. Is estradiol better at preventing or restoring bone loss?
  16. The Women's Health Initiative asserts that estrogen and/or progestin promote 2 main adverse effects, which are.....
    • Cardiovascular consequences
    • Breast cancer
  17. When should estrogen be used?  
    To treat short-term vasomotor symptoms or to treat osteoporosis and the patient is not able to take other drugs.
  18. Tell me something interesting about Denosumab (Prolia).
    • Human monoclonal antibody
    • Binds to RANKL
    • Reduces fractures by 20-60%
    • Used to treat osteoporosis
    • Used in men, women, patients with tumors, nonmetastatic prostate cancer, women receiving aromatase inhibitor therapy for breast cancer
    • Administer SQ every 6 months
  19. Evista is a SERM.  What the heck is a SERM?
    Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
  20. Why is Evista better than hormone replacement therapy?
    Reduces risk of breast cancer and cardiovascular events instead of increasing them
  21. What are the 2 black box warnings on Evista?

    Name 2 of the 3 other adverse events related to Evista.
    • BBW: May increase risk of DVT
    • BBW: May increase risk of stroke
    • Leg cramps
  22. What are the 3 estrogenic effects of Evista?
    • Stabilizes bone
    • Decreases LDL cholesterol
    • Increases thromboembolism risk (up to 3x)
  23. Evista blocks estrogen receptors in which two areas?
    • Endometrium
    • Breast
  24. Vitamin-D is converted in the liver to what?
  25. Calcifediol is converted in the kidney to what?
  26. Calcitriol's net effect is increasing _____.
    Concentrations of phosphate and calcium in the body.
  27. How is calcifediol different from calcitriol in terms of calcium movement?
    Calcitriol increases absorption of caclium from the gut, while calcifediol does not
  28. What are 2 important AEs associated with sirolimus?
    • Thrombocytopenia
    • Hyperlipidemia
  29. What enzyme metabolizes sirolimus and could therefore result in drug interactions?
  30. Name a purine synthesis inhibitor.
  31. Azathioprine inhibits proliferation of cells, particularly _____.
  32. _____ _____ is often used in place of azathioprine in organ transplant because of fewer side effects, such as less bone marrow suppression, opportunistic infections, and lower incidence of acute rejection.
    Mycophenolate mofetil
  33. _____ is an inhibitor of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase and de novo pathway of guanine nucleotide synthesis.  _____ are highly dependent on this pathway.
    • Mycophenolate 
    • B & T cells
  34. What population should not use mycophenolate and why?
    • Pregnant women
    • High risk of miscarriage and birth defects
  35. What is a common AE associated with mycophenolate seen in >1% of all patients?
    High blood sugars
  36. ________ comes from Image Upload and contains cytotoxic antibodies that T-lymphocytes, thereby depleting circulating lymphocytes.
    Antithymocyte Globulin
  37. How do you treat a cytokine storm?
  38. Daclizumab and basiliximab are _____.
    Anti IL-2 Receptor Antibodies
  39. Anti IL-2 receptor antibodies do not cause a cytokine storm, but can possibly result in _____.
  40. IL-2 is specific to what type of immune cell?
  41. Which medication is an inhibitor of CD3?
    OKT3 (Muromonab-CD3)    (comes from Image Upload)
  42. What is a particularly dangerous side effect seen with anti-CD3 monoclonal antibodies?
    Cytokine storm
  43. What is the main disadvantage of using calcineurin inhibitors?
  44. What is the main disadvantage of glucocorticoid therapy?
    Changes in metabolism
  45. Which type of cell releases histamine?
    Mast cell
  46. What types of foods contain histidine?
    • Chicken
    • Eggs
    • Soy
    • Cheese
  47. Histidine is _____ to form _____
    • Decarboxylated
    • histamine
  48. Where is histamine stored?
    • Neurons
    • Gastric mucosa
    • Mast cells & basophils
  49. What is exocytotic release?
    • Inflammatory or allergenic reactions
    • Antigen-IgE complex
    • Complement
  50. Antigen-induced histamine release can be inhibited by agents that ______ such as Beta2 AR agonists or adrenaline.
    Increase mast cell cAMP
  51. What is non-exocytotic histamine release?
    • Mechanical or chemical release
    • Displacement due to basic amine drugs such as morphine or tubocurarine
  52. What does C3a do?
    • Inflammation
    • Anaphylaxis

  53. What does C5a do?
    • Inflammation
    • Anaphlyaxis
    • Chemotaxis

  54. What causes post-surgical rash?
    Drugs.  Morphine.
  55. What effects are seen by activating H1?
    • Vasodilation (NO release)
    • Vessel leakage (enterochromaffin)
    • Bronchoconstriction
    • Pain & itching
  56. What is the primary effect of H2 activation?
    Gastric acid secretion
  57. What is the "triple response" brought about by injection of histamine into the skin?
    • Flush
    • Wheal
    • Flare
  58. How is histamine action terminated?
    • Cellular uptake
    • Metabolism 
    • Excretion
  59. What are the 2 ways you can inhibit histamine?
    • Functional or physiological antagonism
    • Histamine receptor antagonists (competitive antagonists)
  60. Why are second generation H1-antagonists less sedating?
    Less lipid soluble - don't cross the blood brain barrier
  61. What is the metabolite of hydroxyzine?
  62. What is the mechanism of action for H1 antagonists in treating motion sickness/vertigo?
    Unknown?  Most likely something to do with anti-muscarinic activity.
  63. 2nd generation H1 antagonists are shorter/longer acting than 1st generation.
  64. T/F: Currently available antihistamines are AWESOME at relieving chronic nasal congestion.
  65. 2nd generation H1 antagonists are good at:
    I. Symptomatic relief of chronic urticaria
    II. Treating asthma
    III. Scrabble
    IV. I and II
    V.  All of the above
    I. Symptomatic relief of chronic urticaria
  66. Name a piperidine
    • Fexofenadine
    • Loratadine
    • Desloratadine
  67. Which 2nd generation antihistamine has minimal anti-cholinergic activity?
  68. Which 2nd generation antihistamine has anti-inflammatory activity and is indicated for nasal congestion?
  69. What adverse effect did fexofenadine show in animal trials?
  70. When would you use immunostimulants?
    • To treat infection
    • To treat immunodeficiency
    • To treat cancer
  71. What does CSF stand for?
    Colony Stimulating Factor
  72. What is interferon alpha used for?
    Anticancer and hepatitis
  73. What is interferon beta used for?
    Relapsing type multiple sclerosis
  74. What is interferon gamma used for?
    Chronic granulomatous disease
  75. What is the interleukin IL-2 used for?
    Enhance antitumor actions of cytotoxic T cells and NK cells
  76. What adverse events would you expect from interferons?
    Flu-like symptoms
Card Set:
Pharmacology #3
2013-02-21 03:24:29

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