Physiology

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cinlou333
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202424
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Physiology
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2013-04-04 17:41:25
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Physiology Greer
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Physiology class at SLCC
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  1. Lipophobic chemical messengers communicate a message to the target cell by binding to receptors on that cell's membrane
    True
  2. The target cell of a neurotransmitter is the postsynaptic cell.
    True
  3. Endocrine glands secrete neurohormones
    False
  4. Tyrosine is one of four amino acids that function directly as chemical messengers.
    False
  5. Steroid hormones are produced within cells and stored in vesicles until they are released.
    False
  6. The enzyme glutamic acid decarboxylase catalyzes the synthesis of glutamate.
    False
  7. All catecholamine-secreting cells synthesize dopamine.
    True
  8. Eicosanoids are released immediately upon synthesis.
    True
  9. Albumin is a peptide hormone.
    False
  10. A single cell can have receptors for different messengers.
    True
  11. Most receptors are relatively non-specific for the ligand that will bind to them.
    False
  12. Receptors for lipophilic chemical messengers are only located on the surface of a cell's membrane.
    False
  13. Tyrosine kinases are enzymes that add a phosphate group to tyrosine residues on other proteins, changing the conformation of those proteins.
    True
  14. The higher concentration of messenger, the greater the response in the target cell.
    True
  15. Enkephalin is an opiate produced in the body. When enkephalin binds to opioid receptors it produces analgesia (a lack of pain sensation). Morphine can also bind to opioid receptors and produce analgesia. Morphine is an opiate antagonist.
    False
  16. Thyroid hormones alter the transcription of mRNA in the target cell.
    True
  17. If calcium channels open in the plasma membrane, calcium ions enter the cell.
    True
  18. An amplifier enzyme catalyzes the synthesis of a second messenger.
    True
  19. In its active form, a G protein has a GDP bound to its alpha unit.
    False
  20. Generally, the nervous system is a more rapid means of communication than the endocrine system.
    True
  21. The site of communication between two neurons is called a synapse.
    True
  22. Peptide/protein messengers are translated from ribosomes ________.
    A) free in the cytosol
    B) attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum
    C) attached to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    D) attached to the Golgi apparatus
    E) attached to the nuclear envelope
    attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum
  23. While in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, what is the initial polypeptide formed during protein synthesis called?
    A) exon
    B) peptide
    C) propeptide
    D) prepropeptide
    E) prepeptide
    Prepropeptide
  24. Once a steroid hormone is synthesized, it is ________.
    A) immediately capable of diffusing across the membrane
    B) stored in a vesicle until released
    C) bound to albumin until released from the cell
    D) stored in a unique protein structure that maintains steroids in the cell
    E) bound to the mitochondria until released
    immediately capable of diffusing across the membrane
  25. What organelle packages peptide/protein messengers into secretory vesicles?
    A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    B) nucleus
    C) lysosomes
    D) Golgi apparatus
    E) rough endoplasmic reticulum
    D) Golgi apparatus
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  26. Name the enzyme that, when activated, will directly release arachidonic acid from a membrane phospholipid.
    A) Protein kinase C
    B) Phospholipase D
    C) Protein kinase A
    D) Phospholipase A2
    E) Phospholipase C
    D) Phospholipase A2
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  27. In order to synthesize eicosanoids, ________ catalyzes the release of ________ from a membrane phospholipid.
    A) phospholipase A2 : cholesterol
    B) phospholipase C : arachidonic acid
    C) phospholipase A2 : arachidonic acid
    D) phospholipase C : cholesterol
    E) phospholipase C : inositol biphosphate
    C) phospholipase A2 : arachidonic acid
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  28. An equilibrium exists between a hormone that is bound to a carrier protein and a free hormone such that, as the amount of free hormone increases, ________.
    A) more hormone must be synthesized to directly replace the free hormones
    B) the amount of bound hormone will not change
    C) cells will be stimulated to secrete more free hormone
    D) more bound hormone will be released from its carrier proteins
    E) more free hormone will become bound to carrier proteins
    E) more free hormone will become bound to carrier proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  29. Lipophilic chemical messengers are poorly soluble in water. However, many of these lipophilic messengers are transported throughout the body. Their transport in blood (water) is facilitated by ________.
    A) chylomicrons
    B) white blood cells
    C) red blood cells
    D) lipoproteins
    E) carrier proteins
    E) carrier proteins
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  30. What enzyme catalyzes synthesis of prostaglandins from arachidonic acid?
    A) cyclooxygenase
    B) tyrosine β-hydroxylase
    C) phospholipase C
    D) phospholipase A2
    E) lipoxygenase
    A) cyclooxygenase
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  31. Androgens are precursor molecules for the synthesis of ________.
    A) estradiol
    B) cholesterol
    C) cortisol
    D) aldosterone
    E) progesterone
    A) estradiol
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  32. Progesterone is a precursor for the synthesis of ________________.
    A) estradiol
    B) cortisol
    C) progesterone
    D) aldosterone
    E) cholesterol
    cortisol
  33. Aspirin decreases inflammation by inhibiting the actions of what enzyme?
    A) phospholipase A2
    B) cyclooxygenase
    C) lipoxygenase
    D) protein kinase A
    E) dopa decarboxylase
    Cyclooxygenase
  34. Hormones that are dissolved in blood typically exhibit a half-life on the order of ________, whereas hormones that are bound to carrier proteins can remain undegraded for ________.
    A) seconds : hours
    B) seconds : minutes
    C) minutes : hours
    D) hours : minutes
    E) minutes : seconds
    minutes : hours
  35. The β1 adrenergic receptor has the greatest affinity for what messenger?
    A) norepinephrine
    B) epinephrine and norepinephrine equally
    C) epinephrine
    D) dopamine
    E) serotonin
    epinephrine and norepinephrine equally
  36. The α1 adrenergic receptor has the greatest affinity for what messenger?
    A) norepinephrine
    B) epinephrine and norepinephrine equally
    C) epinephrine
    D) dopamine
    E) serotonin
    norepinephrine
  37. Which of the following will NOT affect the magnitude of a cell's response to a specific hydrophilic ligand?
    A) ligand concentration
    B) number of receptors
    C) receptor upregulation
    D) affinity of the receptor for the ligand
    E) lipid solubility of the ligand
    lipid solubility of the ligand
  38. Chronic exposure to a ligand (messenger) ________ the receptor population for that chemical messenger on the target cell.
    A) decreases the specificity of
    B) decreases the affinity of
    C) upregulates
    D) downregulates
    E) changes the conformation of
    downregulates
  39. Which of the following statements best describes the release of lipophobic messengers?
    A) Lipophobic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis in response to a stimulus.
    B) Lipophobic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by simple diffusion in response to a stimulus.
    C) Lipophobic messengers are released immediately upon synthesis by simple diffusion.
    D) Lipophobic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis immediately after synthesis.
    E) Lipophobic messengers are stored free in the cytosol and released by simple diffusion in response to a stimulus.
    Lipophobic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis in response to a stimulus.
  40. Which of the following statements best describes the release of a lipophilic messenger?
    A) Lipophilic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis in response to a stimulus.
    B) Lipophilic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by simple diffusion in response to a stimulus.
    C) Lipophilic messengers are released immediately upon synthesis by simple diffusion.
    D) Lipophilic messengers are stored in vesicles and released by exocytosis immediately after synthesis.
    E) Lipophilic messengers are stored free in the cytosol and released by simple diffusion in response to a stimulus.
    Lipophilic messengers are released immediately upon synthesis by simple diffusion.
  41. Lipophilic hormones are transported in blood ________ and bind to receptors located ________.
    A) dissolved in the plasma : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
    B) dissolved in the plasma : inside the target cell
    C) bound to carrier proteins : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
    D) bound to carrier proteins : inside the target cell
    E) inside red blood cells : inside the target cell
    bound to carrier proteins : on the plasma membrane of the target cell
  42. What is a molecule that is similar in structure to a messenger and binds with that messenger's receptor to stimulate a response from the target cell called?
    A) blocker
    B) synergist
    C) antagonist
    D) agonist
    E) protagonist
    agonist
  43. Which of the following is a non-steroidal antiinflammatory drug?
    A) aspirin
    B) cortisone
    C) testosterone
    D) prostaglandins
    E) morphine
    aspirin
  44. What is the portion of a gene that is capable of being bound by a particular hormone-receptor complex to stimulate alterations in that gene's expression?
    A) nuclear receptor
    B) hormone response element
    C) intron
    D) exon
    E) promoter
    hormone response element
  45. The affinity of a receptor for its ligand is a measure of ________.
    A) the strength of binding between ligand and receptor
    B) the number of binding sites available for the ligand
    C) the ability of the ligand to permeate the plasma membrane and reach its receptor
    D) the response produced in the target cell when the ligand binds to the receptor
    E) the percent of receptors on a specific target cell with bound ligand
    the strength of binding between ligand and receptor
  46. Typical responses to ________ messengers require a long time to develop because they necessitate transcription of mRNA and translation of that mRNA into a functional protein.
    A) lipophobic
    B) lipophilic
    C) amino acid
    D) protein
    E) peptide
    lipophilic
  47. Which of the following describes ion channels that are coupled to membrane receptors such that their gating properties (opening and closing) are altered by messenger binding.
    A) Enzyme-linked receptors
    B) G protein-linked channels
    C) Voltage-gated channels
    D) Ligand-gated channels
    E) Potential-gated channels
    Ligand-gated channels
  48. Slow gated channels are identified as such because, once the receptor is bound by the ligand, the receptor must first activate a(n) ________ prior to the channel opening or closing.
    A) G protein
    B) ion channel
    C) enzyme
    D) RNA polymerase
    E) hormone response element
    G protein
  49. Differences in the rate of activity between fast and slow ligand-gated channels is caused by ________.
    A) ligand selectivity
    B) G protein activity gating the fast channel
    C) ligands gating both channels to the closed state
    D) G protein activity gating the slow channel
    E) ligand affinity
    G protein activity gating the slow channel
  50. Which of the following ions can act as a second messenger?
    A) sodium only
    B) potassium only
    C) calcium only
    D) both sodium and potassium
    E) both sodium and calcium
    calcium only
  51. A releasing hormone is a type of tropic hormone.
    True
  52. The hypothalamus is connected to the posterior pituitary by the hypothalamic-pituitary portal system.
    False
  53. The secretion of hormones from the anterior pituitary is controlled by hypothalamic tropic hormones.
    True
  54. Growth hormone functions as both a tropic hormone and as a hormone that acts on target cells throughout the body.
    True
  55. The only non-peptide/protein tropic hormone is somatostatin.
    False
  56. The only non-peptide/protein hormone is dopamine.
    True
  57. The release of LH and FSH by the anterior pituitary is under control of the same hypothalamic tropic hormone.
    True
  58. In a short negative feedback loop, a tropic hormone from the anterior pituitary inhibits the release of its own releasing hormone from the hypothalamus.
    True
  59. The hormone thymosin is released from the thyroid gland.
    False
  60. The hormone thymosin is released from the thyroid gland.
    False
  61. Which of the following is a correct example of long-loop negative feedback?
    A) TSH inhibits the release of TRH.
    B) TSH stimulates the release of TRH.
    C) Glucocorticoids inhibit the release of CRH.
    D) FSH inhibits the release of GnRH.
    E) GH stimulates the release of GHIH.
    Glucocorticoids inhibit the release of CRH.
  62. Which of the following is a correct example of short-loop negative feedback?
    A) Thyroid hormones inhibit the release of TRH.
    B) Thyroid hormones inhibit the release of TSH.
    C) TRH stimulates the release of thyroid hormones.
    D) TSH inhibits the release of TRH.
    E) TRH inhibits the release of TSH.
    TSH inhibits the release of TRH.
  63. The release of ________ from the pineal gland is important for establishing ________.
    A) melatonin : thirst
    B) prolactin : circadian rhythm
    C) melatonin : circadian rhythm
    D) prolactin : breast milk production
    E) melanin : thirst
    melatonin : circadian rhythm
  64. The thyroid gland secretes what hormone?
    A) thyroid hormones only
    B) thymosin only
    C) calcitonin only
    D) both thyroid hormones and thymosin
    E) both thyroid hormones and calcitonin
    both thyroid hormones and calcitonin
  65. What is triiodothyronine?
    A) a catecholamine released from the adrenal cortex
    B) a catecholamine released from the adrenal medulla
    C) a thyroid hormone secreted from the thyroid gland
    D) the hormone secreted from the thymus
    E) the hormone secreted from the pineal gland
    a thyroid hormone secreted from the thyroid gland
  66. Which of the following hormones is NOT released from the adrenal gland?
    A) adrenocorticotropic hormone
    B) aldosterone
    C) cortisol
    D) androgens
    E) epinephrine
    epinephrine
  67. Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by the endocrine region of the pancreas?
    A) insulin
    B) glucagon
    C) somatostatin
    D) pancreatic polypeptide
    E) glucocorticoids
    glucocorticoids
  68. What layer of the adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids?
    A) zona reticularis only
    B) zona fasciculata only
    C) zona glomerulosa only
    D) both zonae reticularis and fasciculata
    E) both zonae reticularis and glomerulosa
    zona glomerulosa only
  69. What layer of the adrenal cortex secretes androgens?
    A) zona reticularis only
    B) zona fasciculata only
    C) zona glomerulosa only
    D) both zonae reticularis and fasciculata
    E) both zonae reticularis and glomerulosa
    both zonae reticularis and fasciculata
  70. What region of the adrenal gland secretes epinephrine?
    A) zona reticularis
    B) zona fasciculata
    C) zona glomerulosa
    D) medulla
    E) zonae reticularis, fasciculata, and glomerulosa
    medulla
  71. What cells secrete epinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
    A) chromaffin cells
    B) A cells
    C) B cells
    D) D cells
    E) zona reticularis cells
    chromaffin cells
  72. Which of the following is an incorrect association between pancreatic cell type and hormone secreted?
    A) Alpha cells secrete glucagon.
    B) Beta cells secrete insulin.
    C) Delta cells secrete somatostatin.
    D) Epsilon cells secrete calcitonin.
    E) F cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.
    Epsilon cells secrete calcitonin.
  73. Which of the following hormones is NOT secreted by gonads?
    A) testosterone
    B) oxytocin
    C) androstenedione
    D) estradiol
    E) progesterone
    oxytocin
  74. What anterior pituitary hormone is NOT a tropic hormone?
    A) prolactin
    B) growth hormone
    C) adrenocorticotropic hormone
    D) follicle stimulating hormone
    E) luteinizing hormone
    prolactin
  75. Which of the following hormones regulates plasma calcium levels?
    A) calcitonin only
    B) oxytocin only
    C) parathyroid hormone only
    D) both calcitonin and oxytocin
    E) both calcitonin and parathyroid hormone
    both calcitonin and oxytocin
  76. What is the function of gap junctions in bone?
    A) for action potential transmission that initiates bone resorption by osteoblasts
    B) for action potential transmission that initiates bone deposition by osteoblasts
    C) for action potential transmission that initiates bone deposition by osteoclasts
    D) for action potential transmission that initiates bone resorption by osteoclasts
    E) to provide nutrients to cells embedded within the rigid bone matrix
    to provide nutrients to cells embedded within the rigid bone matrix
  77. Which of the following is a function of osteoclasts?
    A) secretion of osteoid
    B) calcification of bone
    C) release of enzymes that degrade the osteoid
    D) formation of cartilage
    E) breakdown of cartilage
    release of enzymes that degrade the osteoid
  78. In the young, the epiphyseal plate is composed of ________, which plays an important role in the ________ during growth.
    A) bone marrow : thickening of bone
    B) bone : thickening of bone
    C) cartilage : thickening of bone
    D) bone marrow : elongation of bone
    E) cartilage : elongation of bone
    cartilage : elongation of bone
  79. The increase in bone thickness stimulated by growth hormone involves which of the following?
    A) increased osteoblast activity on the outer surface of the bone and increased osteoclast activity on the inner surface of bone
    B) increased osteoclast activity on the outer surface of the bone and increased osteoblast activity on the inner surface of bone
    C) increased osteoblast and chondrocyte activity at the epiphyseal plate
    D) increased osteoclast and chondrocyte activity at the epiphyseal plate
    E) increased chondrocyte activity on the inner surface of bone and increased osteoclast activity on the outer surface of the bone
    increased osteoblast activity on the outer surface of the bone and increased osteoclast activity on the inner surface of bone
  80. What type of cell forms cartilage?
    A) osteoblasts
    B) osteocytes
    C) osteoclasts
    D) chondrocytes
    E) chondroblasts
    chondrocytes
  81. Epiphyseal plate closure is triggered by ________.
    A) osteoclasts
    B) osteoblasts
    C) osteocytes
    D) somatomedins
    E) sex hormones
    sex hormones
  82. Which of the following conditions occurring in childhood would NOT result in the condition of dwarfism?
    A) decreased stimulation of growth hormone secretion
    B) increased responsiveness of tissues to insulin-like growth factors
    C) decrease responsiveness of tissues to growth hormone
    D) insufficient production of insulin-like growth factors
    E) defective growth hormone receptors
    increased responsiveness of tissues to insulin-like growth factors
  83. The hormone insulin is ________ for the regulation of growth due to its stimulation of ________.
    A) permissive : insulinlike growth factor secretion
    B) permissive : growth hormone secretion
    C) required : bone growth
    D) required : muscle growth
    E) required : nervous system development
    permissive : insulinlike growth factor secretion
  84. Which of the following hormones inhibits growth?
    A) growth hormone
    B) somatomedins
    C) insulin-like growth factors
    D) thyroid hormones
    E) glucocorticoids
    glucocorticoids
  85. What is the precursor compound located within colloid that is converted into thyroid hormone?
    A) Proiodotyrosine
    B) Preiodotyrosine
    C) Iodotyrosine
    D) Thyroglobulin
    E) Calcitonin
    Thyroglobulin
  86. Thyroid stimulating hormone activates what signal transduction mechanism within the follicle cell that will result in the release of thyroid hormone?
    A) cGMP
    B) cAMP
    C) opening of ligand-gated calcium channels
    D) inositol triphosphate
    E) diacylglycerol
    cAMP
  87. The iodinated tyrosine residues on the thyroglobulin molecule are cleaved to produce T3 and T4 in what organelle?
    A) lysosome
    B) Golgi apparatus
    C) colloid
    D) endoplasmic reticulum
    E) peroxisome
    lysosome
  88. The release of T3 and T4 occurs through ________, and they can bind to ________ to be transported in the bloodstream.
    A) endocytosis : transthyrethin
    B) exocytosis : thyroxine-binding globulin
    C) diffusion : albumin
    D) exocytosis : transthyrethin
    E) endocytosis : albumin
    diffusion : albumin
  89. The most abundant form of thyroid hormone secreted into the blood is ________; the most active form at the target cell is ________; and the form that provides long-loop negative feedback is ________.
    A) T3 : T3 : T4
    B) T4 : T4 : T3
    C) T4 : T3 : T4
    D) T3 : T4 : T3
    E) T3 : T4 : T4
    T4 : T3 : T4
  90. What does an increase in cAMP levels in thyroid follicular cells cause?
    A) increase in secretion of thyroid hormones
    B) decrease in secretion of thyroid hormones
    C) increase in secretion of calcitonin
    D) decrease in secretion of calcitonin
    E) increase in secretion of parathyroid hormone
    increase in secretion of thyroid hormones
  91. Catabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids can be used to generate ATP.
    True
  92. Carbohydrates and proteins can be converted to lipids.
    True
  93. Most of the body's energy is stored as glycogen.
    False
  94. Energy mobilization refers to the catabolism of large molecules into smaller nutrient molecules that are released into the bloodstream to provide energy to the cells of the body.
    True
  95. Energy from the hydrolysis of ATP is used for most cellular processes.
    True
  96. While proteins are a form of energy storage, most proteins are unavailable metabolically due to their structural and functional roles.
    True
  97. The metabolic rate while sleeping is higher than the basal metabolic rate.
    True
  98. The postabsorptive state is characterized by mobilization of energy stores, which is stimulated by the hormone insulin.
    False
  99. Lipoprotein lipase is found only on the plasma membranes of adipocytes.
    False
  100. Glycogen stored in skeletal muscle cannot provide glucose to the bloodstream because skeletal muscle lacks the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase.
    True
  101. The smallest living units capable of carrying out their own basic life functions are called ________.
    A) organs
    B) organ systems
    C) tissues
    D) cells
    E) organelles
    cells
  102. ________ carry/carries oxygen to the cells of the body, while the synthesis of these cells is regulated by the hormone ________.
    A) Erythrocytes : bone marrow
    B) Bone marrow : erythrocyte
    C) Erythrocytes : erythropoietin
    D) Erythropoietin : erythrocyte
    E) Bone marrow : erythropoietin
    Erythrocytes : erythropoietin
  103. Which of the following is NOT one of the major cell types found in the human body?
    A) epithelial cells
    B) muscle cells
    C) endocrine cells
    D) nervous cells
    E) connective tissue cells
    endocrine cells
  104. Which of the following is NOT a primary type of tissue?
    A) muscle
    B) skeletal
    C) nerve
    D) epithelial
    E) connective
    skeletal
  105. The tissue type that generates mechanical force and movement, and whose activity is controlled both on a voluntary and involuntary level, is ________.
    A) muscle tissue
    B) epithelial tissue
    C) connective tissue
    D) nervous tissue
    E) skeletal tissue
    muscle tissue
  106. What tissue type functions in the transport of specific molecules from one body compartment to another?
    A) muscle tissue
    B) epithelial tissue
    C) connective tissue
    D) nervous tissue
    E) reticular tissue
    epithelial tissue
  107. What tissue type lines internal hollow organs and external surfaces of the body, providing a barrier between the internal and external environment?
    A) epithelial tissue
    B) muscle tissue
    C) nervous tissue
    D) connective tissue
    E) reticular tissue
    epithelial tissue
  108. Glands are derived from what type of tissue?
    A) muscle
    B) connective
    C) epithelial
    D) nerve
    E) kleenex
    epithelial
  109. What type of tissue lines exocrine glands?
    A) connective
    B) epithelial
    C) exonuclear
    D) nerve
    E) muscle
    epithelial
  110. Endocrine glands are derived from what type of tissue?
    A) muscle
    B) nerve
    C) epithelial
    D) connective
    E) reticular
    epithelial
  111. What type of gland secretes products into ducts leading to the external environment?
    A) endocrine glands
    B) exocrine glands
    C) both endocrine and exocrine
    D) neither endocrine nor exocrine
    exocrine glands
  112. Which tissue type includes cells contained in an extracellular matrix composed of collagen and elastin?
    A) muscle tissue
    B) epithelial tissue
    C) connective tissue
    D) nervous tissue
    E) endocrine tissue
    connective tissue
  113. Which of the following descriptions INCORRECTLY describes the tissue type?
    A) Muscle tissue is specialized for contraction and generation of force.
    B) Epithelial tissue forms glands.
    C) Nervous tissue is specialized for transmission of electrical impulses.
    D) Connective tissue is specialized for exchange between the internal and external environments.
    E) Epithelial tissue lines the lumen of internal organs.
    Connective tissue is specialized for exchange between the internal and external environments.
  114. What is a general name for the non-cellular material that holds the widely scattered cells of connective tissue together?
    A) Basement membrane
    B) Collagen
    C) Intracellular matrix
    D) Extracellular matrix
    E) Elastin
    Extracellular matrix
  115. Which of the following is a protein found in the body that provides the tensile strength to resist stretching?
    A) Collagen
    B) Elastin
    C) Erythropoietin
    D) Basement membrane
    E) Vimentin
    Collagen
  116. Which of the following is a tissue type that includes the cells found within blood and bones?
    A) muscle tissue
    B) epithelial tissue
    C) connective tissue
    D) nervous tissue
    E) endocrine tissue
    connective tissue
  117. What are the structures that attach bone to muscle called?
    A) extracellular matrix proteins
    B) tendons
    C) intracellular matrix proteins
    D) ligaments
    E) aponeuroses
    B) tendons
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  118. Organs of the body are defined as ________.
    A) a collection of cells that perform similar functions
    B) two or more tissues combined to form a structure that allows each tissue to function independently
    C) a collection of cells that function independently of one another
    D) a combination of two or more tissues that makes a structure which performs specific functions
    E) a collection of tissues that function independently of one another
    a combination of two or more tissues that makes a structure which performs specific functions
  119. Which of the following accurately represents the order of complexity for the components of the body, from least to most complex?
    A) organ systems, cells, tissues, organs
    B) tissues, cells, organs, organ systems
    C) cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
    D) cells, tissues, organ systems, organs
    E) organ systems, organs, tissues, cells
    cells, tissues, organs, organ systems
  120. Which of the following organ systems is primarily involved in the process of digestion?
    A) immune system
    B) endocrine system
    C) gastrointestinal system
    D) cardiovascular system
    E) integumentary system
    gastrointestinal system
  121. Which of the following is NOT a component of the gastrointestinal system?
    A) salivary glands
    B) stomach
    C) gall bladder
    D) liver
    E) kidneys
    kidneys
  122. Name the two organ systems that the kidneys belong to.
    A) urinary and digestive systems
    B) urinary and immune systems
    C) endocrine and urinary systems
    D) urinary and skeletal systems
    E) endocrine and gastrointestinal systems
    endocrine and urinary systems
  123. The uptake of nutrients across the epithelial cells of the gastrointestinal tract and into the bloodstream is called ________.
    A) filtration
    B) excretion
    C) secretion
    D) absorption
    E) reabsorption
    absorption
  124. What organ system includes the pituitary gland, adrenal gland, and thyroid gland?
    A) nervous
    B) endocrine
    C) cardiovascular
    D) integumentary
    E) immune
    endocrine
  125. What organ system protects the body against pathogens and abnormal cells?
    A) nervous
    B) endocrine
    C) respiratory
    D) integumentary
    E) immune
    immune
  126. Each amino acid differs from others in the ________.
    A) number of central carbon atoms
    B) size of the amino group
    C) number of carboxyl groups
    D) characteristic of the R group
    E) number of peptide bonds in the molecule
    characteristic of the R group
  127. Hydrogen bonding between the amino hydrogen of one amino acid and the carboxyl oxygen of another is responsible for which of the following?
    A) Holding the two strands of DNA together by the Law of Complementary Base Pairing.
    B) Twisting the DNA into a helical structure.
    C) Primary protein structure.
    D) Secondary protein structure.
    E) Tertiary protein structure.
    Secondary protein structure
  128. Secondary protein structure is the result of ________.
    A) hydrogen bonds
    B) ionic bonds
    C) van der Waals forces
    D) covalent bonds
    E) all of the above
    hydrogen bonds
  129. The ________ structure of a protein is created by hydrogen bonds between the hydrogen atom on the amine group and the oxygen atom on the carboxyl group.
    A) primary
    B) secondary
    C) tertiary
    D) quaternary
    E) quintary
  130. The ________ structure of a protein is formed between residual groups of the amino acid backbone by a number of different chemical interactions, dependent upon the nature of the residual groups interacting.
    A) primary
    B) secondary
    C) tertiary
    D) quaternary
    E) quintary
    secondary
  131. Which of the following is an example of a fibrous protein?
    A) growth hormone
    B) insulin
    C) hemoglobin
    D) Na+/K+ pumps
    E) collagen
    collagen
  132. ________ are molecules that are composed of one or more phosphate groups, a 5-carbon sugar, and a nitrogenous base.
    A) Lipids
    B) Phospholipids
    C) Nucleotides
    D) Amino acids
    E) Glycoproteins
    Nucleotides
  133. Which of the following chemical groups are necessary components of a nucleotide?
    A) phosphate, peptide, and base
    B) carbohydrate, phosphate, and peptide
    C) phosphate, carbohydrate, and base
    D) peptide, phosphate, and carbohydrate
    E) carbohydrate, base, and peptide
    phosphate, carbohydrate, and base
  134. Which of the following is an INCORRECT association between a molecule and its chemical property?
    A) monosaccharide : hydrophilic
    B) DNA : polymer of nucleotides
    C) fatty acid : amphipathic
    D) ATP : nucleotide
    E) steroid : derived from cholesterol
    fatty acid : amphipathic
  135. Which of the following is found in DNA but not RNA?
    A) deoxyribose only
    B) adenine only
    C) thymine only
    D) both adenine and thymine
    E) both thymine and deoxyribose
    both thymine and deoxyribose
  136. Which of the following molecules is a polymer?
    A) protein only
    B) glycogen only
    C) nucleic acid only
    D) both protein and nucleic acid
    E) protein, nucleic acid, and glycogen
    protein, nucleic acid, and glycogen
  137. Which of the following molecule types is NOT a polymer?
    A) protein
    B) fatty acid
    C) glycogen
    D) DNA
    E) RNA
    fatty acid
  138. Which of the following is NOT a base in RNA?
    A) adenine
    B) thymine
    C) uracil
    D) guanine
    E) cytosine
    thymine
  139. Which of the following INCORRECTLY describes a polymer?
    A) Glycogen is a polymer of glucose.
    B) Starch is a polymer of glucose.
    C) ATP is a polymer of phosphates.
    D) DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
    E) A protein is a polymer of amino acids.
    ATP is a polymer of phosphates
  140. Which of the following is NOT a function of nucleotides?
    A) Nucleotides store the genetic code.
    B) Nucleotides are necessary for expression of the genetic code.
    C) Nucleotides provide most of the energy for cellular processes.
    D) Nucleotides provide electrons to the electron transport chain.
    E) Nucleotides provide substrates for the citric acid cycle.
    Nucleotides provide substrates for the citric acid cycle
  141. ________ is composed of nucleotide polymers with the phosphate of one nucleotide bound to the ribose sugar of another.
    A) Ribonucleic acid
    B) Deoxyribonucleic acid
    C) Guanosine monophosphate
    D) Adenosine diphosphate
    E) Flavin adenine dinucleotide
    Deoxyribonucleic acid
  142. ________ is composed of nucleotide polymers with the phosphate of one nucleotide bound to the ribose sugar of another.
    A) Ribonucleic acid
    B) Deoxyribonucleic acid
    C) Guanosine monophosphate
    D) Adenosine diphosphate
    E) Flavin adenine dinucleotide
    Ribonucleic acid
  143. The presence of ________ in the plasma membrane can increase the fluidity of the membrane.
    A) cholesterol
    B) integral membrane proteins
    C) peripheral membrane proteins
    D) glycoproteins
    E) phospholipids
    cholesterol
  144. Which of the following is NOT found in plasma membranes?
    eicosanoids
  145. Which of the following components of the plasma membrane forms ion channels?
    A) phospholipids
    B) cholesterol
    C) carbohydrates
    D) integral membrane proteins
    E) peripheral membrane proteins
    integral membrane proteins
  146. Which of the following is NOT an integral membrane protein?
    A) carrier proteins for mediated transport
    B) connexons
    C) channels for ion diffusion across membranes
    D) occludins
    E) actin
    actin
  147. Which of the following is an amphipathic molecule?
    A) peripheral membrane protein
    B) integral membrane protein
    C) glycogen
    D) glucose
    E) triglyceride
    integral membrane protein
  148. Which of the following is NOT an amphipathic molecule?
    A) phospholipid
    B) integral membrane protein
    C) glycolipid
    D) glucose
    E) connexon
    glycolipid
  149. The layer of carbohydrates on the external surface of a cell is called what?
    A) inclusion
    B) glycocalyx
    C) glycogen
    D) glycolipid
    E) desmosome
    glycolipid
  150. The ________ is the site of ribosomal RNA production.
    A) nucleus
    B) nucleolus
    C) mitochondria
    D) cytosol
    E) lysosome
    nucleolus
  151. What type of enzyme catalyzes the phosphorylation of another enzyme, thereby altering that enzyme's activity?
    A) Dehydrogenase
    B) Phosphorylase
    C) Protein kinase
    D) Synthase
    E) Cofactor
    Protein kinase
  152. During end-product inhibition, ________.
    A) the initial substrate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via allosteric regulation
    B) the product of the rate-limiting step of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via covalent regulation
    C) the product of the rate-limiting step of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via allosteric regulation
    D) the final product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via allosteric regulation
    E) the final product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via covalent regulation
    the final product of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme via allosteric regulation
  153. What is the most important energy-transferring compound in cells?
    A) glucose
    B) fructose
    C) protein
    D) adenosine triphosphate
    E) deoxyribonucleic acid
    adenosine triphosphate
  154. In skeletal muscle, ATP can be synthesized by transferring a phosphate group from creatine-P to ADP to form ATP and creatine. In this example, ATP was synthesized by what process?
    A) oxidative phosphorylation
    B) substrate-level phosphorylation
    C) oxidation
    D) reduction
    E) condensation
    substrate-level phosphorylation
  155. The complete oxidation of glucose releases how many kcal of energy for every mole of glucose?
    A) 686
    B) 7
    C) 266
    D) 420
    E) 98
    686
  156. The reaction whereby energy is released from an ATP molecule can be described by which of the following?
    A) ATP reduction
    B) ATP oxidation
    C) ATP hydrolysis
    D) ATP synthase
    E) ATP hydrogenation
    ATP hydrolysis
  157. How much energy is required to produce 1 mole of ATP?
    A) 7 kcal
    B) 686 kcal
    C) 266 kcal
    D) 420 kcal
    E) 98 kcal
    7kcal
  158. Where does glycolysis occur?
    A) cytosol
    B) mitochondrial matrix
    C) mitochondrial intermembrane space
    D) mitochondrial inner membrane
    E) lysosomes
    cytosol
  159. Which of the following associations between metabolic pathway and location in the cell is INCORRECT?
    A) glycolysis : cytosol
    B) electron transport system : inner mitochondrial membrane
    C) transcription : nucleus
    D) lipid synthesis : smooth endoplasmic reticulum
    E) Krebs cycle : mitochondrial intermembrane space
    Krebs cycle : mitochondrial intermembrane space
  160. ATP is synthesized by substrate-level phosphorylation during which of the following?
    A) glycolysis only
    B) conversion of pyruvate to lactate only
    C) Krebs cycle only
    D) glycolysis and the Krebs cycle only
    E) glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and during conversion of pyruvate to lactate
    glycolysis and the Krebs cycle only
  161. Which of the following does NOT occur in mitochondria?
    A) Krebs cycle
    B) oxidative phosphorylation
    C) consumption of oxygen
    D) production of carbon dioxide
    E) conversion of pyruvate to lactate
    conversion of pyruvate to lactate
  162. The final product of glycolysis under aerobic conditions is pyruvate. What happens to pyruvate under aerobic conditions?
    A) Pyruvate is converted into acetyl CoA in the cytosol, and the acetyl CoA then enters the mitochondrial matrix.
    B) Pyruvate enters the mitochondrial matrix where it is converted into acetyl CoA.
    C) Pyruvate is converted to lactic acid in the cytosol.
    D) Pyruvate is converted to lactic acid in the mitochondrial matrix.
    E) Pyruvate provides electrons to the electron transport chain.
    Pyruvate enters the mitochondrial matrix where it is converted into acetyl CoA
  163. With the 38 moles of ATP that are generated within a cell from 1 mole of glucose, what percentage of the energy released from glucose is lost as heat?
    A) 25%
    B) 33%
    C) 40%
    D) 60%
    E) 70%
    60%
  164. In the presence of oxygen, the process of glycolysis produces which of the following products?
    A) 1 pyruvate
    B) 1 lactate
    C) 2 pyruvate
    D) 2 lactate
    E) 2 glycerol
    2 pyruvate
  165. Where are the enzymes of glycolysis located within the cell?
    A) inner mitochondrial membrane
    B) outer mitochondrial membrane
    C) lysosome
    D) cytosol
    E) nucleus
    cytosol
  166. In the presence of a limited oxygen supply, pyruvate is converted to what?
    A) lactate
    B) acetyl CoA
    C) NADH
    D) ATP
    E) glucose
    acetyl CoA
  167. How many ATP are generated per acetyl coenzyme A going through the Krebs cycle followed by the electron transport system?
    A) 2
    B) 3
    C) 12
    D) 24
    E) 36-38
    12
  168. Which of the following statements about the Krebs cycle is FALSE?
    A) The initial substrate is acetyl CoA.
    B) Three NADs are reduced to NADH + H+.
    C) Two FADs are reduced to FADH2.
    D) Carbon dioxide is produced.
    E) One ATP (GTP) is formed by substrate phosphorylation.
    Two FADs are reduced to FADH2
  169. In terms of energy production, the Krebs cycle is significant because it ________.
    A) directly produces large amounts of ATP
    B) breaks down glucose
    C) reduces the coenzymes NAD and FAD for oxidative phosphorylation
    D) produces acetylcoenzyme A for fatty acid synthesis
    E) provides acetylcoenzyme A for glucose synthesis
    reduces the coenzymes NAD and FAD for oxidative phosphorylation
  170. Which of the following statements about oxidative phosphorylation is FALSE?
    A) More ATP can be produced when NADH provides electrons to the electron transport chain than when FADH2 provides electrons.
    B) Hydrogen ion movement from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space activates the enzyme ATP synthase.
    C) As electrons move down the electron transport chain, released energy is used to transport hydrogen ions across the inner mitochondrial membrane.
    D) Oxygen is reduced to water.
    E) The components of the electron transport chain are located on the inner mitochondrial membrane.
    Hydrogen ion movement from the mitochondrial matrix to the intermembrane space activates the enzyme ATP synthase
  171. What is the final acceptor of electrons in the electron transport?
    A) pyruvate
    B) carbon dioxide
    C) water
    D) oxygen
    E) glucose
    oxygen
  172. Where is the electron transport chain?
    A) cytosol
    B) outer mitochondrial membrane
    C) inner mitochondrial membrane
    D) intermembrane space of the mitochondria
    E) mitochondrial matrix
    inner mitochondrial membrane
  173. Chemiosmotic coupling refers to ________.
    A) chemical coupling between substrate and enzymes
    B) chemical coupling of each reaction within the mitochondria
    C) coupling of the Krebs cycle to the electron transport chain
    D) the harnessing of energy from the reactions of the electron transport chain to make ATP
    E) the transfer of a phosphate group from one molecule to another
    the harnessing of energy from the reactions of the electron transport chain to make ATP
  174. Hydrogen ions activate the enzyme ATP synthase by moving from ________.
    A) cytosol to inner mitochondrial membrane
    B) inner mitochondrial membrane to cytosol
    C) cytosol to outer mitochondrial membrane
    D) mitochondrial matrix to intermembrane space
    E) intermembrane space to mitochondrial matrix
    intermembrane space to mitochondrial matrix
  175. Each time an electron is passed between the molecules of the electron transport chain, ________.
    A) energy is gained
    B) energy is released
    C) an ATP molecule is produced
    D) oxygen accepts the electrons
    E) carbon dioxide is produced
    energy is released
  176. Secretory vesicles are a part of what transport mechanism?
    A) phagocytosis
    B) pinocytosis
    C) receptor-mediated endocytosis
    D) exocytosis
    E) osmosis
    exocytosis
  177. Which of the following correctly describes phagocytosis?
    A) A cell synthesizes a product and packages it into vesicles. The product is released by phagocytosis.
    B) Cells engulf large particles, such as bacteria, by phagocytosis.
    C) A substance in the extracellular fluid binds to specific receptors for it on the cell membrane inducing the formation of a coated pit. The coated pit invaginates and enters the cell by phagocytosis.
    D) Cells non-specifically engulf extracellular fluid.
    E) Carrier proteins in the cell membrane transport a specific substance into the cell.
    Cells engulf large particles, such as bacteria, by phagocytosis
  178. Epithelial cells are polarized with different structures on either side of the cell. The portion of the membrane that faces the lumen is called the ________ membrane.
    A) basolateral
    B) ablumenal
    C) basement
    D) apical
    E) transport
    apical
  179. The extent of ion movement through the ________ space between epithelial cells is determined by the extent of ________ coupling between neighboring epithelial cells.
    A) transcellular : desmosomal
    B) transcellular : gap junctional
    C) transcellular : tight junctional
    D) paracellular : gap junctional
    E) paracellular : tight junctional
    paracellular : tight junctional
  180. The movement of a number of molecules across the apical surface of the epithelial cell by secondary transporters is coupled to the ________ gradient that is maintained by the ________ on the basolateral surface of the epithelial cell.
    A) Na+ : Na+/K+ pump
    B) Na+ : Na+ channel
    C) K+ : K+ channel
    D) K+ : K+pump
    E) Ca2+ : Na+/K+ pump
    Na+ : Na+/K+ pump
  181. When solute is actively transported across epithelium, what usually follows?
    A) water movement in the same direction
    B) water movement in the opposite direction
    C) passive transport of the solute in the opposite direction
    D) active transport of the solute in the opposite direction
    E) passive transport of solute in the same direction
    water movement in the same direction
  182. The chemical force for which of the following ions is directed into the cell?
    A) potassium only
    B) sodium only
    C) calcium only
    D) both potassium and sodium
    E) both sodium and calcium
    both sodium and calcium
  183. Which of the following is found in greater concentration inside the cell than outside?
    A) sodium
    B) calcium
    C) potassium
    D) water
    E) chloride
    potassium
  184. When molecules are passively transported across a membrane, the direction of their movement is dictated by the molecule's tendency to move ________.
    A) from higher to lower energy
    B) from lower to higher energy
    C) out of a cell
    D) into a cell
    E) in both directions; there is no preference
    from higher to lower energy
  185. Which of the following physiological responses are associated with an elevation in parasympathetic nervous system activity?
    A) shifting blood flow away from the gastrointestinal tract
    B) enhanced absorption of nutrients
    C) increased heart rate
    D) increased contractile force of the heart
    E) enhanced mobilization of energy stores
    Of the gradients listed below, which is the most accurate description of the force that ultimately determines the movement of ions across the membrane?
    A) chemical gradient
    B) potential gradient
    C) electrochemical gradient
    D) concentration gradient
    E) electrical gradient
    electrochemical gradient
  186. Molecules tend to move spontaneously ________ their chemical gradient.
    A) down
    B) up
    C) through
    D) around
    E) over
    down
  187. When more than one ion species (i.e., Na+ and K+) is present on both sides of the membrane, the chemical driving force acting on Na+ will include ________.
    A) all positively charged ions
    B) all negatively charged ions
    C) the most concentrated ion only
    D) sodium only
    E) all ions present
    sodium only
  188. Which of the following is a reflection of the unequal distribution of positive and negative ions across the plasma membrane?
    A) Chemical gradient
    B) Extracellular potential
    C) Membrane potential
    D) Chemical driving force
    E) Electrochemical driving force
    Membrane potential
  189. Comparing intracellular to extracellular fluid, the intracellular fluid has a ________ charge relative to the outside of a cell due to the presence of more ________ in that solution.
    A) positive : cations
    B) negative : anions
    C) negative : cations
    D) positive : anions
    E) neutral : cations
    negative : anions
  190. The unequal distribution of charge in solutions on either side of a membrane will lead to a ________ of charge across the membrane and a ________ of counter ions in a region close to the membrane.
    A) separation : clustering
    B) collection : restriction
    C) buildup : restriction
    D) separation : restriction
    E) collection : clustering
    separation : clustering
  191. Based solely upon its electrical charge, the inside of a typical cell will tend to attract extracellular ________ to move inward.
    A) proteins
    B) anions
    C) cations
    D) uncharged ions
    E) ions whose concentration gradient allows them
    cations
  192. Which of the following factors does NOT directly affect the direction or magnitude of the electrical driving force?
    A) the sign of the membrane potential
    B) an ion's charge
    C) the amplitude of membrane potential
    D) the molecular weight of an ion
    E) the quantity of charge carried by an ion
    the molecular weight of an ion
  193. Which of the following is NOT a determinant of the magnitude and direction of the equilibrium potential for an ion?
    A) lipid solubility of the ion
    B) concentration gradient
    C) charge of the ion
    D) valence of the ion
    E) chemical driving force
    lipid solubility of the ion
  194. If a positively charged ion is more concentrated outside the cell, the forces required to balance the chemical gradient would be directed ________. Thus, the equilibrium potential for this ion would be ________ charged.
    A) outward : negatively
    B) outward : positively
    C) inward : positively
    D) inward : negatively
    E) outward : neutrally
    outward : positively
  195. Which of the following cells would have a greater electrical attraction for sodium ions to enter the cell?
    A) cell with membrane potential = -70 mV
    B) cell with membrane potential = -90 mV
    C) cell with membrane potential = -50 mV
    D) cell with membrane potential = 0 mV
    E) cell with membrane potential = +20 mV
    cell with membrane potential = -90 mV
  196. If a negatively charged ion is more concentrated outside the cell, the forces required to balance the chemical gradient would be directed ________. Thus, the equilibrium potential for this ion would be ________ charged.
    A) outward : negatively
    B) outward : positively
    C) inward : positively
    D) inward : negatively
    E) outward : neutrally
    outward : negatively
  197. If a negatively charged ion is more concentrated inside the cell, the forces required to balance the chemical gradient would be directed ________. Thus, the equilibrium potential for this ion would be ________ charged.
    A) outward : negatively
    B) outward : positively
    C) inward : positively
    D) inward : negatively
    E) outward : neutrally
    inward : positively
  198. If a positively charged ion is more concentrated inside the cell, the forces required to balance the chemical gradient would be directed ________. Thus, the equilibrium potential for this ion would be ________ charged.
    A) outward : negatively
    B) outward : positively
    C) inward : positively
    D) inward : negatively
    E) outward : neutrally
    inward : negatively
  199. Which of the following can be used to determine an ion's equilibrium potential?
    A) Navier Stokes equation
    B) oscilloscope
    C) intracellular voltmeter
    D) Nernst equation
    E) concentration of an ion only
    Nernst equation
  200. The potassium equilibrium potential is -94 mV. What does this means?
    A) at the resting membrane potential of neurons, potassium is at equilibrium
    B) at -94 mV, the chemical force for potassium movement is zero
    C) at -94 mV, the electrical force for potassium movement is zero
    D) at -94 mV, the chemical force for potassium movement is opposed exactly by the electrical force
    E) at -94 mV, potassium movement is opposed exactly by sodium movement
    at -94 mV, the chemical force for potassium movement is opposed exactly by the electrical force
  201. Which of the following correctly lists the components of the central nervous system?
    A) brain and nerves
    B) brain and spinal cord
    C) spinal cord and nerves
    D) brain, spinal cord, and nerves
    E) sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
    brain and spinal cord
  202. Which of the following is located in the autonomic nervous system?
    A) sympathetic nervous system only
    B) parasympathetic nervous system only
    C) somatic nervous system only
    D) both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
    E) both sympathetic and somatic nervous systems
    both sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
  203. Which of the following accurately describes afferent neurons?
    A) They transmit information from the periphery to the CNS.
    B) The cell body is located in the ventral horn of the spinal cord.
    C) They are the most abundant class of neurons.
    D) They transmit information from the CNS to the periphery.
    E) They are typically multipolar neurons.
    They transmit information from the periphery to the CNS.
  204. What is the functional unit of the nervous system?
    A) neurons
    B) glial cells
    C) the central nervous system
    D) axons
    E) the brain
    neurons
  205. On what portion of the neuron do action potentials propagate?
    A) soma
    B) cell body
    C) dendrite
    D) axon
    E) nucleus
    axon
  206. Information is transmitted from cell to cell across the chemical synapse via a(n) ________.
    A) neurotransmitter
    B) action potential
    C) graded potential
    D) collateral potential
    E) neurosecretory hormone
    neurotransmitter
  207. An action potential originates at the ________ and travels along the axon until it reaches the ________.
    A) axon terminal : axon hillock
    B) dendrite : axon terminal
    C) axon hillock : dendrite
    D) dendrite : axon hillock
    E) axon hillock : axon terminal
    axon hillock : axon terminal
  208. What type of ion channels in the membrane of neurons allow ions to move across the membrane at rest and thereby contribute to resting membrane potential?
    A) voltage-gated channels
    B) resting channels
    C) potential-gated channels
    D) leak channels
    E) ligand-gated channels
    ligand-gated channels
  209. What type of ion channels in the membrane of neurons open or close in response to a neurotransmitter binding to its receptor?
    A) voltage-gated channels
    B) synaptic channels
    C) potential-gated channels
    D) leak channels
    E) ligand-gated channels
    leak channels
  210. In a neuron, where is the greatest concentration of voltage-gated sodium and voltage-gated potassium channels?
    A) dendrites
    B) soma
    C) axon hillock
    D) axon
    E) axon terminal
    axon hillock
  211. In a neuron, where are voltage-gated calcium channels located?
    A) dendrites
    B) soma
    C) axon hillock
    D) axon
    E) axon terminal
    axon terminal
  212. What is the structural classification of a neuron composed of a single axon and a number of dendritic projections from the nerve cell body?
    A) multipolar
    B) bipolar
    C) pseudo-unipolar
    D) unipolar
    E) polar
    multipolar
  213. Which of the following is a functional classification of neurons that, for the most part, are bipolar in structure and carry information from the peripheral axon to the central axon?
    A) interneurons
    B) efferent neurons
    C) afferent neurons
    D) bipolar cells
    E) multipolar cells
    afferent neurons
  214. Which of the following terms is NOT used to describe a bundle of axons in the central or peripheral nervous system?
    A) ganglia
    B) pathways
    C) tracts
    D) nerves
    E) commissures
    ganglia
  215. Which of the following cells is NOT classified as a glial cell?
    A) astrocyte
    B) ependymal cell
    C) oligodendrocyte
    D) Schwann cell
    E) ventricular cell
    ventricular cell
  216. Excitatory graded potentials are those where the stimulus initiates a hyperpolarization of the cell.
    False
  217. Under resting conditions, the sodium channel responsible for generating an action potential is closed and incapable of opening.
    False
  218. Both activation and inactivation gates of a sodium channel are stimulated at the same time by a depolarization with the inactivation gate acting more slowly than the activation gate, thereby allowing sodium to enter the cell.
    True
  219. The magnitude of the action potential is dependent upon the extent to which the change in membrane potential is above threshold.
    False
  220. During the relative refractory period, the stimulus intensity required to initiate an action potential is elevated.
    True
  221. Synaptic potentials are produced at what type of synapse?
    A) axo-axonic, axo-dendritic, and axo-somatic synapses
    B) axo-axonic and axo-dendritic synapses only
    C) axo-axonic and axo-somatic synapses only
    D) axo-dendritic and axo-somatic synapses only
    E) axo-dendritic synapses only
    axo-dendritic and axo-somatic synapses only
  222. At ionotropic receptors, a(n) ________.
    A) neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens channels that are a part of the same protein as the receptor
    B) neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens channels that are a separate protein from the receptor
    C) neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens or closes channels that are part of the same protein as the receptor
    D) neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens or closes channels that are a separate protein from the receptor
    E) ion binding to a receptor opens channels in the plasma membrane
    neurotransmitter binding to a receptor opens channels that are a part of the same protein as the receptor
  223. Presynaptic modulation occurs at what type of synapse?
    A) axo-dendritic
    B) axo-axonic
    C) axo-somatic
    D) dendro-dendritic
    E) dendro-somatic
    axo-axonic
  224. Metabotropic receptor-induced gating of ion channels requires more time to occur because of which of the following?
    A) their gating is linked to a G protein
    B) the channels are slower to open
    C) intracellular calcium must increase before those channels will open
    D) ion channels linked to metabotropic receptors must move to the membrane before gating
    E) metabolic byproducts are required to open those channels
    their gating is linked to a G protein
  225. What is a change in the postsynaptic potential that brings membrane potential closer to threshold called?
    A) excitatory postsynaptic potential
    B) inhibitory postsynaptic potential
    C) suprathreshold postsynaptic potential
    D) hyperpolarizing postsynaptic potential
    E) inhibitory presynaptic potential
    excitatory postsynaptic potential
  226. The most common mechanism for producing a fast EPSP involves which of the following?
    A) opening of sodium-selective channels
    B) opening of potassium-selective channels
    C) closing of sodium-selective channels
    D) closing of potassium-selective channels
    E) opening of channels that permit both sodium and potassium to flow through
    opening of channels that permit both sodium and potassium to flow through
  227. What ion directly triggers neurotransmitter release from the presynaptic neuron?
    A) sodium
    B) potassium
    C) chloride
    D) calcium
    E) magnesium
    calcium
  228. An example of a slow excitatory postsynaptic potential that involves closure of potassium channels relies on cAMP produced by what enzyme?
    A) phosphodiesterase
    B) protein kinase A
    C) G protein
    D) adenylate cyclase
    E) protein kinase C
    adenylate cyclase
  229. The duration of a slow, excitatory postsynaptic potential mediated by cAMP is driven by the extent of time that cAMP remains active before being degraded by what protein?
    A) phosphodiesterase
    B) protein kinase A
    C) G protein
    D) adenylate cyclase
    E) protein kinase C
    phosphodiesterase
  230. Fast excitatory responses not only occur quickly, but ________.
    A) they also have a slow component
    B) they remain active for a long period of time
    C) they end quickly
    D) they always create a substantial depolarization
    E) they are maintained for minutes to hours
    they end quickly
  231. The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the ________ of ________ channels.
    A) opening : chloride
    B) closure : potassium
    C) opening : sodium
    D) closure : chloride
    E) opening : calcium
    opening : chloride
  232. The binding of a neurotransmitter to its receptor at an inhibitory synapse can lead to the ________ of ________ channels.
    A) opening : potassium
    B) closure : potassium
    C) opening : sodium
    D) closing : chloride
    E) opening : calcium
    opening : potassium
  233. In the absence of active chloride ion transport, opening of chloride channels in a cell that has hyperpolarized will result in which of the following?
    A) net movement of chloride out of the cell
    B) net movement of chloride into the cell
    C) movement of chloride equally in both directions
    D) absence of any chloride movement
    E) depolarization of the cell
    net movement of chloride out of the cell
  234. In the presence of active chloride ion transport within a neuron, the opening of chloride channels will result in which of the following?
    A) net movement of chloride out of the cell
    B) net movement of chloride into the cell
    C) movement of chloride equally in both directions
    D) absence of any chloride movement
    E) depolarization of the cell
    net movement of chloride into the cell
  235. If the resting membrane potential is equal to chloride's equilibrium potential, in which direction will chloride ions move if chloride channels open while the cell remains at resting membrane potential?
    A) inward
    B) outward
    C) No ions will move through the channel.
    D) Ions will move equally in both directions.
    E) Three chloride ions will move out for every two chloride ions that move in.
    ions will move equally in both directions
  236. An action potential is triggered if the membrane potential at the axon hillock is depolarized to threshold.
    True
  237. IPSPs can only summate with IPSPs, and EPSPs can only summate with EPSPs.
    False
  238. Two or more graded potentials originating from a different synapse on the same neuron at approximately the same time will cause spatial summation.
    False
  239. Information on the amplitude of a particular response is coded for by the amplitude of the action potential generated.
    False
  240. Presynaptic modulation involves a neurotransmitter from the axon terminal of one neuron affecting the membrane potential of an axon terminal from another neuron on which the first has synapsed (axoaxonic synapse).
    False
  241. The ________ plays a principle role in establishing the circadian rhythm of the body.
    A) caudate nucleus
    B) globus pallidus
    C) putamen
    D) suprachiasmatic nucleus
    E) cingulate gyrus
    suprachiasmatic nucleus
  242. Which of the following is NOT a function of the hypothalamus?
    A) communication between the nervous and endocrine system
    B) controls hunger and thirst
    C) affects emotions and behaviors in response to emotions
    D) controls thermoregulation
    E) contains the cardiovascular control centers
    contains the cardiovascular control centers
  243. Where is the thermoregulatory center?
    A) hypothalamus
    B) medulla oblongata
    C) pons
    D) amygdala
    E) hippocampus
    hypothalamus
  244. Which region of the limbic system is primarily involved in the emotion fear?
    A) hippocampus
    B) fornix
    C) amygdala
    D) cingulate gyrus
    E) thalamus
    amygdala
  245. Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?
    A) amygdala
    B) putamen
    C) fornix
    D) hippocampus
    E) cingulated gyrus
  246. putamen
  247. How is a reflex that requires communication with the brain classified?
    A) visceral
    B) spinal
    C) cranial
    D) somatic
    E) innate
    cranial
  248. How is a reflex that involves signals sent along autonomic sensory nerves classified?
    A) visceral
    B) spinal
    C) cranial
    D) somatic
    E) innate
    visceral
  249. How is a reflex that we are born with classified?
    A) visceral
    B) spinal
    C) cranial
    D) somatic
    E) innate
    innate
  250. How is a reflex that requires only a single synapse between two neurons classified?
    A) bineuronal
    B) bisynaptic
    C) polysynaptic
    D) monosynaptic
    E) polyneuronal
    monosynaptic
  251. Which of the following does NOT describe a type of reflex that occurred when Pavlov's dogs salivated in response to the ringing of a bell?
    A) conditioned
    B) cranial
    C) visceral
    D) polysynaptic
    E) spinal
    spinal
  252. Which of the following reflexes is a monosynaptic reflex found in the human body?
    A) crossed-flexor reflex
    B) pupillary light reflex
    C) crossed-extensor reflex
    D) muscle spindle stretch reflex
    E) withdrawal reflex
    muscle spindle stretch reflex
  253. The withdrawal reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?
    A) muscle spindle stretch receptor
    B) nociceptor
    C) photoreceptor
    D) taste receptor
    E) warm receptor
    nociceptor
  254. The crossed-extensor reflex is initiated by activation of what type of receptor?
    A) muscle spindle stretch receptor
    B) nociceptor
    C) photoreceptor
    D) taste receptor
    E) warm receptor
    nociceptor
  255. Where is the integration center for the pupillary light reflex located?
    A) hypothalamus
    B) cerebellum
    C) occipital lobe
    D) brainstem
    E) spinal cord
    brainstem
  256. The execution of a voluntary motor task involves a series of steps. Which of the following present those steps in the correct order?
    A) program, intent, feedback, execute
    B) program, intent, execute, feedback
    C) intent, program, execute, feedback
    D) feedback, intent, program, execute
    E) intent, feedback, program, execute
    intent, program, execute, feedback
  257. The central nervous system can only use ketones for energy.
    False
  258. Hydrogen ions cannot permeate the blood-brain barrier.
    True
  259. There are no nerves in the central nervous system.
    True
  260. The spinal cord travels the entire length of the vertebral column.
    False
  261. All spinal nerves are mixed nerves containing both sensory and motor fibers.
    False
  262. When we enter a dark room, the retinal and opsin molecules within the ________ must first ________ before low light levels can be detected.
    rods : associate
  263. Which of the following is TRUE of photoreceptors in the light (relative to the dark)?
    A) cGMP levels are elevated.
    B) Sodium channels are open.
    C) The photoreceptors are depolarized.
    D) The synaptic terminal is releasing more transmitter.
    E) Phosphodiesterase is more active.
    Phosphodiesterase is more active.
  264. What type of vision occurs in light levels that activate both rods and cones?
    A) scotopic
    B) photopic
    C) mesopic
    D) retinotopic
    E) all of the above
    mesopic
  265. Disks of a photoreceptor are located in the ________ and contain ________.
    A) inner segment : transmitter
    B) outer segment : transmitter
    C) inner segment : photopigment
    D) outer segment : photopigment
    E) synaptic terminal : transmitter
    outer segment : photopigment
  266. Which of the following is the correct order of communication of visual information in the retina?
    A) photoreceptor; bipolar cell; ganglion cell
    B) photoreceptor; ganglion cell; bipolar cell
    C) bipolar cell; ganglion cell; photoreceptor
    D) bipolar cell; photoreceptor; ganglion cell
    E) ganglion cell; bipolar cell; photoreceptor
    photoreceptor; bipolar cell; ganglion cell
  267. Photoreceptors transmit information directly to ________ cells via the release of a neurotransmitter, causing those cells to develop a(n) ________ potential proportional to the intensity of the stimulus.
    A) ganglion : graded
    B) amacrine : graded
    C) bipolar : graded
    D) amacrine : action
    E) ganglion : action
    bipolar : graded
  268. The first neurons capable of generating action potentials in the transmission pathway for visual information detected by rods and cones are the ________ cells.
    A) ganglion
    B) bipolar
    C) amacrine
    D) vertical
    E) horizontal
    ganglion
  269. Which of the following best describes ON-center, OFF-surround cells in the retina?
    A) They are photoreceptors that are excited by light applied in the center of their visual fields and inhibited by light in the surrounding regions of their visual fields.
    B) They are bipolar cells that are excited by light applied in the center of their visual fields and inhibited by light in the surrounding regions of their visual fields.
    C) They are ganglion cells that are excited by light applied in the center of their visual fields and inhibited by light in the surrounding regions of their visual fields.
    D) They are photoreceptors that are excited by light striking the center of the retina and inhibited by light striking the peripheral retina.
    E) They are ganglion cells that are excited by light striking the center of the retina and inhibited by light striking the peripheral retina.
    They are ganglion cells that are excited by light applied in the center of their visual fields and inhibited by light in the surrounding regions of their visual fields.
  270. Which of the following components of the visual pathway is 100% ipsilateral to the visual field?
    A) visual cortex
    B) optic nerve
    C) optic tract
    D) lateral geniculate nucleus
    E) none
    none
  271. In the optic chiasm, ganglion cells from the ________ portion of the retina cross over, whereas the ganglion cells from the ________ portion of the retina remain on the same side.
    A) nasal : center
    B) center : nasal
    C) temporal : nasal
    D) nasal : temporal
    E) temporal : center
    nasal : temporal
  272. The ganglion cells of the retina synapse with neurons in the ________ that ascend to the ________.
    A) hypothalamus : primary visual cortex
    B) thalamus : primary motor cortex
    C) lateral geniculate body : cerebellum
    D) thalamus : primary somatosensory cortex
    E) lateral geniculate body : primary visual cortex
    lateral geniculate body : primary visual cortex
  273. The neural pathway from the lateral geniculate body to the visual cortex is called the ________.
    A) optic nerve
    B) optic tract
    C) optic radiations
    D) optic fasciculus
    E) optic chiasm
    optic radiations
  274. The visual system is an excellent example of parallel processing, where visual details are ________.
    A) integrated before reaching the primary visual cortex
    B) integrated by bipolar cells and sent to the primary visual cortex
    C) transmitted along separate pathways to the primary visual cortex where they are then integrated
    D) maintained within the optic chiasm where they are integrated
    E) transmitted to the lateral geniculate body where they are integrated
    transmitted along separate pathways to the primary visual cortex where they are then integrated
  275. Both the auditory and vestibular systems rely upon ________ to detect movement of fluid within the ear.
    A) hair cells
    B) chemoreceptors
    C) thermoreceptors
    D) magnetoreceptors
    E) hydroreceptors
    hair cells
  276. Sound waves traveling through the air initiate a vibration of the ________. The sound waves are then transmitted along the ________ to the cochlea.
    A) saccule : eustachian tube
    B) oval window : ossicles
    C) oval window : eustachian tube
    D) tympanic membrane : ossicles
    E) round window : saccule
    tympanic membrane : ossicles
  277. Auditory information is transmitted through the medial geniculate nucleus in the thalamus to the cortex.
    True
  278. Each semicircular canal can only detect rotation in one direction.
    True
  279. The vestibular apparatus can only detect changes in the rate of head movement.
    True
  280. Taste receptor cells are located only on the tongue.
    False
  281. Each taste receptor cell is specific to only one of the four primary tastes.
    False
  282. The autonomic nervous system innervates all the following effector organs and tissues except ________.
    A) skeletal muscles
    B) cardiac muscles
    C) endocrine glands
    D) adipose tissues
    E) exocrine glands
    skeletal muscles
  283. Dual innervation of organs by the autonomic nervous system refers to the observation that ________.
    A) two postganglionic sympathetic neurons innervate each target organ
    B) both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons innervate most organs
    C) autonomic innervation involves preganglionic and postganglionic neurons
    D) autonomic and somatic neurons innervate all organs
    E) autonomic neurons that innervate each target organ originate from two ganglia
    both sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons innervate most organs
  284. Which of the following physiological responses are associated with elevated sympathetic nervous system activity?
    A) enhanced digestion
    B) enhanced absorption of nutrients
    C) decreased heart rate
    D) increased contractile force of the heart
    E) inhibition of cardiovascular function
    increased contractile force of the heart
  285. Which of the following physiological responses are associated with an elevation in parasympathetic nervous system activity?
    A) shifting blood flow away from the gastrointestinal tract
    B) increased contractile force of the heart
    C) enhanced absorption of nutrients
    D) enhanced mobilization of energy stores
    E) increased heart rate
    C) enhanced absorption of nutrients
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  286. At rest, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems to the regulation of homeostasis?
    A) Only the sympathetic system is active.
    B) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
    C) Only the parasympathetic system is active.
    D) Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
    E) Neither system is active.
    Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
  287. When the body is stressed, what is the relative contribution of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems to the regulation of homeostasis?
    A) Only the sympathetic system is active.
    B) Both systems are active but the parasympathetic predominates.
    C) Only the parasympathetic system is active.
    D) Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
    E) Neither system is active.
    Both systems are active but the sympathetic predominates.
  288. Which of the following best describes the general arrangement of the efferent limb of the autonomic nervous system?
    A) one neuron
    B) two neurons in parallel
    C) two neurons in series
    D) three neurons in series
    E) three neurons in parallel
    two neurons in parallel
  289. Within the autonomic ganglia, what are the cells that modulate the flow of information to the target organ called?
    A) intraganglionic neurons
    B) ganglionic neurons
    C) preganglionic neurons
    D) postganglionic neurons
    E) intrinsic neurons
    intrinsic neurons
  290. Which of the following structures of an autonomic neuron is NOT located within the ganglion?
    A) the cell body of preganglionic neurons
    B) the terminal axon of preganglionic neurons
    C) the intrinsic neurons
    D) the cell body of postganglionic neurons
    E) the dendrites of postganglionic neurons
    the cell body of preganglionic neurons
  291. Where do the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system emerge from the spinal cord?
    A) thoracic region only
    B) sacral region only
    C) lumbar region only
    D) thoracic and lumbar regions
    E) lumbar and sacral regions
    thoracic and lumbar regions
  292. Sympathetic preganglionic neurons exit the spinal nerve via the ________ before they enter the ________.
    A) white ramus : effector organ
    B) gray ramus : effector organ
    C) gray ramus : ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
    D) ventral root : ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
    E) white ramus : ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
    • white ramus : ganglion of the sympathetic trunk
    • Which of the following contributes to the ability of the sympathetic nervous system to produce widespread responses within the body?
    • A) multiple preganglionic neurons innervate each ganglion, sending out individual postganglionic neurons
    • B) one postganglionic neuron branches into many collaterals that affect multiple organs
    • C) one preganglionic neuron sends collaterals to multiple ganglia, affecting multiple postganglionic neurons
    • D) one preganglionic neuron can activate only one postganglionic neuron
    • E) several preganglionic neurons activate a single postganglionic neuron
    • one preganglionic neuron sends collaterals to multiple ganglia, affecting multiple postganglionic neurons
  293. Which of the following endocrine glands is innervated by the sympathetic preganglionic neurons?
    A) adrenal cortex
    B) adrenal medulla
    C) thyroid gland
    D) anterior pituitary
    E) pancreas
    adrenal medulla
  294. What cells of the adrenal medulla release epinephrine?
    A) alpha cells
    B) beta cells
    C) delta cells
    D) adrenergic cells
    E) chromaffin cells
    chromaffin cells
  295. Which of the following are indicative of the relative release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla?
    A) 80% epinephrine : 20% dopamine
    B) 80% norepinephrine : 20% dopamine
    C) 80% norepinephrine : 20% epinephrine
    D) 80% epinephrine : 20% norepinephrine
    E) 100% acetylcholine
    80% epinephrine : 20% norepinephrine
  296. The primary hormone released from the adrenal medulla is norpinephrine.
    False
  297. The parasympathetic nervous system exerts more discrete effects on effector organs than the sympathetic nervous system due to the independence of parasympathetic ganglia.
    True
  298. All autonomic nerves contain only efferent fibers.
    False
  299. The most abundant neurotransmitter in the peripheral nervous system is acetylcholine.
    True
  300. Acetylcholine binding to nicotinic cholinergic receptors always excites the postsynaptic cell.
    True
  301. Skeletal muscle fibers are formed by the fusion of multiple cells during embryonic development, resulting in the presence of numerous nuclei per fiber.
    True
  302. Thick filaments have many protrusions along their middle (head of the myosin filaments) but none at their ends.
    False
  303. Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are multinucleated cells, whereas smooth muscle cells each have one nucleus.
    False
  304. As skeletal muscle shortens with contraction, the length of the I band remains constant as the length of the A band decreases.
    False
  305. Binding of ATP to myosin increases myosin's affinity for actin.
    False
  306. The contractile portion of the thin filament is composed of what protein?
    actin
  307. What is the protein component of the thin filament that binds to calcium thereby initiating skeletal muscle contraction?
    troponin
  308. Which of the following is a structural protein that extends along each thick filament from M line to Z line.
    Titin
  309. The shortening of a skeletal muscle fiber during contraction involves which of the following?
    the sarcomeres shortening
  310. During skeletal muscle contraction, as the muscle shortens, the thick and thin filaments ________.
    slide past one another
  311. When a skeletal muscle is passively stretched, that cell has a tendency to spring back once the force that was stretching the muscle is removed due to ________.
    titin acting as a spring using the energy stored by the stretching
  312. The repeated, oscillating interaction between actin and myosin that results in the generation of force by a skeletal muscle cell is called what?
    crossbridge cycling
  313. What converts the myosin head into the high-energy state?
    the hydrolysis of ATP
  314. The release of an inorganic phosphate from the myosin molecule directly results in which of the following?
    power stroke
  315. In order for crossbridge cycling to occur, the actin-myosin complex must be broken by which of the following?
    binding of ATP to myosin
  316. The sequence of events that links the action potential to changes in skeletal muscle force development is called what?
    excitation-contraction coupling
  317. During skeletal muscle contraction, multiple crossbridge cycles are occurring between the same thick and thin filament. Which of the following best describes this process?
    Crossbridge cycling is asynchronous between a certain thick and thin filament.
  318. Contraction of skeletal muscle fibers is stimulated by what type of neuron?
    motor neurons
  319. Which of the following is NOT a specialization observed at the neuromuscular junction?
    A) the high density of acetylcholine receptors in the motor end plate
    B) Every action potential that reaches the axon terminal of the motor neuron will generate an action potential in the muscle fiber.
    C) The motor end plate is relatively large compared with other synapses.
    D) The terminal bouton fans out over a wide area of the sarcolemma.
    E) Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
    Each muscle fiber is innervated by multiple motor neurons.
  320. ) Increases in the amount of cytoplasmic calcium required to initiate a muscle contraction are mediated by the coupling between a ________ on the T tubule and a ________ on the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
    A) dihydropyridine receptor : ryanodine receptor
    B) dihydropyridine receptor : calcium pump
    C) calcium-induced calcium release channel : dihydropyridine receptor
    D) calcium pump : ryanodine receptor
    E) ryanodine receptor : calcium pump
    A) dihydropyridine receptor : ryanodine receptor
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  321. ) Which of the following is the voltage sensor that initiates an increase in cytoplasmic calcium in response to an action potential?
    A) dihydropyridine receptor
    B) ryanodine receptor
    C) calcium pump
    D) calcium-induced calcium release channel
    E) sodium channel
    dihydropyridine receptor
  322. The binding of calcium to troponin will directly cause which of the following?
    A) the binding of ATP to myosin
    B) the further release of calcium into the cytoplasm
    C) the movement of tropomyosin, thereby exposing the myosin-binding site on the actin molecule
    D) the movement of tropomyosin, thereby exposing the actin-binding site on the myosin molecule
    E) the hydrolysis of ATP
    the movement of tropomyosin, thereby exposing the myosin-binding site on the actin molecule
  323. What portion of a sarcomere shows up as light striations when viewed under a microscope?
    A) A band
    B) I band
    C) H zone
    D) M line
    E) Z line
    I band
  324. Which of the following best describes the function of transverse (t) tubules and the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle contraction?
    A) Action potentials in T tubules trigger the release of acetylcholine, which binds to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum and triggers calcium release.
    B) Action potentials in T tubules trigger the release of norepinephrine, which binds to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum and triggers calcium release.
    C) Action potentials in T tubules are detected by DHP receptors, which are coupled to ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and open channels for calcium.
    D) Action potentials in T tubules are detected by ryanodine receptors, which are coupled to DHP receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and open channels for calcium.
    E) Action potentials in T tubules cause a depolarization of the sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane, thereby opening calcium channels to trigger calcium release.
    Action potentials in T tubules are detected by DHP receptors, which are coupled to ryanodine receptors in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and open channels for calcium.
  325. During the cross-bridge cycle, ATP binding to myosin causes which of the following?
    A) the myosin head to attach to actin
    B) the myosin head to detach from actin
    C) the myosin head to swing forward pulling actin toward the M line
    D) the myosin head to interact with calcium channels, triggering calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    E) the myosin head to be in its high-energy form
    the myosin head to detach from actin
  326. Prolapse involves improper alignment of the atrioventricular valve such that one or more of the cusps are pushed into the atrium by the pressure developed in the ventricle.
    True
  327. The contractile cycle of the heart normally originates from a pacemaker cell within the sinoatrial node.
    True
  328. Action potentials travel more quickly through the ventricular contractile cells than the conduction pathway
    False
  329. Ventricular contraction begins at the top of the heart and travels downward to its apex.
    False
  330. The AV node autorhythmic cells are the fastest depolarizing cells in the heart.
    False
  331. Which of the following statements about the plateau phase of a contractile cell action potential is FALSE?
    A) Calcium permeability is high relative to the resting state.
    B) Sodium channels are inactivated.
    C) Potassium permeability is low relative to the resting state.
    D) The cardiac muscle is in the absolute refractory period.
    E) The membrane potential remains the same as the peak of the action potential for about 200 milliseconds.
    The membrane potential remains the same as the peak of the action potential for about 200 milliseconds.
  332. During phase 3 of a contractile cell action potential, ________.
    A) only calcium permeability is increased
    B) sodium and potassium permeability are both increased
    C) only sodium permeability is increased
    D) only potassium permeability is increased
    E) sodium and calcium permeability are both increased
    D) only potassium permeability is increased
    (this multiple choice question has been scrambled)
  333. Which of the following ion channels does NOT participate in the contractile cell action potential?
    A) type T calcium channels
    B) type L calcium channels
    C) delayed rectifying potassium channels
    D) inward rectifying potassium channels
    E) voltage-gated sodium channels
    voltage-gated sodium channels
  334. Which of the following is NOT a part of the excitation-contraction coupling in cardiac muscle?
    A) An action potential travels along transverse tubules.
    B) Calcium channels in the plasma membrane open, allowing calcium ions to enter the cell.
    C) Calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum open, allowing calcium ions to enter the cytosol.
    D) Calcium binds to calmodulin in the cytosol.
    E) Calcium opens calcium channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
    Calcium binds to calmodulin in the cytosol.
  335. What is the function of the sodium-calcium exchanger in cardiac muscle?
    A) depolarize the cell
    B) trigger the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    C) remove calcium from the cytosol by transporting it to the extracellular fluid
    D) remove calcium from the cytosol by transporting it into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
    E) interact with troponin to initiate cross-bridge cycling
    remove calcium from the cytosol by transporting it into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  336. What is the role of ryanodine receptors in cardiac muscle?
    A) They release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
    B) They transport calcium from cytosol to extracellular fluid.
    C) They transport calcium from cytosol into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
    D) They bind hormones that affect the strength of contraction.
    E) They bind to troponin to initiate cross-bridge cycling.
    They release calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
  337. Which of the following components of an ECG represents ventricular depolarization?
    A) P wave
    B) QRS complex
    C) T wave
    D) PQ interval
    E) TQ segment
    QRS complex
  338. Which of the following components of an ECG represents ventricular repolarization?
    A) P wave
    B) QRS complex
    C) T wave
    D) PQ interval
    E) TQ segment
    T wave
  339. If damage to the AV node slowed down conduction through this tissue, what would be observed on an ECG?
    A) a larger P wave
    B) a longer P wave
    C) a longer PR interval
    D) a wider QRS complex
    E) an inverted T wave
    a longer PR interval
  340. In an ECG recording, the RR interval is 0.5 seconds. What is the heart rate?
    A) 50 beats/min
    B) 100 beats/min
    C) 30 beats/min
    D) 60 beats/min
    E) 120 beats/min
    120 beats/min
  341. Which of the following describes second degree heart block?
    A) there is a longer delay between atrial contraction and ventricular contraction
    B) not every atrial contraction is followed by a ventricular contraction
    C) not every ventricular contraction is preceded by an atrial contraction
    D) the ventricles no longer contract
    E) the atria no longer contract
    not every atrial contraction is followed by a ventricular contraction
  342. During isovolumetric relaxation, ________.
    A) the AV and semilunar valves are closed and ventricular pressure is increasing
    B) the AV and semilunar valves are closed and ventricular pressure is decreasing
    C) the AV and semilunar valves are open and ventricular pressure is increasing
    D) the AV and semilunar valves are open and ventricular pressure is decreasing
    E) the AV valves are open, the semilunar valves are closed, and ventricular pressure is decreasing
    the AV and semilunar valves are closed and ventricular pressure is decreasing
  343. What is occurring during ventricular ejection?
    A) the AV and semilunar valves are closed as ventricular pressure is increasing
    B) the AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed as ventricular pressure is increasing
    C) the AV and semilunar valves are open as blood is leaving the ventricles
    D) the AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are open as blood is leaving the ventricles
    E) the AV valves are open and the semilunar valves are closed as blood is leaving the ventricles
    the AV valves are closed and the semilunar valves are open as blood is leaving the ventricles
  344. Which of the following is TRUE of the ventricular filling phase of the cardiac cycle?
    A) Ventricular filling occurs during systole.
    B) All valves in the heart are open.
    C) Ventricular pressure is less than aortic pressure.
    D) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure.
    E) Ventricular pressure is decreasing.
    Ventricular pressure is less than aortic pressure.
  345. What phase of the cardiac cycle is the heart in when all four valves of the heart are closed and ventricular pressure is less than atrial pressure?
    A) ventricular filling
    B) isovolumetric contraction
    C) ventricular ejection
    D) isovolumetric relaxation
    E) none
    isovolumetric relaxation
  346. What phase of the cardiac cycle is the heart in when all four valves of the heart are open and ventricular pressure is less than atrial pressure?
    A) ventricular filling
    B) isovolumetric contraction
    C) ventricular ejection
    D) isovolumetric relaxation
    E) none
    none
  347. During which phase of the cardiac cycle are all four heart valves open?
    A) ventricular filling
    B) isovolumetric contraction
    C) ventricular ejection
    D) isovolumetric relaxation
    E) none
    none
  348. Ejection of blood from the right ventricle will continue until ________.
    A) the pulmonary semilunar valve contracts, inducing closure
    B) pressure in the pulmonary artery is less than pressure in the right ventricle
    C) pressure in the aorta is greater than pressure in the right ventricle
    D) pressure in the pulmonary artery is greater than pressure in the right ventricle
    E) pressure in the aorta is less than pressure in the right ventricle
    pressure in the pulmonary artery is greater than pressure in the right ventricle
  349. The increase in ventricular volume early in diastole reflects ________.
    A) the increased stiffness of the heart
    B) the contraction of the atria moving blood into the ventricle
    C) the passive movement of blood through the atrium and into the ventricle
    D) the relaxation of the ventricle
    E) the back-flow of blood from the aorta
    the passive movement of blood through the atrium and into the ventricle
  350. The small increase in ventricular pressure observed late in diastole is caused by ________.
    A) ventricular contraction
    B) ventricular relaxation
    C) atrial contraction
    D) atrial relaxation
    E) blood moving into the atria from vena cava
    atrial contraction
  351. The portion of osmotic pressure exerted by ________ in the blood is known as colloid osmotic pressure.
    A) proteins
    B) small ions
    C) large ions
    D) lipids
    E) steroids
    proteins
  352. Under normal conditions, which Starling forces favor filtration?
    A) capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
    B) capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
    C) capillary hydrostatic pressure and plasma osmotic pressure
    D) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and plasma osmotic pressure
    E) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
    capillary hydrostatic pressure and interstitial fluid osmotic pressure
  353. Which of the following inaccurately represents normal forces across capillary walls?
    A) Capillary hydrostatic pressure decreases from arteriole end to venous end.
    B) Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure increases from arteriole end to venous end.
    C) Capillary osmotic pressure is due primarily to plasma proteins.
    D) Interstitial fluid osmotic pressure is almost 0.
    E) At rest, net filtration occurs across capillary walls.
    Interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure increases from arteriole end to venous end.
  354. Given that the net filtration of fluid out of the capillaries averages about 3 liters per day, how is blood volume maintained in light of this apparent fluid loss?
    A) The lymphatic system returns filtered fluid is returned to the blood.
    B) The net filtration is equally balanced by absorption.
    C) Gravity moves the fluid to the lowest point in the body, where the fluid is absorbed.
    D) While fluid moves out across the capillary, it tends to move inward across veins.
    E) The kidneys are involved in the reabsorption of the remaining fluid.
    The lymphatic system returns filtered fluid is returned to the blood.

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