# 2012 mv study guide plain.txt

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1. AIRCRAFT GENERAL: 1. What is the wingspan?
CRJ 200: 69' 8" CRJ 700/900: 76' 3"
2. 2. Where are circuit breaker panels 1 – 4 located?
CB1=behind captain; CB2=behind FO; CB3=captain floor; CB4= FO floor;
3. 3. What is the danger area in front of the aircraft with the radar operating?
2 feet from the antenna with the radome closed
4. 4. How many emergency exits are in the cabin?
5: flight deck; Left & Right over wind emergency exit; Service door; Passenger door
5. 5. What is the max steering angle with the tiller?
CRJ 200 = 70 degrees CRJ 700/900 = 80 degrees
6. 6. How many feet of pavement does it take to make a 180 degree turn?
CRJ 200/700 = 75 feet CRJ 900 = 80.1 feet
7. 7. How many degrees of steering do you get from the rudder pedals?
CRJ 200 = 5 degrees CRJ 7/9 = 8 degrees
8. 8. How many potable water tanks are serviceable on the CRJ 200?
TWO 1 Fwd galley/lav 1 Aft Lav
9. 9. How are the water tanks protected from freezing?
All Tanks & Water Hose/Lines are heated, including the draining system
10. 1. What do you see when an FMA mode goes from active to armed?
Hops the Cyan Line and then flashes green for 5 seconds in the active field
11. 2. What is ROLL mode?
It is the default lateral mode. It will hold bank angle at time of selection if greater than 5 degrees bank- otherwise it holds wings level and holds hdg at time ROLL mode engaged
12. 3. Pressing the speed button on the FCP does what?
1) clb### -or- des### 2)ias### 3)pitch
13. 4. What is the difference between ALTS and ALT?
ALTS= altitude preselect mode captures preselected altitude ALT= holds barometric pressure at time of selection
14. 7. How do I select CLB or DES mode?
it is engaged depending on the direction of the next altitude selected. The mode activates when the Thrust is changed accordingly. When the thrust is changed, the FCC commands the aircraft to leave the previous altitude and maintain target speed.
15. 5. What is the ALT mode used for?
to capture current altitude if in a climb or descent. So if ATC says level off then the pilot could hit the ALT button
16. 6. What is the difference between IAS mode and CLB or DES mode?
IAS will hold speed even if it means altitude goes in the wrong direction. CLB/DES mode will not go less than 50 fpm even it means losing airspeed
17. 8. What do the ’Witness lights’ mean?
There are 2 witness lights. They indicate that the FCCs has determined that conditions are correct for the selected mode. The left one means that FCC1 acknowledges selection. The right one means that FCC2 acknowledges selection
18. 9. What happens when you climb through 31,600 ft.?
1/2 bank (restricts roll to 15 deg) & IAS changes to Mach
19. 10. What does the Sync button do on the control yoke?
When AP is off- it syncs the FD command bars both vertically and laterally at time of selection. Also a yellow SYNC msg upper right of FMA. FD SYNC has no effect with AP engaged
20. 11. Pushing TOGA’s on go-around does what?
AP disengages- AP disengage warning sounds for 2 sec Pitch = 10 degrees up on command bars Roll = Holds present hdg at TOGA selection unless greater than 5 degrees then holds bank angle
21. 12. What does the AP XFR push button do?
Selects the active FD. Capt = FD 1 = FCC1 FO = FD 2 = FCC2
22. APU: 1. What are the pneumatics from the APU used for?
10th stage bleed air for Engine Starts & Air Conditioning
23. 2. What is the APU/LCV interlock?
it is a protection to prevent engine bleed air from entering the APU and causing it to stall. If the left 10th bleed is selected open, the APU LCV will close. If the right 10th & ISOL valve is open the APU LCV will close.
24. 3. When do the APU gauges appear on ED2?
when the APU PWR fuel switch is pressed
25. 4. How can I use the APU to provide air to just one pack if one is inop?
Right & Left 10th Closed; APU LCV open; and then operating pack on and inop pack off: (if right side then ISO also)
26. 5. What is the maximum altitude at which the APU can be started?
FL300
27. 6. What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used to provide 10th stage bleed air?
15,000 feet
28. 7. What is the maximum altitude that the APU can be used for an engine start?
13,000 feet
29. 8. Should the APU XFLOW pump fail, how will the APU be supplied fuel?
APU negative gravity relief valve from the pressurized right engine fuel feed manifold
30. 9. To prolong APU life the SOP recommends waiting _____ minutes prior to applying bleed air load.
2 minutes
31. 10. If the EICAS DOOR position shows amber dashes, what does that mean?
door position unknown. Also airspeed is limited to 300 kias unless the apu is operating.
32. 11. How does the APU maintain 100% RPM?
When the APU gen is used to power the AC buses, this load causes the APU to droop and more fuel is scheduled to maintain the on-speed condition of 100%. Which increases a rise in EGT
33. COMMUNICATIONS: 1. What is the purpose of the BTU?
Provides COM1 & NAV1 in the event of complete AC power loss -or- if both RTUs fail. COM1, NAV1, and BTU powered by Batt Bus
34. 2. If RTU fails, how do you tune Com1/Nav1?
Inhibit the failed RTU by pressing RTU1 INHIBIT. Then cross-side tune by pressing the 1/2 on the good RTU
35. 3. What is the EMER switch for on the ACP?
When there is a failure of the audio integrating system, the EMER should be selected. This causes the audio integrating system to be bypassed, as a result Captain will only have Nav1 & VHF1; FO will only have NAV2 & VHF2
36. 4. What is the VOICE/BOTH switch for on the ACP?
Both = morse code & voice Voice = just voice
37. 5. What does the EMER switchlight on the FA call panel do?
Notifies the FA of emergency. Flashes amber w/ high-low chime. Red flashing light on mid-cabin overhead sign & EMG flashes on FAs headest cradle
38. 6. What does the MECH CALL switchlight do?
Call function between the flight deck & the aft equipment bay or the ext service panel. When pressed an aural two-tone in cabin with a light for 30 sec.
39. 7. What does the FMS TUNE INHIBIT switch do?
When in INHIBIT position, the remote tuning function of the FMS is inhibited. This may be needed if the remote FMS control malfunctions.
40. 8. What is the purpose of the FDR EVENT button?
will highlight on event on the FDR which is accomplished by pressing FDR EVENT switch for 2 seconds, which will display a green FDR EVENT advisory status msg.
41. DOORS: 1. Which doors are NOT displayed on the DOORS synoptic page?
Crew overhead escape hatch Aft Equipment Bay
42. 2. What is the max load capacity of the door?
4 people or 1000 lbs
43. 3. What is the purpose of the pressurization vent flap in the main cabin door?
Prevents door from opening when airplane is pressurized
44. ELECTRICAL: 1. What are the possible sources of AC power?
IDG 1+2; APU; ext AC; ADG
45. 2. What are the sources of DC power?
Main Battery; APU Battery; DC ext; 5 TRUs
46. 3. What is the job of the TRUs?
Convert 115vAC into 28vDC
47. 4. What is a CSD/IDG?
two engine driven IDGs (Integrated Drive Gen) provide 115vAC 400hz 3 phase power. The IDG consist of a CSD + electrical generator. The CSD turns the generator at a constant RPM to maintain a steady 400hz (12000rpm); it works like an automatic transmition.
48. 5. An IDG fault is generated by?
HOTLOP high oil temp -or- low oil pressure
49. 6. When will an IDG disconnect? Can you get it back?
It disconnects by either pressing the IDG switch -or- High case temps -or- over torque: It can only by reestablished on the ground by Mx
50. 7. Failure of AC Bus 1/2 results in the loss of which TRU's?
Failure of AC Bus 1 = loss of TRU1 Failure of AC Bus 2 = loss of TRU2; SERV TRU; ESS TRU2
51. 8. ADG, when deployed, powers what electrical bus?
ADG Bus; AC ESS; DC ESS; DC BATT
52. 9. What happens when pull the ADG handle?
WET=an elect signal fires a squib of the uplock mechanism. DRY= elect signal releases solenoid and the Uplock mechanism and ADG deploy. The two blade prop gen is released to rotate into the airstream. The AC ESS transfer relay and hyd 3B energized
53. 10. What hydraulic pump is powered directly by the ADG when deployed?
Hyd 3B
54. 11. What does the AD PWR TXFR OVERIDE switch do?
After ADG has been deployed & an additional generator has been restored, the PWR XFER OVERIDE transfer the AC ESS Bus to restored generator. It also deactivates the Hyd3B to normal operation
55. 12. Under normal conditions, IDG 1 powers what bus?
AC BUS 1 + AC UTIL BUS 1 + AS ESS BUS
56. 13. TRU 1 fails, what power source has priority backing it up?
SERV TRU via tie 1 (shedding DC UTIL Bus1)
57. 14. What system charges the batteries?
AC Util Bus 1 = charge to Main Battery AC Util Bus 2 = charge to APU Battery
58. 15. What is normal AC power priority?
Onside, inside, offside, outside Gen1, APU, Gen2, Ext Gen2, APU, Gen1, Ext
59. 16. What has occured if the AUTO XFER FAIL switch light has illuminated?
FAIL amber light indicates 1. the system recognized an AC Bus 1/2 failure due to a short 2.Priority Logic system is inhibited to protect the good remaining operating GENs. OFF = AC bus priority logic has been inhibited by pressing the AUTO XFER switc
60. 17. What does the AC ESS ALTN status message mean?
AC ESS Bus is not being powered by bus 1 because it has been manually selected or because of auto xfer
AC Bus1
62. 19.When are the UTIL Bus's shed?
GROUND: Single GEN; FLAPS >0; MCD & Galley door closed FLIGHT: Single Generator AC UTIL BUS 1&2= loss of: 1.Main & APU Battery Chargers 2.Coffee Maker 3.Galley water heater
63. 20. What is the speed limit for a deployed ADG?
None for DRY 250 kias for WET (331-335 4 minutes; 251-330 12 minutes)
64. ECS/PNEUMATICS: 1. What protects the APU from being back flushed with air?
1. CHECK VALVE is installed in the APU bleed air duct to prevent reverse flow of manifold air to the APU compressor. 2. APU LCV INTERLOCK uses switch position to stop air from entering the APU. e.g. selecting L10th with close APU/LCV or R10th & ISOLOPEN
65. 2. What happens when a PACK HI TEMP caution message is displayed?
Pack is =/+ than 85 deg C. and 1. Pack Valve close. 2. Isolation valve Closes 3. Respective 10th Stage bleed valve closes
66. 3. How many Pressure Controllers do we have?
TWO. One active and the other on Standby
67. 4. How do you switch between pressure controllers?
1. Automatically = 3 min after landing 2. Manually = By pressing PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice
68. 5. What is RAM air used for?
1. Cooling of the L/R heat exchanger to cool the Packs & HYD 1&2. 2. Unpressurized flight / Dual Pack Failures. 3. Smoke Removal (QRH)
69. 6. Explain Flight Abort mode.
The flight abort mode automatically returns to pre-pressurized altitude when the pilot initiates a descent of 1000 fpm during the first 10 min after takeoff and if below 6000ft.
70. 7. Explain pre-pressure mode.
activated when the thrust levers are advanced for takeoff. The cabin is pressurized to approximately 150 ft below field evelation. This helps eliminate noticeable pressure bumps.
71. 8. What is a normal cabin pressure climb/descent rate?
Climb = 500 fpm Descent = 300 fpm
72. 9. What does a BLEED MISCONFIG caution message indicate on the CRJ 200?
occurs when Engine bleeds are on with the Anti-ice On with Flaps extended. This is to remind the pilot to Turn ON APU/APU Bleeds or go unpressurized for takeoff/landing
73. 10. How do you control the cabin in the MAN mode? (assuming question is regarding pressure)
Press the PRESS CONT switchlight into MAN mode. Then move the MAN ALT knob UP or DN to set the cabin pressure altitude desired. Then set the rate with MAN RATE knob.
74. 11. Which side of the plane has 3 pax O2 masks?
right side
75. 12. The 10th stage system provides pressure for what systems?
PACE. 1-Pressurization Air Conditioning Avionics Cooling Engine Starts
76. 13. The 14th stage system provides pressure for what systems?
Cowl & Wing anti-ice Thrust Reversers
77. 14. Do the 14th stage bleed valves fail open or closed?
They fail OPEN
78. 15. Automatic switching of the cabin pressure controller occurs when?
3 minutes after landing the standby CPC becomes active
79. FIRE PROTECTION: 1. What areas do I have fire detection vs. detection and extinguishing?
Detection only: 1.Jet Pipe, 2.Engine Pylon, 3.Wheel Well Det & Extinguishing: 1.Lav, 2.APU, 3.Cargo, 4.Engines
80. 2. What happens when you push an ENG FIRE push light?
1. Squibs on both FIREX bottles ARMED 2. Shutoffs: i.Bleed Air SOV closes ii.Hyd SOV closes iii.Engine Driven Gen Shutdown iv.Fuel SOV Closes
81. 3. How do I fire the bottles?
1. Confirm correct bottle switchlight 2. PUSH the "BOTTLE ARMED, PUSH TO DISCHARGE" switchlight Note: Both bottles can be used on one engine
82. 4. Do we need AC power on the aircraft to extinguish a fire?
83. 5. How do the Cargo Smoke detectors work?
2 smoke det on the ceiling monitor for presence of smoke. if detected a red CARGO SMOKE & aural "SMOKE". cargo bay ventilation is interupted.
84. 6a. How does the smoke detection system work in the Lav?
Ceiling-mounted detector monitors smoke density. When limit is exceeded a SMOKE TOILET caution msg & aural "SMOKE" & an alarm sounds in the lav.
85. 6b. How does the fire extinguishing system work in the Lav?
The automatic fire extinguiser supplies fire suppression for the lav waste bin using 2 heat-sensitive capsules & halon directed into the waste bin
86. 7. What happens when a cargo fire is detected?
When smoke is detect by at least one detect, the red CARGO SMOKE, "SMOKE" aural & cargo bay airflow stops. When CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight is pushed Opt Heater shuts down Recirc SOV closes Air Cond SOV closes Cargo compartment fan stops Exhaust
87. 8. What is the procedure at the gate for a cargo overheat?
1. Close cargo door (load animals last) 2. Leave cargo AC on the COND AIR until T/O 3.Prior to T/O switch to FAN mode & CARGO OVHT msg goes away. if not call Mx 4. 30 min after T/O switch back to COND AIR
88. FLIGHT CONTROLS: 1. What is a PCU runaway? How do I know I have one?
A. It is an uncommanded displacement of the aileron PCU. B. Advisory MSG Roll glare shield light in front of the pilot who should take the control prior to pulling the ROLL DISC HANDLE. Bungee breakout switch w/ runaway aileron sends signal to the S
89. 2. What is an Aileron Jam? How do I know I have one?
A. Aileron won't move as it might be blocked by a foreign object or maybe iced up. B. The Control wheel might be stuck in position, unable to move it more left or right, until the ROLL DISC Handle is Pulled
90. 3. What steps must be taken first in the event of an aileron control jam?
1. Autopilot - Disengage 2. Both pilots on controls to see who is jammed; Pull ROLL DISCONNECT 3. Select ROLL SEL on the side with the unjammed aileron 4. Read QRH procedure when airplane is co
91. 4. What is the purpose of the aileron flutter dampers?
FLIGHT: double-acting shock absorbers prevent aileron control surface flutter when all hydraulic fluid is lost at the PCU GROUND: The flutter dampers provide additional gust lock protection note: a flutter damper is installed on each of the ailerons
92. 5. What message would be displayed if one of the flap power drive unit motors failed?
Flaps would operate at half speed with a White FLAP HALFSPEED status msg
93. 6. What does the ROLL/PITCH DISC handle do?
ROLL DISC Handle: 1. Seperated control wheel turque tube 2. Advises SECU that turque tube is disconnected 3. Single-side roll control is avail PITCH DISC HANDLE: isolates a jammed elevator and gives pilot reduced pitch control (CA=Left Elevator; FO=
94. 7. How do I know which Hydraulic System powers a given flight control surface (i.e. rudder)?
HYD Synoptic page
95. 8. What is the purpose of the yaw damper?
2 YDs operate continuously in-flight to improve directional stability and turn coordination. Also dampens oscillations in that could otherwise cause Dutch Roll. Also, helps aircraft into and out of turns
96. 9. What is the function of the Spoiler Electronic Control Units (SECU)?
Receives input from Control Wheel & Flight Spoiler Control Lever to determine required spoileron panel deflection for given configuration. Also controls ext/ret of the spoilerons, flight spoilers, & GLD
97. 10. What is Mach Trim?
makes allowances for the rearward shift of the aerodynamic center of pressure as the Mach number increases. W/O correction could cause Mach Tuck above M0.4 when hand flying.
98. 11. If the GLD's fail to deploy on landing, how do I deploy them manually?
Spoilers GND Lift switch set to MANUAL ARM
99. 12. What is monitored by the takeoff configuration warning system?
1. Parking Brake 2. Trims (Aileron, Elevator, Rudder) 3. Autopilot 4. Flaps 5. Flight Spoilers
100. 13. What are the aural/visual/tactile elements of the stall protection system?
1. Cont. ignition 2. Stall Test Switchlight on Glareshield 3. Stick Shaker 4. Stick Pusher 5. A/P Disc Switch on yoke 6. STALL PTCT Pusher ON/OFF Switch on L/R Stall Panels
101. FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS: 1. If a PFD fails, how do I put my PFD on my MFD?
On the DRP (Display Reversionary panel) select the switch to PFD 1(2)
102. 2. On the speed tape, what is the green line? What are the checkerboards?
GREEN LINE= 1.265 VS or 25% above stick shaker speed. A reference to determine configuration maneuvering speed. It is based on current config (flaps, gear, bank angle, g-force) CHECKERBOARDS= High-speed/Flap Overspeed Cues. & Low Speed Cue
103. 3. When is my radio alt displayed?
=/< 2500 feet AGL
104. 4. What are the Mach Transducers used for?
used to supply primary data for MACH compensation of the aircraft's stall margin. MACH transducer 1 selector is installed on the Captains side console MACH Transducer 2 is installed on FO's side console
105. 5. What is the trend vector, how does it work?
The trend vector continuously predicts the speed of the aircraft that is likely to occur 10 SECONDS into the future if conditions remain unchanged
106. 6. If your DCP fails, how can you still control what is displayed on your MFD?
On the SSP (Source Select Panel), on the the center pedestal, select the DSPL CONT switch to the operable side, 1 or 2
107. 7. Where are the standby pitot and static ports?
STANBY PITOT is just below the Capt side window ALTERNATE STATIC ports are just aft of the Capt side window and forward MCD
108. 8. How do I get the advisory VNAV 'snowflake' to appear? What does it do?
In the FMS on PERF menu select vnav to enable It gives vertical guidance baded on whatever is selected in the defaults of the FMS, e.g., 3.8 degree descent
109. 9. When does the PFD Declutter?
Clears all nonessential info from PFD during aircraft upset of unusual attitudes. PITCH angle exceeds +30 or -20 degrees ROLL exceeds 65 degrees left or right. following is displayed: alt, airspeed, attitude, vert speed, compass, FCC Transfer indi
110. 10. When windshear information is activated on the PFD, what does the Alpha Margin Indicator (AMI) indicate?
AMI represents the maximum pitch attitude allowed before the stick shaker is activated
111. FUEL: 1. What are ejectors? How do they work?
A. Fuel ejectors transfer fuel from one area to another. B. Operate by using motive flow, or flow that is created when high-press fuel passes through a venturi-shaped nozzle creating low pressure (suction) which moves fuel out of the tank.
112. 2. What are the backups if the ejectors fail?
Main Ejector Failure = DC electric Boost Pump Transfer Ejector Failur = none Scavenge Ejector Failure = XFLOW/APU pump & gravity Crossflow Valve
113. 3. How does the aircraft balance fuel between the wing tanks?
1. AUTO POWERED CROSSFLOW. 2. MANUAL POWERED CROSSFLOW 3. GRAVITY CROSSFLOW
114. 4. How de we get fuel from the center tank into the wing tanks?
fuel is automatically transfer from the center tanks to the wing tanks, via transfer ejector, when fuel level in the wing tank drops to 94% capacity. When the wing tank is Full the transfer valve closes
115. 5. What is the purpose of the electrical boost pumps?
1. move fuel from the Collector tanks to the Engines. 2. Supply fuel to the engines when main ejector pressure is low or fails 3. Operate during engine starts
116. 6. Can the ejectors/boost pumps supply enough fuel pressure to keep engines running?
NO
117. 7. What is the purpose of the collector tanks?
Collector tanks provide a low central position to concentrate fuel so main ejectors can ensure a positive supply of fuel to the engines.
118. 8. If Boost Pumps are pressed in, when will the pumps turn on, which ones will turn on?
Pressing the L/R BOOST PUMP causes both pumps to operate when the fuel computer detects low fuel feed pressure, <9psi, in either feed manifold
119. 9. How do I get fuel to the APU?
Through the APU/XFLOW pump system -backup through the APU Negative-Gravity Relief Valve.
120. 10. During automatic cross flow the low tank will be filled to what level?
Low tank is filled to 50 lbs above the higher tank.
121. 11. When will a FUEL IMBALANCE caution message be generated?
When fuel imbalance between main tanks > 800 lbs. Indication: EICAS FUEL IMBALANCE caution msg & Both wing quantity indicators turn amber
122. 12. When would we use the gravity cross flow, and how does it work?
used when the power fuel crossflow function doesn't operate normally, or is unable to correct a fuel imbalance in flight. When GRAVITY/XFLOW is pressed fuel flows through the gravity manifold & wing tanks are balanced by gravity. Sideslipping may help
123. 13. How would you manually transfer/balance fuel in flight?
Select AUTO OVERRIDE switchlight to MAN, then open the low tank XFLOW VALVE by pressing the associated switchlight
124. 14. Can you fuel the center tank over the wing?
CRJ 200 = YES CRJ 700/900 = NO
125. 15. How is fuel heated prior to going into the engine?
Through the fuel/heat exchanger which is located on the engine. The fuel is heated by the hot engine oil as it passes through the heat exchanger
126. 16. How do you use the magnetic fuel level indicators?
at least 3 min after fueling. Release the Measuring Stick from the housing until the magnet on the Stick comes near the magnet on the Float, then record uncorrected tank quantity. Correct Stick reading using chart in cockpit
127. HYDRAULICS: 1. Which hydraulic system is the largest?
Hydraulic system 3. This system powers the Landing Gear, Nosewheel Steering, and Flight Controls
128. 2. How is hydraulic System 1/2/3 cooled?
HYD 1 & 2 FLIGHT: Cold air from the Ram Air scoop is directed across an air/hydraulic heat exchanger in the aft equipment bay to cool GROUND: an electric fan located inside the heat exchanger draws air from the ram air scoop. HYD 3 no provisional co
129. 3. With HYD switches set to auto, when do the ACMP's come on?
PUMP 1B: Flaps>0 & IDG2 online PUMP 2B: Flaps>0 & IDG1 online PUMP 3B: Flaps>0 & (IDG1 or IDG2) online; operates automatically with ADG
130. 4. What is the primary power source (in flight) for hydraulic ACMP 1 and 2 respectively?
ACMP 1 = GEN 2 ACMP 2 = GEN 1
131. 5. What is normal hydraulic pressure?
3000 psi
132. 6. What is the purpose of a hydraulic accumulator?
hydraulic pressure stored with the dry nitrogen gas-charged accumulator: 1. Satisfies the instantaneous demands of aircraft systems 2. Dampens out pressure surges with the system
133. 7. How can you shut off the flow of the hydraulic fluid to an Engine Driven Pump?
200 1. Shut down the engine 2. Push the Engine Fire Push switchlight 700/900 1. Press guarded HYD SOV switchlight 2. Push Engine Fire Switchlight
134. 8. Which hydraulic pump is powered in the event of a total electrical failure? How?
a. HYD 3B b. it is connected directly to ADG BUS regardless of switch position, to maintain hydraulic power to the primary flight controls
135. 9. What systems would you lose if you lost hydraulic system #3?
1. Landing gear extension and retraction 2. Nose wheel steering 3. inboard brakes
136. 10. Explain cross-side logic? (i.e., loss of a generator has effect on the hydraulic system?)
IDG 1 Disconnected/Fails: -ACMP 2B is load shed -APU GEN cannot power ACMP 2B IDG 2 Disconnected/Fails: -ACMP 1B is load shed -APU GEN cannot power ACMP 1B

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 Author: Anonymous ID: 204315 Filename: 2012 mv study guide plain.txt Updated: 2013-03-01 20:45:58 Tags: crj mv study guide Folders: Description: skywest crj mv study guide Show Answers:

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