Dsci 303

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  1. The transformation view of the operations function provides a unified approach for studying the manufacturing and service industries
  2. The process view provides a basis for viewing an entire business as a system of interconnected processes
  3. Lean operations refers to the task of reducing the defect rates in a firms products or services
  4. As price increases and benefits remain constant, the value of a product increases
  5. Product design supports the business strategy
  6. Misalignments between operations and product design can occur in technology, infrastructure, and rewards systems
  7. The first step in QFD is to determine the customer attributes.  The second step in QFD is to translate the customer atributes into target values
  8. One of the major benefits of concurrent enginering is the reduction in the project design times
  9. Market pull is the best way to introduce new products
  10. Modular design offers a fundamental way to change product design thinking
  11. ISO 9000 requires that a new-product development process should be defined and followed by a company
  12. With the technology push view of new-product introduction, technology and market equally determine which products a firm should make
  13. A process view emphasizes that it is important for a business to function as independent silos
  14. If there are n resources that process each transaction, then the process capacity is the sum of all the individual capacities of the resources
  15. Any given process will have at least one bottleneck
  16. A line of visibility separates the parts of a service that come in direct contact with customers from those that do not
  17. Business process reengineering is cross-functional in nature and requires a complete overhaul of work methods, flows, and information systems
  18. Major product redesign is often needed to make infrastructure improvements in the supply chain
  19. The objective of infrastructure change is the same as structural change: to remove sources of uncertainty, to reduce replenishment time, and to reduce total cost of supplying the market
  20. In supply chain improvement, it is often necessary to reduct the setup time of equipment dramatically so that smaller lot of the product can be economically produced
  21. It is bad to have a
    negative cash-to-cash cycle as the firm receives cash several days after selling
    its products. 
  22. Final consumers can be
    found farthest downstream in the supply chain.
  23. Demand chain management
    tries to match supply and demand.
  24. Delivery has three
    measures: on-time delivery, fill rate, and unit cost. 
  25. Forecasting demand in MRP
    Systems is based on the past demand patterns recorded from previous
  26. A bill of materials is
    usually replaced by a bill of labor if MRP systems are to be used in service
  27. The Economic Order Quantity
    model is extremely useful while making decisions on order quantities in MRP
  28. Order
    launching MRP systems are also known as Type II MRP systems. 
  29. In MRP
    systems, inventories are managed according to their dollar usage values (i.e.,
    high dollar usage inventories are carefully managed when compared to low dollar
    usage inventories). 
  30. When a company uses an ERP
    system, the different functional areas of the business will share a common
  31. MRP systems
    work better in a line flow system compared to a job shop.
  32. MRP is a type of pull
  33. The master schedule is
    prepared for product families. 
  34. The master schedule should
    be frozen inside the production lead-time. 
  35. 35. Why
    is operations management a more encompassing term than production
    A. Operations
    management is concerned with multiple products and services
    B. Operations
    management refers to service as well as manufacturing organizations
    C. Operations
    management is broader including the financing and marketing functions
    D. Operations
    management makes use of the tools of quantitative analysis and computer systems
  36. 36. Which
    of the following functions is responsible for the actual movement of goods
    and/or services across organizations? 
    A. Logistics
    B. Operations
    C. Purchasing
    D. None
    of these
  37. 37. Approximately,
    what percentage of the American workforce works in service industries? 
    A. 20%
    B. 40%
    C. 80%
    D. 90%
  38. 38. The
    four decision areas in operations management are: 
    A. Planning,
    technology, inventory, and control
    B. Process,
    quality, capacity, and inventory
    C. Process,
    quality, technology, and capacity
    D. None
    of these
  39. 39. A
    productive process approach: 
    A. Views
    operations as a separate organizational function
    B. Must
    provide feedback information for control of process inputs and technology
    C. Is
    of limited use in service organizations
    D. Disregards
    human and social concerns
  40. 40. Capacity
    A. Include
    staffing and scheduling
    B. Include
    inventory control
    C. Include
    defining product specifications
    D. None
    of these
  41. 41. Inventory
    decisions and control systems involve: 
    A. Determining
    what to order, how much to order, and when to order
    B. Tracking
    the flow of materials
    C. Managing
    the finished goods inventories
    D. All
    of these
  42. 42. The
    contemporary operations themes signify that: 
    A. More
    emphasis should be placed on manufacturing than on service industries
    B. Every
    operation should be externally directed to meet the customers' requirements
    C. Operations
    decisions should precede decisions in other functions in an organization
    D. To
    be competitive, strategies for operations should have a narrow focus such as
    consideration of the effects of industry changes only
  43. 43. The
    essence of operations management can be described by: 
    A. Process,
    capacity, and people
    B. Decisions,
    function, and process
    C. Planning,
    control, and organization
    D. Integrated
    planning and control
  44. 44. Which
    of the following is not a new theme in operations? 
    A. Globalization
    of Operations
    B. Lean
    C. Quality
    D. Environmental
    E. Supply
    Chain Management
  45. 45. The
    three primary functions that exist in most business organizations are: 
    A. Operations,
    accounting, and finance
    B. Operations,
    production, and finance
    C. Production,
    marketing, and human resources
    D. Operations,
    finance, and marketing
    E. None
    of the above
  46. 46. The
    three major functions of business organizations: 
    A. Are
    mutually exclusive
    B. Function
    independently of each other
    C. Interface
    with each other
    D. Do
    not interface with each other
    E. Both
    b and c
  47. 47. Which
    one of the following would not generally be classified under the heading of
    input in a university system? 
    A. Staff
    B. Equipment
    C. Facilities
    D. Knowledge
    E. Research
  48. 48. The
    four major decision responsibilities of operations management are: 
    A. Process,
    quality, capacity, and human resources
    B. Process,
    quality, human resources, and inventory
    C. Quality,
    inventory, human resources, and capacity
    D. Quality,
    capacity, inventory, and human resources
    E. Process,
    capacity, quality, and inventory
  49. 49. Which
    of the following does not come under the process category of the operations
    decision framework? 
    A. Layout
    of the facility
    B. Job
    C. The
    type of equipment and technology
    D. Product
    or service inspection
    E. Workforce
  50. 50. Supply
    chain management includes the integration of: 
    A. Suppliers
    B. Manufacturers
    C. Customers
    D. Both
    a and b
    E. a,
    b and c
  51. 51. The
    supply chain extends from: 
    A. Supplier
    to manufacturing
    B. Supplier
    to supplier
    C. Dealer
    to customer
    D. Supplier
    to customer
  52. 52. Supply
    chain management includes all of the following except: 
    A. Purchasing
    B. Inventory
    C. Advertising
    D. Customer
  53. 53. The market-pull view of new product innovation is to:
    A. "Pull" the products into the market as fast as possible
    B. Develop products that the company can sell
    C. Market whatever the company makes best
    D. Make new products appealing through packaging
  54. 54. Which
    of the following is not part of the new-product development process? 
    A. Concept
    B. Product
    C. Development
    of the marketing strategy
    D. Pilot
  55. 55. An
    example of a prototype is: 
    A. A
    military aircraft
    B. The
    personal computer
    C. A
    Broadway play
    D. The
    original McDonald's restaurant
  56. 56. Process
    A. Is
    the way new product ideas are developed
    B. Is
    the next stage after product design
    C. Is
    considered less important to a company than product design
    D. Should
    occur at the same time as product design
  57. 57. A
    restaurant offers a "customer's choice" sandwich where the customer
    specifies the types of bread, meat, cheese and topping he or she wants. There
    are three types of bread, three types of meat, three types of cheese and four
    types of topping. How many different sandwiches can the restaurant make? 
    A. 4
    B. 27
    C. 108
    D. 162
  58. 58. Modular
    design involves: 
    A. Dividing
    the production process into separate work units
    B. Dividing
    the products into product lines
    C. Dividing
    the products into their similar components
    D. Dividing
    the products into different cost categories
  59. 59. Quality
    Function Deployment: 
    A. Links
    customer requirements to technical specifications
    B. Does
    not consider customer attributes important
    C. Depends
    only on engineering characteristics
    D. Assumes
    interactions between engineering characteristics are unimportant
  60. 60. Quality
    Function Deployment includes which of the following: (1) relative importance of
    customer attributes, (2) tolerance stack-up, (3) a comparison to the
    competitor's product, (4) engineering characteristics, (5) customer
    perceptions, (6) customer attributes, (7) variation around a target, (8) value
    A. 3,
    5, 6, 7, 8
    B. 1,
    3, 4, 5, 6
    C. 1,
    2, 4, 6, 7
    D. 2,
    5, 6, 7, 8
  61. 61. The
    concept that a product should not only fit the market needs but have a
    technical advantage as well is known as the: 
    A. Market
    pull approach to new-product introduction
    B. Technology
    push approach to new-product introduction
    C. Interfunctional
    view to new-product introduction
    D. Dual
    approach to new-product introduction
    E. Innovative
    approach to new-product introduction
  62. 62. In
    which phase of the new-product design process are considerations about
    tradeoffs among product cost, quality, and schedule made? 
    A. Concept
    B. Product
    C. Preliminary
    process design
    D. Pilot
    E. Final
    process design
  63. 63. When
    marketing, engineering, and operations simultaneously develop a product, this
    approach is known as _______ _________. 
    A. Sequential
    B. Traditional
    C. Concurrent
    D. Both
    a and b
    E. None
    of the above
  64. 64. Quality
    Function Deployment: 
    A. Is
    a tool for linking customer requirements to technical specifications
    B. Facilitates
    inter-functional cooperation between marketing, engineering, and manufacturing
    C. Relates
    engineering characteristics to each other
    D. a
    and b only
    E. a,
    b, and c
  65. 65. Design
    for manufacturing involves: 
    A. Simplification
    of products
    B. Development
    of successive generations of products
    C. Manufacture
    of multiple products using common parts, processes, and modules
    D. Both
    a and b
    E. Both
    a and c
  66. 66. Value
    A. Improves
    the usefulness of the product without increasing the cost
    B. Reduces
    the cost without reducing the usefulness of the product
    C. Both
    a and b
    D. None
    of the above
  67. 67. In
    using the process view of the business, which of the following should be
    identified when defining the system? 
    A. Customers
    and suppliers
    B. The
    process-flow analysis approach to be used
    C. Of
    all the functional areas, only the operations function
    D. Boundary
    of the system
    E. Two
    of the above
  68. 68. If I
    denotes the average inventory in the system, T denotes the average throughput
    time, and R denotes the average flow rate of the system, then by Little's
    A. I
    = T/R
    B. T
    = I + R
    C. I
    = R/T
    D. R
    = I/T
    E. R
    = I * T
  69. 69. If a
    factory has 100,000 units of raw materials waiting in the system and if the
    average flow rate of the system is 5000 units per day, then according to
    Little's Law, the average throughput time is: 
    A. 0.5
    B. 20
    C. 0.05
    D. 100
    E. 10
  70. 70. A numerically controlled machining center has an average processing capacity of 5000 units per day. It receives an average of 3000 units of semi-finished goods from another machining center and it has to supply an average of 1000 units of finished goods to the packaging section. Assuming that the company incurs a huge sum of money for carrying finished goods supplied to the packaging section, the flow rate of the machining process is:
    A. 3000 units per day
    B. 5000 units per day
    C. 1000 units per day
    D. 9000 units per day
    E. 2500 units per day
  71. 71. Which of the following would not be changed due to process flowchart analysis?
    A. Raw materials
    B. Product or service design
    C. Job design
    D. Customers
    E. All of the above might be changed
  72. 72. One step in process flow analysis is to describe the existing process. If a new system is being developed, (there is no existing system):
    A. This step is simply omitted
    B. Process flow analysis cannot be performed
    C. A socio-technical design must be used
    D. Come up with a hypothetical process for comparison
  73. 73. Which of the following statements about Little's Law is incorrect?
    A. Little's Law cannot be applied to service operations
    B. Little's Law relates the average number of units in the system to average throughput time and the average flow rate
    C. Little's Law is a part of queuing theory
    D. Little's Law assumes that the system is in steady state
    E. None of the above
  74. 74. The average flow rate into a bank teller station is 50 checks per hour. The clerk at this teller station can process 60 checks per hour. The utilization of the clerk is:
    A. 50%
    B. 120%
    C. 83.3%
    D. Utilization cannot be computed due to insufficient information
    E. 66.7%
  75. 75. Analysis of the flow of information:
    A. Is only necessary if management wants tight control of the system
    B. Is more important than materials flow
    C. Should always accompany an analysis of materials flow
    D. Is only of concern to service industries
  76. 76. Which of the following is not one of the four principles of business process reengineering (BPR)?
    A. Organize around outcomes, not tasks
    B. Have the people who do the work process their own information
    C. Eliminate unnecessary steps in the process
    D. Computerize the remaining steps in the process
  77. 77. Business process reengineering (BPR) has encountered some implementation problems because:
    A. Top management support is lacking
    B. Both the approach itself and the way it is implemented
    C. Assignment of the wrong people to the project
    D. All of the above
  78. 78. Which of the following components need not be defined as a prerequisite to process-flow analysis?
    A. System boundaries
    B. Customers
    C. System flows
    D. Suppliers
    E. Cross-functional teams
  79. 79. Which of the following statements is incorrect about flowchart analysis?
    A. Process-flow analysis is heavily dependent on systems thinking.
    B. Flowcharts are used to describe and improve the transformation process in a business.
    C. There are ten process elements that might be changed when improving the effectiveness or efficiency of productive processes.
    D. Swim lane is another name for a flowchart.
    E. None of the above
  80. 80. Process elements that might be changed when improving the efficiency of productive processes include:
    A. Job design
    B. Product or service design
    C. Customer request
    D. Both a and b
    E. a, b, and c
  81. 81. Which of the following statements regarding business process reengineering (BPR) is incorrect?
    A. BPR is a term coined by Hammer and Champy in the book called "Reengineering the Corporation."
    B. BPR has come under attack in the recent years due to its association with downsizing of American corporations.
    C. BPR simplifies processes and eliminates the non-value added elements from the process.
    D. BPR eliminates functional layers of bureaucracy and speeds up the decision making process.
    E. BPR is synonymous to the Total Quality Management approach of process improvement.
  82. 82. A service blueprint:
    A. Shows all points of interaction between the customer and the service providers
    B. Contains a "line of visibility"
    C. Includes measurement of time
    D. All of the above
  83. 83. A service blueprint is used to analyze and manage the service process because it involves:
    A. The identification of flows, bottlenecks, and customer interaction points
    B. The design of the services advertising campaign
    C. The identification of the consumer benefit concept
    D. All of the above
  84. 84. The design and management of seamless, value-added processes across organizational boundaries to meet the real needs of the end customer is called:
    A. Demand management
    B. Distribution channel management
    C. Supply chain management
    D. Logistics management
  85. 85. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding supply chain operations?
    A. All elements of the supply chain are interconnected and dependent on each other.
    B. Demand changes by the end user can create a bullwhip effect in the supply chain.
    C. With perfect information at all levels of the supply chain, there will not be a bullwhip effect.
    D. Time lags in the supply chain serve to create fluctuations in orders and inventories.
    E. None of the above
  86. 86. The five measures of supply chain performance are:
    A. Cost, quality, flexibility, delivery, and time
    B. Cost, quality, time, delivery, and reliability
    C. Inventory, quality, time, delivery, and flexibility
    D. Inventory, cost, quality, time, and delivery
  87. 87. The average cash-to-cash cycle is defined as:
    A. Days in inventory + Days in account receivable + Days in accounts payable
    B. Days in inventory - Days in account receivable + Days in accounts payable
    C. Days in inventory + Days in account receivable - Days in accounts payable
    D. Days in inventory - Days in account receivable - Days in accounts payable
    E. None of the above
  88. 88. When labor and overhead costs are held constant while revenues increase, the efficiency of the supply chain:
    A. Increases
    B. Decreases
    C. Stays the same
    D. Cannot be determined from the given information
  89. 89. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of changes in structure?
    A. Are frequently long-range in nature and require considerable capital
    B. Include changes in capacity, facilities, process technology, and vertical integration
    C. Lead to changes in information systems
    D. Are related to bricks and mortar
  90. 90. Which of the following is a form of infrastructure change?
    A. Process simplification
    B. Product redesign
    C. Changes in information systems
    D. Forward integration
  91. 91. Which of the following is NOT true of vertical integration?
    A. Leads to greater flexibility to changing technology
    B. Can result in a loss of economies of scale
    C. Helps achieve control of the supply chain
    D. Reap profits of the supplier or distributor when there is an attractive return from investment
  92. 92. Which of the following statements is NOT true about supply chain dynamics?
    A. The supply chain is a highly interactive system.
    B. There is an accelerator effect in the supply chain due to replenishment lead-times.
    C. The best way to improve the supply chain is to increase the total replenishment time and to feed back actual demand information to all levels.
    D. The time lags in the supply chain only serve to create fluctuations in orders and inventories.
    E. All of the above statements are true.
  93. 93. ______ _______ _______ is a partnership of retailers, wholesalers, and manufacturers aimed at managing both demand and the supply chain.
    A. Effective consumer response
    B. Effective customer reaction
    C. Effective consumer reply
    D. Efficient consumer response
    E. Efficient consumer reply
  94. 94. Which of the following is NOT a specific measure of supply chain performance?
    A. Quality
    B. Time
    C. Innovation
    D. Delivery
    E. Flexibility
  95. 95. Which of the following is NOT a form of structural change of the supply chain?
    A. Forward and backward integration
    B. Changes to information systems
    C. Major process simplification
    D. Outsourcing logistics to a third party
    E. Re-configuring retail locations
  96. 96. Which of the following is a way to improve the infrastructure in the supply chain?
    A. Forward and backward integration
    B. Major process simplification
    C. Setup time reduction
    D. Major product redesign
    E. Outsourcing logistics to a third party
  97. 97. Which of the following is NOT a type of e-procurement?
    A. Private exchanges
    B. Third party auctions
    C. Online catalogs
    D. Online shopping
  98. 98. What are the two fundamental processes in all supply chains that are being affected by the Internet?
    A. Electronic interchange and order placement
    B. Order fulfillment and order placement
    C. B2B and order fulfillment
    D. None of the above
  99. 99. Order placement via the Internet does NOT include:
    A. Increasing the accuracy of the order
    B. Faster order entry
    C. Manufacturing and shipment status
    D. Use of an ERP system to schedule production
  100. 100. The flow of materials from upstream nodes into a company is called:
    A. Physical supply
    B. Physical distribution
    C. Demand management
    D. The SCOR model
    E. None of the above
  101. 101. Which
    of the following does the SCOR model NOT include? 
    A. Make
    B. Deliver
    C. Return
    D. Source
    E. All
    of the above are included
  102. 102. Materials handling, transportation, and warehousing fall under:
    A. Logistics
    B. Purchasing
    C. Demand chain management
    D. Fill rate
    E. None of the above
  103. 103. A Type II MRP system:
    A. Only launches orders
    B. Has feedback to control capacity
    C. Includes planning for personnel and capital
    D. Is also known as an Enterprise Resource Planning System
    E. None of the above
  104. 104. The three inputs for every MRP parts explosion are:
    A. Inventory, master schedule, and bill of materials
    B. Forecast, inventory, and bill of materials
    C. Capacity, master schedule, and inventory
    D. Forecast, bill of materials, and master schedule
  105. 105. A requirements-based system derives orders from:
    A. Customer requests
    B. Forecast
    C. Bill of materials
    D. Master schedule
  106. 106. A replenishment-based
    system derives orders from: 
    A. Capacity
    B. Forecast
    or customer request
    C. Bill
    of materials
    D. Master
  107. 107. An MRP system is designed to cope with the following type of demand:
    A. Lumpy
    B. Constant
    C. Uncertain
    D. Random
  108. 108. Planned
    lead times: 
    A. Usually
    are longer than actual working times
    B. Usually
    reflect the actual working times
    C. Usually
    are smaller than the actual working times
    D. Consider
    interference from other jobs
    E. Two
    of the above
  109. 109. The
    parts explosion results in the following outputs: 
    A. Purchase
    B. Purchase
    orders and bill of materials
    C. Purchase
    orders and shop orders
    D. Shop
    orders and inventory orders
  110. 110. An inflated master production schedule:
    A. Is needed to provide safety stock in MRP
    B. Will help meet marketing needs
    C. Helps cover up production problems
    D. Results in excess inventories and wrong priorities
  111. 111. The bill of materials:
    A. Shows how much inventory is available
    B. Is a bill sent to the customer for material ordered
    C. Is a list of all materials required to produce a part
    D. None of the above
  112. 112. Successful MRP implementation requires:
    A. Management support, parts explosion, and adequate computer support
    B. Marketing support, master schedule, and bill of materials
    C. Management support, accurate data, and adequate computer support
    D. None of the above
  113. 113. Cycle counting:
    A. Is counting a fraction of inventory each day
    B. Does not eliminate the need for annual physical inventory
    C. Is a way to plan inventory on a cyclic basis
    D. Is a way to decide how much to order
  114. 114. Bills of materials are kept current with changes using:
    A. Master scheduling systems
    B. Engineering change order systems
    C. Inventory tracking systems
    D. Capacity planning systems
    E. Manufacturing execution systems
  115. 115. Which type of MRP system is used as an information system to plan and control inventories and capacities?
    A. Type I
    B. Type II
    C. ERP
    D. None of the above
  116. 116. Which of the following is true about MRP Systems?
    A. Forecast is based on past demand
    B. Lot sizing is EOQ
    C. Demand pattern is random
    D. Objective is to meet manufacturing needs
    E. Order philosophy is replenishment
  117. 117. Which system specifies the output of the operations function?
    A. Parts explosion
    B. Bill of materials
    C. Master scheduling
    D. Capacity planning
    E. None of the above
  118. 118. Material requirements planning systems:
    A. Schedule forward in time starting from the arrival date of the job
    B. Assume infinite capacity while scheduling the jobs in a factory
    C. Schedule backward in time starting with the due date of the job
    D. Are finite capacity scheduling systems
    E. b and c
  119. 119. Which of the following is NOT a way of handling uncertainty when operating an MRP system?
    A. Safety stock
    B. Safety lead-time
    C. Safety capacity
    D. Back-up suppliers
  120. 120. Successful MRP system elements include:
    A. Implementation planning
    B. Accurate data
    C. User knowledge
    D. a and b
    E. a, b, and c
  121. 121. Which of the following most closely describes net material requirements?
    A. Gross requirements - planned receipts
    B. Gross requirements - (on-hand + scheduled receipts)
    C. Gross requirements - on-hand + scheduled receipts
    D. Gross requirements - on-hand
    E. Gross requirements - planned order releases
  122. 122. The
    gross requirements of a given component part in a MRP system are determined
    A. Net
    requirements + on-hand
    B. Net
    requirements of end item
    C. Gross
    requirements of the immediate part
    D. Planned
    order releases of the end item
    E. Planned
    order releases of the immediate parent item
  123. 123. _______
    system uses requirements order philosophy, while _____ system uses
    replenishment order philosophy. 
    A. Order
    point, MRP
    B. MRP,
    order point
    C. EOQ,
    Quantity Discount
    D. P,
    E. None
    of the above
  124. 124. In
    MRP "scheduled receipts" are: 
    A. Identical
    to "planned order receipts"
    B. Identical
    to "planned order releases"
    C. Identical
    to "net requirements"
    D. Open
    orders not delivered yet
    E. None
    of the above
  125. 125. The
    master production schedule for two products, A and B, is shown below. To
    manufacture item A, three units of component C are required. To manufacture
    item B, four units of component C are required. Using this information,
    determine the gross requirements for component C to start week 1.
    Production Schedule: Wk 1

    PRODUCT A: 30
    PRODUCT B: 25
    A. 55
    B. 190
    C. 110
    D. 380
    E. None
    of the above
Card Set:
Dsci 303
2013-03-11 03:56:00
Dsci 303 exam study guide

Eddie HavrillaCards
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