A&P 5

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  1. The adult human skeleton consists of ___ named bones.
  2. Why do skeletons of infants and children have more than 206 bones?
    Some fuse later in life.
  3. What are the principle divisions of the skeletal system?
    • Axial
    • Appendicular
  4. What are the basic types of bones based primarily on shape?
    • Long
    • Short
    • Flat
    • Irregular
    • Sesamoid
  5. What bones are slightly curved for strength, and what are some examples?
    • Long bones
    • femur, tibia, humerus, ulna, radius
  6. Which bones consist of spongy bone tissue except at the surface which is a thin layer of compact bone, and what are some examples?
    • Short bones
    • carpal bones of wrist (except pisiform)
  7. Which bones are typically composed of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone, providing protection and extensive areas for muscle attachment and what are examples?
    • Flat bones
    • cranial bones, sternum, ribs, scapulae
  8. What bones have complex shapes and vary in the amount of spongy and compact bone, and what are some examples?
    • Irregular bones
    • vertebrae, hip bones, calcaneus
  9. Which bones develop in certain tendons that have considerable friction, tension, and physical stress and may vary from person to person, and what are some examples?
    • Sesamoid bones
    • patellae
  10. Which bone is classified by location rather than shape and presents in different numbers from person to person?
    Sutural bones (Wormian bones)
  11. What bone surface markings participate in joints or allow the passage of soft tissue?
    Depressions and openings
  12. What bone surface marking is an opening?
  13. What bone surface marking is a shallow depression?
  14. What bone surface marking is a groove?
  15. What bone surface marking is a tubelike passageway or canal?
  16. What bone surface marking is a large, round protuberance?
  17. What bone surface marking is a smooth flat articular surface?
  18. What bone surface marking is a very large projection?
  19. What bone surface marking is a large, rounded, roughened projection?
  20. What is the origin bone for muscle attachment?
    Bone that does not move when muscle shortens.
  21. What is the insertion bone for muscle attachment?
    The movable bone.
  22. What is the belly of a muscle?
    Fleshy portion of muscle between attachment sites.
  23. What are the characteristics used to name muscles?
    • Direction (pattern) of fibers
    • Size
    • Shape
    • Action
    • Number of origins
    • Location
    • Sites of origin and insertion
  24. Fascicles arranged parallel to the longitudinal axis of a muscle; terminate at either end of flat tendons.
  25. Fascicles arranged nearly parallel to longitudinal axis of muscle; terminate in flat tendons; muscle tapers toward tendon where diameter is less than the belly.
  26. Fascicles arranged in concentric circular arrangements that enclose an orifice (form sphincters).
  27. Fascicles spread over a broad area; converge at a thick central tendon, giving a triangular appearance.
    Triangular (convergent)
  28. Fascicles are short in relation to total muscle length and are arranged on only one side of the tendon.
  29. Fascicles are arranged on both sides of centrally positioned tendons which extend nearly the entire length of the muscle.
  30. Fascicles attach obliquely from many directions to several tendons which in turn extend nearly the entire length of the muscle.
  31. What is the physiological cross-section of a muscle?
    Section that passes through practically all of the fibers.
  32. Muscle force is proportional to the ______ cross-section.
  33. Muscle velocity is proportional to ________ length.
    Muscle fiber
  34. Muscles that have considerable power over a short range of movement.
  35. Muscles that produce greater speed over a longer range of movement.
    Parallel and fusiform
  36. What is a rigid structure that can move around a fixed point called a fulcrum?
  37. What force acts on a lever to cause movement?
  38. What force acts on a lever that opposes movement?
    Load or resistance
  39. In the example of the biceps brachii flexing the forearm at the elbow, what is the fulcrum?
  40. In the example of the biceps brachii flexing the forearm at the elbow, what is the load?
    Weight of the forearm plus the weight of the object held.
  41. In the example of the biceps brachii flexing the forearm at the elbow, what is the effort?
    Force of contraction of the biceps brachii.
  42. What do levers produce trade-offs between?
    • Effort
    • Speed and range of motion
  43. When does a lever operate at a mechanical advantage (has leverage)?
    When a smaller effort can move a heavier load.
  44. When does a lever operate at a mechanical disadvantage?
    When a larger effort moves a lighter load.
  45. What determines whether a lever operates at a mechanical advantage or disadvantage?
    Position of the effort, load and fulcrum.
  46. When the load is close to the fulcrum and effort is applied farther away the lever operates at?
    A mechanical advantage.
  47. When the effort is applied close to the fulcrum and the load is farther away the lever operates at?
    A mechanical disadvantage.
  48. What class of lever has the fulcrum between the effort and the load (scissors, seesaw)?
    First class levers
  49. What class of lever has the load between the fulcrum and the effort (wheelbarrel)?
    Second class levers
  50. What class of lever has the effort between the fulcrum and the load (forceps)?
    Third class levers
  51. How many first class levers are in the body and what is an example?
    • Few
    • Head resting on the vertebral column.
  52. How many second class levers are in the body and what is an example?
    • Few
    • Foot when standing on the toes.
  53. How many third class levers are in the body and what is an example?
    • Most common type.
    • Elbow joint, biceps brachii, and bones of the arm and forearm.
  54. Why do most levers in the body favor speed and range of motion over force?
    Because 3rd class levers are the most common in the body.
  55. How are most muscles arranged?
    In opposing pairs at joints.
  56. Which muscle contracts to cause the desired action?
    Prime mover or agonist.
  57. Which muscle stretches and yields to prime mover muscles?
  58. Which muscles contract to stabilize nearby joints?
  59. Which muscles stabilize the origin of the prime movers?
  60. What law is the observation that a nerve that innervates a joint also tends to innervate the muscles that move the joint, and skin that covers the attachments of those muscles?
    Hilton's law
  61. What is caused by physical compression or irritation of major nerve trunks and peripheral nerves, producing distance nerve pain symptoms?
    Entrapment neuropathy
  62. Symptoms of entrapment neuropathy in upper limbs can be caused by nerve compression at which sites?
    • Neck
    • Shoulder
    • Elbow
    • Wrist
  63. Symptoms of entrapment neuropathy in lower limbs can be caused by nerve compression at which sites?
    • Hip
    • Leg
    • Foot
  64. Symptoms include tingling and pain, often followed or accompanied by reduced sensation or complete numbness, and signs commonly observed are muscle weakness.
    Entrapment neuropathy
  65. What are the four branches of the aorta from which all systemic arteries branch?
    • Ascending aorta
    • Arch of aorta
    • Thoracic aorta
    • Abdominal aorta
  66. What are the two main circulatory routes?
    • Systemic
    • Pulmonary
  67. What drains blood from the entire body and returns it to the right atrium of the heart?
    Veins of systemic circulation.
  68. Where does all venous blood drain to?
    • Superior vena cava
    • Inferior vena cava
    • Coronary sinus
  69. Double or multiple veins that closely accompany arteries and tend to have the same same as the artery.
    Venae comitantes
  70. What are two beneficial results of the arrangement of venae comitantes?
    • Counter-current heat exchanger.
    • Arteriovenous pump.
  71. Terminology: All the muscles or parts of muscles receiving innervation from one spinal nerve.
  72. Terminology: Running in a reverse direction.
  73. Forms the large cranial cavity and smaller cavities, including the nasal cavity and orbits.
  74. Mucous membrane lined cavities in skull bones.
    Paranasal sinuses
  75. The only movable skull bone other than the ear ossicles.
  76. Immovable joints that hold skull bones together.
  77. Cranial vault or "brain box" that provides a case for the brain, cranial meninges, cranial nerves and associated structures.
  78. Anterior part of the skull containing the orbits, nasal cavities, maxilla and mandible.
    Facial skeleton (viscerocranium or splanchnocranium)
  79. What are the two parts of the skeleton of the head?
    • Neurocranium
    • Facial skeleton
  80. What bones form the neurocranium in adults?
    • Frontal bone
    • Parietal bones
    • Temporal bones
    • Occipital bone
    • Sphenoid bone
    • Ethmoid bone
  81. The domelike roof of the cranium.
    Calvaria (skull cap)
  82. The floor of the cranium.
    Basicranium (cranial base)
  83. What are the general functions of cranial and facial bones?
    • Protect the brain.
    • Protect and support special sense organs.
    • Support entrances to digestive and respiratory systems.
  84. Forms the forehead, roof of the orbits, and anterior cranial floor.
    Frontal bone
  85. Forms the sides and roof of the cranial cavity.
    Parietal bones
  86. What are the features of the temporal bones?
    • Temporal squama
    • Zygomatic process
    • External auditory meatus
    • Mastoid process
    • Styloid process
    • Stylomastoid foramen (CN VII)
    • Carotid foramen (carotid artery)
    • Jugular foramen (jugular vein)
    • Mandibular fossa (TMJ)
    • Petrous portion (CN VIII)
  87. What are the features of the occipital bone?
    • Foramen magnum
    • Occipital condyles
    • External occipital protuberance
    • Superior and inferior nuchal lines
  88. Located in the middle part of the base of skull, called the keystone bone.
    Sphenoid bone
  89. What are the processes from the sphenoid bone that are attachment sites for jaw muscles called?
    Pterygoid processes
  90. What sphenoid structure forms the anterolateral floor of the cranium and and lateral part of the skull?
    Greater wings
  91. What is the cubelike portion of the sphenoid that holds the sphenoid sinuses?
    Sphenoid body
  92. What sphenoid structure forms the posterior part of the orbit of the eye and part of the cranium floor?
    Lesser wings
  93. What structure transmits the optic nerve (CN II) and the ophthalmic artery?
    Optic foramen (sphenoid)
  94. What bone houses the foramen rotundum and foramen ovale? What runs through them?
    • Sphenoid bone
    • Maxillary branch of CN V (rotundum)
    • Mandibular nerve of CN V (ovale)
  95. What structure holds the pituitary gland?
    Sella turcica of the sphenoid
  96. What bone forms part of the anterior portion of the cranial floor, medial wall of the orbits, superior portion of the nasal septum, and most of the superior side walls of the nasal cavity?
    Ethmoid bone
  97. What structure of the ethmoid bone attaches to the membranes that cover the brain?
    Crista galli
  98. What is the structure through which olfactory nerves (CN I) pass?
    Olfactory foramina (ethmoid bone)
  99. What part of the ethmoid bone contains the ethmoid sinuses?
    Lateral masses
  100. What forms the upper part of the nasal septum?
    Perpendicular plate
  101. What structures participate in the sense of smell, increase vascular surface (warms air), and causes inhaled air to swirl and impact mucus (filters air)?
    • Superior conchae (olfactory receptors)
    • Middle conchae....(aka turbinates)
  102. What bones does the facial skeleton consist of?
    • Lacrimal bones
    • Nasal bones
    • Maxillae
    • Zygomatic bones
    • Palatine bones
    • Inferior nasal conchae
    • Mandible
    • Vomer
  103. Forms the skeleton of the upper jaw, and is fixed to the cranial base.
  104. Forms the skeleton of the lower jaw, articulates with the cranial base at the temporomandibular joints (TMJs) and is moveable.
  105. What structures of the maxillae and mandible comprise the sockets and supporting bone that house the teeth?
    Alveolar processes
  106. What forms the floor of the orbits, floor of the nasal cavity or hard palate, the maxillary sinus and has alveolar processes to hold upper teeth?
    Maxillary bones
  107. What is a cleft palate?
    Lack of union of the maxillary bones.
  108. What bones form the cheekbones and lateral wall of the orbits along with the sphenoid?
    Zygomatic bones
  109. Forms part of the medial wall of the orbits.
    Lacrimal bones
  110. What houses the lacrimal sac?
    Lacrimal fossa
  111. Separate bones which the same function as the superior conchae, except not involved in the sense of smell.
    Inferior nasal conchae (turbinate)
  112. What are the structural features of the mandible?
    • Body, angle and rami
    • Condylar and coronoid processes
    • Alveolar processes (lower teeth)
    • Mandibular and mental foramen
  113. What transits the mandibular foramen and what is it part of?
    Inferior alveloar nerve (branch of the mandibular nerve, 3rd branch of CN V)
  114. Two "L" shaped (upside down T) bones where one end is the back part of the hard palate and the other end is part of the orbits.
    Palatine bones
  115. The posterior part of the nasal septum.
  116. Vertical partition that divides the nasal cavity into left and right sides, formed by the vomer, perpendicular plate or ethmoid and septal cartilage.
    Nasal septum
  117. What are the five important foramina associated with each orbit?
    • Optic foramen
    • Superior orbital fissure
    • Inferior orbital fissure
    • Supraorbital foramen
    • Lacrimal fossa
  118. What parts of seven bones form the orbits?
    • Frontal and sphenoid (roof)
    • Zygomatic and sphenoid (lateral wall)
    • Zygomatic and palatine (floor)
    • Maxilla, lacrimal, ethmoid and sphenoid (medial wall)
  119. What are the sutures of primary importance?
    • Coronal
    • Sagittal
    • Lambdoidal
    • Squamous
  120. What are the lesser sutures?
    • Frontosygomatic
    • Sphenofrontal
    • Sphenosquamosal
    • Temperozygomatic
  121. What suture unites the parietal and occipital bones?
  122. What suture unites the two parietal lobes?
  123. What suture unites the frontal and both parietal bones?
  124. What suture unites the parietal and temporal bones?
  125. Dense connective tissue membrane-filled spaces between the cranial bones of fetuses and infants which remain unossified at birth but close early in a child's life.
  126. What are the major fontanels?
    • Anterior
    • Posterior
    • Anterolaterals
    • Posterolaterals
  127. What are the two major functions of the fontanels?
    • Enable fetal skull to modify size and shape during birth.
    • Permit rapid brain growth during infancy.
  128. Cavities in bones of the skull that communicate with the nasal cavity.
    Paranasal sinuses
  129. What are the functions and features of the paranasal sinuses?
    • Lighten the skull.
    • Serve as resonating chambers for speech.
    • Lined by mucous membranes.
  130. What cranial bones contain the paranasal sinuses?
    • Frontal
    • Sphenoid
    • Ethmoid
    • Maxillae
  131. Membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed due to infection/allergies.
  132. Muscles that arise from the skull and insert on the mandible, are innervated by CN V, and protract/retracts and elevates the mandible.
    • Temporalis (elevates and retracts)
    • Masseter (elevates)
    • Pterygoids (protracts, elevates)
  133. Which muscle protracts and depresses the mandible?
    Lateral pterygoid (only muscle of mastication that depresses the mandible)
  134. What muscle elevates and protracts the mandible?
    Medial pterygoid
  135. What are the four extrinsic muscles of the tongue?
    • Genioglossus (from inside tip of mandible)
    • Styloglossus (from styloid process)
    • Palatoglossus (from hard palate)
    • Hyoglossus (from hyoid bone)
  136. What cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression? What gland does a portion of this nerve pass through?
    • Cranial Nerve VII
    • Parotid gland
  137. Facial paralysis; idiopathic, but often follows exposure to cold.
    Bell's palsy
  138. What muscle overall elevates (raises) the eyebrows and wrinkles the skin of the forehead horizontally as in a look of surprise?
  139. What is the origin for the occipitofrontalis?
    • Occipital belly: occipital bone
    • Frontal belly: galea aponeurotica (epicranial aponeurosis)
  140. What is the insertion for the occipitofrontalis?
    • Occipital belly: galea aponeurotica (epicranial aponeurosis)
    • Frontal belly: fascia and skin superior to the eye and nose (subcutaneous tissue of eyebrows and forehead)
  141. What muscle closes and protrudes the lips, compresses lips against teeth, and shapes lips during speech?
    Orbicularis oris
  142. What is the origin of the orbicularis oris?
    Muscle fibers surround the opening of the mouth.
  143. What is the insertion for the orbicularis oris?
    Skin at the corner of the mouth.
  144. What muscle draws the angle of the mouth superiorly and laterally as in smiling?
    Zygomaticus major
  145. What muscle raises (elevates) the upper lip, exposing the maxillary teeth?
    Zygomaticus minor
  146. What is the origin for both the zygomaticus major and minor?
    Zygomatic bone
  147. What is the insertion for the zygomaticus major and minor?
    • Major: skin at the angle of the mouth and orbicularis oris
    • Minor: upper lip
  148. What muscle raises (elevates) the upper lip?
    Levator labii superioris
  149. What is the insertion for the levator labii superioris?
    Skin at the angle of the mouth and orbicularis oris
  150. What muscle depresses (lowers) the lower lip?
    Depressor labii inferioris
  151. What is the insertion for the depressor labii inferioris?
    Skin of the lower lip
  152. What muscle draws the angle of the mouth laterally and inferiorly?
    Depressor anguli oris
  153. What is the insertion for the depressor anguli oris?
    Angle of the mouth
  154. What is the origin for the levator labii superioris, depressor labii inferioris, mentalis, and depressor anguli oris?
  155. What muscle presses the cheeks against teeth and lips, as in whistling, blowing, sucking; draws the corner of the mouth laterally; assists in mastication (chewing) by keeping food between the teeth (and not between teeth and cheeks)?
  156. What is the insertion for the buccinator?
    Orbicularis oris
  157. What is the origin for the buccinator?
    Alveolar processes of the maxilla and mandible and the pterygomandibular raphe.
  158. What muscle draws the angle of the mouth laterally as in grimacing?
  159. What is the insertion for the risorius?
    Skin at the angle of the mouth
  160. What is the origin of the risorius?
    Fascia over parotid (salivary) gland
  161. What muscle elevates and protrudes the lower lip and pulls up the skin of the chin as in pouting?
  162. What is the insertion for the mentalis?
    Skin of the chin
  163. What muscle draws the outer part of the lower lip inferiorly and posteriorly as in pouting, and depresses the mandible?
  164. What is the origin for the platysma?
    Fascia over deltoid and pectoralis major muscles.
  165. What is the insertion for the platysma?
    Mandible, muscle around angle of mouth, and skin of the lower face.
  166. What muscle closes and squints the eye (orbital part), depresses upper eyelid and elevates the lower eyelid (palpebral part)?
    Orbicularis oculi
  167. What is the insertion for the orbicularis oculi?
    Circular path around the orbit
  168. What is the origin for the oribularis oculi?
    Medial wall of the orbit
  169. What muscle draws the eyebrows inferiorly and medially, and wrinkles skin of the forehead vertically as in frowning?
    Corrugator supercilii
  170. What muscle is not a muscle of facial expression and why?
    • Levator palpebrae
    • It is not innervated by CN VII
  171. What are the branches of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?
    • V1=ophthalmic
    • V2=maxillary
    • V3=mandibular
  172. What are the dermatomes of the face, back of the head, neck and collar?
    • CN V: face
    • C2: occipital protuberance (prominent feature)
    • C3: gentleman's collar
  173. What are the layers of the scalp from superficial to deep?
    • S. skin
    • C. (subcutaneous) connective tissue
    • A. aponeurosis (epicranial aponeurosis)
    • L. loose connective tissue ("danger space")
    • P. pericranium
  174. Why is the loose connective tissue of the scalp termed the "danger area" of the scalp?
    Pus, blood, or infection can spread easily in it which can pass into the cranial cavity via emissary veins that pass through the parietal foramina in the calvaria.
  175. What bone is a unique component of the axial skeleton because it does not articulate with any other bones?
    Hyoid bone
  176. Where is the hyoid bone located?
    In the anterior neck between the mandible and larynx.
  177. What is the function of the hyoid bone?
    • Supports the tongue
    • Provides attachment sites for tongue, neck and pharyngeal muscles
  178. What are the origin and insertion for the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
    • Origin: sternum and clavicle
    • Insertion: mastoid process of the temporal bone
  179. What innervates the sternocleidomastoid?
    CN XI (accessory)
  180. Contraction of both sternocleidomastoids causes what action?
    • Flexes cervical vertebrae (chin approches manubrium)
    • Extends the head (thrust chin forward with head level)
  181. Contraction of one sternocleidomastoid muscles causes what action?
    • Laterally flexes the neck
    • Rotates face in opposite direction
  182. What innervates the trapezius muscle?
    • CN XI (accessory)
    • C3-C5
  183. What is the action of the trapezius?
    Rotate, adduct and stabilize the scapula.
  184. Describe the location of the external jugular vein and the great auricular nerve relative to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
    Both are superficial to the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
  185. State the general action of the deep posterior neck muscles.
    Mainly postural muscles, causing some combination of flexion, extension, lateral bending, and/or rotation at the atlanto-occipital and atlanto-axial joints.
  186. What are the four small muscles in the suboccipital region which make up the deep posterior neck muscles?
    • Rectus capitus posterior (major and minor)
    • Obliquus capitis (inferior and superior-"oblique")
  187. What are the names of the two groups of muscles in the anterior neck?
    • Suprahyoid muscles
    • Infrahyoid muscles
  188. What features place the anterior neck muscles into each group?
    Position relative to the hyoid bone
  189. What is the overall action of the suprahyoid muscles as a group?
    Elevate the hyoid bone, floor of the oral cavity and tongue during swallowing.
  190. What are the muscles that make up the suprahyoid group?
    • Digastric
    • Stylohyoid
    • Mylohyoid
    • Geniohyoid
  191. What is the specific action ofthe digastric muscle? What muscle of mastication has the same action?
    • Opens the mouth.
    • Lateral pterygoid
  192. What is the overall action of the infrahyoid muscles as a group? What is another name for the infrahyoid muscles based on their appearance?
    • Depress the hyoid bone and move the larynx during swallowing and speech.
    • Sometimes called "strap" muscles due to their ribbonlike appearance.
  193. What are the muscles that make up the infrahyoid group?
    • Omohyoid
    • Sternohyoid
    • Sternothyroid
    • Thyrohyoid
  194. What is the overall general motor innervation of the infrahyoid muscles?
    • Omohyoid, sternohyoid, sternothyroid=ansa cervicalis
    • Thryohyoid=Hypoglossal (CN XII)
  195. What are the general origins and insertions of the scalene muscles?
    • Origin: cervial vertebrae
    • Insertion: uppermmost ribs
  196. What are the actions of the scalene muscles?
    • Flex, laterally flex and rotate head.
    • Participate in forced respiration.
  197. What is the motor innervation of the scalene muscles?
    Cervical spinal nerves C3-C8
  198. What are the differences in the normal branches of the arch of the aorta to the arms and head on the right side of the body versus the left side of the body?
    • Brachiocephalic trunk branches into the right common carotid and right subclavian arteries.
    • Left subclavian and left common carotid arise independently.
  199. Name the paired arteries that furnish blood to the brain.
    • Vertebral arteries
    • Internal carotid arteries
  200. State the following regarding the vertebral arteries: the name of the artery they branch from, the route they take, the name of the structure they form on the ventral surface of the pons.
    • Subclavian arteries.
    • Course through transverse foramina of cervical vertebrae.
    • Unpaired basilar artery (pons).
  201. State the following regarding the internal carotid arteries: destination, the name of the artery they branch from and in turn where that artery branches from.
    • Inferior anterior surface of brain.
    • Common carotid artery.
    • Arch of aorta.
  202. Describe the circle of Willis with regard to: location, function, arteries that supply it.
    • Encircles stalk of the pituitary gland.
    • Provides alternate pathways for blood to travel in the event of a blockage or occlusion.
    • Supplied by interconnecting branches of the basilar artery with branches of the internal carotid arteries.
  203. What is the arterial circle of Willis?
    An anastamosis (connects posterior and anterior blood supplies to the brain).
  204. Which of the various arteries of the head provides the major arterial supply to the face?
    Facial artery
  205. What spinal nerve roots comprise the origin of the phrenic nerve?
  206. What muscles does the ansa cervicalis supply motor innervation to?
    • Omohyoid
    • Sternohyoid
    • Sternothyroid
    • (part of the suprahyoid group)
  207. What is the "only" moveable joint the in the head?
    Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
  208. What are the muscles involved with the TMJ?
    • Temporal
    • Masseter
    • Lateral pterygoid
    • Medial pterygoid
  209. What are the bones involved with the TMJ?
    • Mandible (head/condyle process)
    • Temporal bone (mandibular fossa, articular tubercle)
  210. What are the two major triangles of the neck?
    • Posterior triangle
    • Anterior triangle
  211. What are the subdivisions (sub-triangles) of the posterior triangle?
    • Occipital triangle
    • Subclavian triangle (supraclavicular triangle)
  212. What are the subdivisions (sub-triangles) of anterior triangle?
    • Carotid triangle
    • Submandibular triangle
    • Submental triangle
    • Muscular triangle
  213. What muscular triangle contains the accessory nerve, cervical plexus and occipital artery?
    Occipital triangle
  214. What muscular triangle contains the subclavian artery, and subclavian vein?
    Subclavian triangle
  215. What muscular triangle contains the facial artery, facial vein, and submandibular gland?
    Submandibular triangle
  216. What muscular triangle contains the common carotid artery, internal carotid artery, internal carotid artery, internal jugular vein, vagus nerve, thyroid gland, and larynx?
    Carotid triangle
  217. What muscular triangle contains the infrahyoid muscles, larynx, thyroid gland and parathyroid glands?
    Muscular triangle
  218. What nerves of the neck are "just passing through" on their way to innervate a more remote part of the body? What are they comprised of?
    • Transient moves
    • Comprised the vagus and phrenic nerve.
  219. In which muscular triangles can branches of the vagus be found?
    • Carotid triangle
    • Submandibular triangle
  220. What are the five regions of the vertebral column? How many bones are in each region?
    • Cervical vertebrae (7)
    • Thoracic vertebrae (12)
    • Lumbar vertebrae (5)
    • Sacrum (5, fused)
    • Coccyx (4, fused)
  221. What are the four normal vertebral curves?
    • Cervical
    • Lumbar
    • Thoracic
    • Sacral
  222. Describe each of the vertebral curves with regard to: convex or concave (and from what aspect), primary or secondary.
    • Primary: Thoracic, Sacral (anteriorly concave)
    • Secondary: Cervical, Lumbar (anteriorly convex)
  223. Characterized by an abnormal increase in the thoracic curvature; can result from erosion of the anterior part of one or more vertebrae (demineralization from osteoporosis).
    Kyphosis (humpback)
  224. What is a name for kyphosis in older women caused by wedge fractures of the thoracic vertebrae?
    Dowager's hump
  225. Characterized by an anterior rotation of the pelvis at the hip joints producing an abnormal increase in the lumbar curvature; often associated with weakened trunk musculature.
    Lordosis (sway back)
  226. What is a cause of temporary lordosis; what causes lordosis in both males and females?
    • Pregnancy
    • Obesity
  227. Characterized by an abnormal lateral curvature that is accompanied by rotation of the vertebrae.
    Scoliosis (curved back)
  228. What is the most common deformity of the vertebral column in pubertal girls?
  229. How is the intervertebral foramen formed?
    2 vertebral notches together
  230. How is the spinal canal formed?
    All vertebral formina together.
  231. How is the vertebral arch formed?
    Pedicles and laminae.
  232. What are identifying characteristics of the vertebrae in the cervical region?
    • Smaller bodies, larger spinal canal
    • Short transverse processes with foramen vertebral artery
    • Spinous processes are bifid (C2-C6)
    • 1st and 2nd vertebrae are unique (atlas, axis)
  233. What are identifying characteristics of the vertebrae in the thoracic region?
    • Larger, stronger bodies
    • Longer transverse & spinous processes
    • Facets/demifacets on body for head of ribs
    • Facets on transverse processes (T1-T10) for tubercle of ribs
  234. What are identifying characteristics of the vertebrae in the lumbar region?
    • Strongest and largest
    • Short, thick spinous and transverse processes
  235. What are identifying characteristics of the vertebrae in the sacral region?
    • Formed by the union of 5 sacral vertebrae (S1-S5) by age 30
    • Auricular surface is the site of the synovial part of sacroiliac joint
  236. What is the continuation of the vertebral canal, and what does it contain?
    • Sacral canal
    • Nerve roots of the cauda equina
  237. What do the median, medial, and lateral sacral crests represent?
    • Median: fused rudimentary sinous processes
    • Medial: fused articular processes
    • Lateral: tips of transverse processes of fused sacral vertebrae
  238. Describe the motion that occurs at the atlanto-axial joint.
    Pivotal movement signifying "no"
  239. Describe the motion that occurs at the atlanto-occipital joint.
    Nodding movement signifying "yes"
  240. Name the part of a rib that articulates with the body of thoracic vertebrae.
  241. Name the part of a rib that articulates with the transverse process of the thoracic vertebrae.
  242. What lies between adjacent vertebrae, absorbs shock, and permits varous movements of the vertebral column? What is it's composition?
    • Intervertebral discs
    • Fibrocartilagenous ring with a pulpy center
  243. What proportion of the length of the vertebral column is made up by the intervertebral discs?
    One quarter (1/4)
  244. Where is the anulus fibrosis thickest? Where is it thinnest?
    • Anterior (thickest)
    • Posterior (thinnest)
  245. How does the thickness/thinness relate to herniation of the nucleus pulposus and consequent affect on nerves?
    Degeneration of the posterior longitudinal ligament and wearing of the annulus may cause the nucleus pulposus to hernaite into the vertebral canal and compress the spinal cord/cauda equina.
  246. Relative to the level at which an intervertebral disc protrudes, what nerve roots are compressed, and why?
    • Roots numbered one inferior to the disc.
    • Spinal nerve root exits the superior portion of the IV foramen.
    • IV discs form the inferior part of the formen and bulges below the nerve exit.
  247. What are the most commonly ruptured intervertebral discs of the cervical region? Which spinal nerve roots are affected by each of these? What are the manifestations of this rupture?
    • Discs between C5/C6 and C6/C7
    • Spinal roots C6 and C7
    • Pain in the neck, shoulder, arm, and hand.
  248. What ligament may be damaged by severe hyperextension of the neck, as in whiplash?
    Anterior longitudinal ligament
  249. Name the plane synovial joints between the superior and inferior articular processes of adjacent vertebrae (joints of the vertebral arches).
    Zygopophysial joint
  250. What surrounds each zygopophysial joint? What movements do the joints permit?
    • Thin, loose articular capsule
    • Gliding movement between vertebrae
  251. Describe the ligamentum nuchae with regard to: location in the body (superior and inferior attachments), location with respect to individual vertebrae with which it is associated, what it is a modification of.
    • Neck
    • Extends from C7 (inferior) to the occipital protuberance (superior)
    • Supraspinous ligament
  252. Which intervertebral foramina are commonly affected by stenosis?
    • C5/6, C6/7
    • L3/4, L4/5 and L5/S1
  253. What maintains stability of the joints between vertebral bodies, helps prevent hyperextension of the vertebral column, covers and connects anterior aspects of vertebral bodies & discs, is broad and extends from the atlas to the sacrum, and is strong and fibrous?
    Anterior longitudinal ligament
  254. What runs within the vertebral canal along the posterior aspect of the vertebral bodies, is narrower and weaker than it's anterior counterpart, helps prevent hyperflexion of the vertebral column and herniation/posterior protrusion of discs, and is amply supplied with nociceptive nerve endings?
    Posterior longitudinal ligament
  255. What are broad, yellow elastic fibrous tissue that join laminae of adjacent vertebral arches preventing separation of the vertebral lamina, stop abrupt flexion of the vertebral column and help prevent injury to the IV discs?
    Ligamenta flava
  256. What joins the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum?
    Supraspinous ligament
  257. What is the source of blood supply for a vertebra?
    Segmental artery (branched from the aorta).
  258. What is the distribution of blood supply in a vertebra?
    Spinal arteries (branched from the segmental artery) enter the IV foramina and divide then get distributed to dorsal and ventral roots of spinal nerves and their coverings.
  259. Describe the venous drainage of the vertebral column with regard to basivertebral veins.
    Large and tortuous veins in the substance of vertebral bodies.
  260. Describe the venous drainage of the vertebral column with regard to intervertebral veins.
    • Veins accompany the spinal nerves through IV foramina.
    • Receive blood from spinal cord and vertebral plexuses.
  261. What is the clinical significance of the valveless nature of the vertebral venous plexus?
    It can transmit cancer metastases to distant locations that don't lie in the normal venous pathway.
  262. What are the components of the bony thorax?
    • Thoracic portion of the vertebral column.
    • 12 pairs of ribs w/ costal cartilages.
    • Sternum
  263. What are the functions of the bony thorax?
    • Protects the heart, lungs, other internal structures.
    • Provides attachement for muscles of respiration.
    • Produces red bone marrow.
  264. What are the openings of the bony thorax?
    • Superior thoracic aperture
    • Inferior thoracic aperture
  265. Compare and contrast the superior and inferior thoracic apertures with regard to their location, relative size, boundaries, and closures.
    • Superior: bounded by 1st pair of ribs and sternum
    • Inferior: larger and closed by the diaphragm
  266. State the components of the sternum.
    • Manubrium
    • Body (gladiolus)
    • Xiphoid process
  267. Which ribs are referred to as "true ribs"?
    Ribs 1-7
  268. Which ribs have costal cartilage and attach directly to the sternum?
    vertebrosternal ribs (true ribs)
  269. What rib has the sharpest curvature of all the ribs and articulates with the manubrium at a point below the clavicle?
    First rib
  270. Which ribs are also termed "false ribs"?
    Ribs 8-12
  271. Which ribs do not have a direct articulation with the sternum, instead indirectly aritculating by the costal cartilage of rib 7?
    Vertebrochondral ribs (false ribs)
  272. What is the arrangement of costal cartilages that provide for the indirect articulation of ribs 8, 9, and 10 referred to as?
    Costal arch
  273. Which ribs have no anterior articulation with the sternum? What are they called?
    • Ribs 11-12
    • Floating ribs (also false ribs)
  274. What feature of the sternum lies between the clavicles and is the most superior landmark on the sternum?
    Jugular notch (suprasternal notch)
  275. What feature of the sternum is the point of articulation of the sternal extremity of the clavicle with the manubrium?
    Sternoclavicular notch
  276. What feature of the sternum represents the junction of the manubrium and body of the sternum and is the location of the cartilaginous articulation of the second pair of ribs?
    Sternal angle
  277. What are the three groups of muscles in the back?
    • Superificial
    • Intermediate
    • Intrinsic
  278. What general actions does each group of back muscles perform?
    • Superficial: produce and control limb movements
    • Intermediate: involved in respiration
    • Intrinsic (true back): act on the vertebral column producing its movements and maintaining posture
  279. Describe the serratus posterior superior with regard to: function, innervation, and location (vertically and relation to other groups of back muscles).
    • Elevates rib cage (inspiration)
    • Spinal intercostal nerves
    • Deep to rhomboideus muscles (underneath shoulder blades)
  280. Describe the serratus posterior inferior with regard to: function, innervation, and location (vertically and relation to other groups of back muscles).
    • Depresses lower four ribs (forceful expiration)
    • Spinal intercostal nerves
    • Deep to latissimus dorsi
  281. What are the names of the two groups of intrinsic muscles of the back? What is the general function of each group?
    • Erector spinae (extend vertebral column)
    • Transversospinal (rotate vertebrae)
  282. What is the motor innervation of each of the groups of intrinsic muscles of the back?
    Dorsal rami of spinal nerves.
  283. What are the components of the thorax?
    • 12 paired ribs
    • sternum (breast bone)
    • costal cartilages
    • 12 thoracic vertebrae
  284. What is the overall function of the thoracoappendicular muscles?
    Produce and control limb movements (generally considered upper limb muscles).
  285. What are the four anterior thoracoappendicular muscles?
    • Pectoralis major
    • Pectoralis minor
    • Subclavius
    • Serratus anterior
  286. What is the posterior thoracoappendicular muscle?
    Latissimus dorsi
  287. Name the muscles of the thorax and neck that assist, or can have some function in breathing. What function can each muscle have relative to breathing?
    • Scalene muscles (neck): forced inspiration
    • External intercostal muscles (thorax): inspiration
    • Internal intercostal muscles (thorax): forced expiration
    • Transverse thoracic muscles: forced expiration
  288. What are the three layers of intercostal muscles, and what is (are) the name(s) of the muscle(s) belonging to each layer?
    • Outermost (external intercostal)
    • Middle (internal intercostal)
    • Innermost (transversus thoracis, subcostal, innermost intercostal)
  289. What innervates the external intercostal muscles, internal intercostal muscles, and transverse thoracic muscles?
    Intercostal nerves (anterior rami of T1-T11)
  290. What is the origin and insertion for the internal intercostal muscles and transverse thoracic muscles?
    • Internal: origin- superior border of a rib, insertion- inferior border of the rib above
    • Transverse: origin- sternum, insertion- cartilages of ribs 2-6
  291. What is the action of the external intercostal muscles, internal intercostal muscles, and transverse thoracic muscles?
    • External intercostal: elevates the rib cage
    • Internal intercostal: depress the rib cage
    • Transverse thoracic: depress the rib cage
  292. How are the fibers of the intercostal muscles oriented?
    Right angles to the external intercostal muscle (up and in).
  293. How are the intercostal nerves distributed?
    They run in the intercostal spaces parallel to the ribs.
  294. What do anterior rami of thoracic spinal nerves give rise to and/or innervate?
    The intercostal nerves
  295. What do posterior rami of thoracic spinal nerves give rise to and/or innervate?
    They innervate the joints, muscles, and skin of the back in the thoracic region.
  296. What nerve supplies motor innervation to the diaphragm? What are the roots of this nerve?
    • Phrenic nerve
    • C3-C5
  297. What nerve supplies sensory innervation to the diaphragm?
    Phrenic nerve
  298. What three sets of nerves supply cutaneous innervation to the thoracic wall?
    • Upper thoracic interostal nerves
    • Intercostal brachial nerve
    • Supraclavicular nerves (cervical plexus)
  299. Correlate the following landmarks of the thorax with the dermatome it is associated with: anterior portion of arm, clavicles, jugular notch, nipples, suprasternal notch, umbilicus, xiphoid process.
    • C5: jugular notch and clavicles
    • T1: anterior portion of arm
    • T4: nipples
    • T7: xiphoid process
    • T10: umbilicus
  300. Describe the anterior intercostal artery with regard to: location relative to intercostal muscle layers, location relative to the ribs, origin.
    • Between middle and innermost muscle layers.
    • Intercostal space.
    • Branch of the subclavian artery.
  301. Describe the posterior intercostal artery with regard to: location relative to intercostal muscle layers, location relative to the ribs, origin.
    • Between the middle and innermost layers of muscle.
    • Intercostal space.
    • Arise from the aorta.
  302. Describe the internal thoracic artery(ies) with regard to: function, location, origin, terminal branches.
    • Supplies the anterior thoracic wall.
    • Lies near the lateral border of the sternum.
    • Branch of the subclavian artery.
    • Musculophrenic artery and superior epigastric artery.
  303. Describe the internal thoracic vein(s) with regard to: function, location, terminus.
    • Venae comitantes of the internal thoracic arteries.
    • Between the middle and innermost layers of muscle.
    • Azygos/hemiazygos venous system.
  304. What do superifical lymphatic vessels superior to the umbilicus drain to?
    • Axillary lymph nodes (most)
    • Parasternal and anterior diaphragmatic lymph nodes (some)
  305. What do superificial lymphatic vessels inferior to the umbilicus drain to?
    Superficial inguinal lymph nodes
  306. State the sequence from superior to inferior of the intercostal artery, nerve, and vein.
    Vein, artery, nerve (VAN)
  307. Why does complete loss of sensation usually not occur unless two or more intercostal nerves are anesthetized?
    Because any particular area of skin usually receives innervation from two adjacent dermatomes.
  308. Describe the diaphragm (thoracic diaphragm) with regard to its: appearance, function, location.
    • Dome-shaped
    • Chief muscle of inspiration (descends)
    • Between the thoracic and abdominal cavities (separates them)
  309. How can half of the diaphragm become paralyzed due to injury of its motor supply (phrenic nerve) and the other half left unaffected?
    Each dome has a separate nerve supply.
  310. What is paradoxical movement of the diaphragm?
    • Paralyzed dome ascends during inspiration instead of descending.
    • Then descends during expiration in response to the positive pressure of the lungs.
  311. What are the major division of the mediastinum?
    • Superior
    • Inferior
  312. What are the vertical and horizontal boundaries of the mediastinum?
    • Vertical: superior thoracic aperture to the diaphragm
    • Horizontal: sternum and costal cartilages anteriorly to the bodies of the thoracic vertebrae posteriorly
  313. What are the subdivisions of the inferior mediastinum?
    • Anterior
    • Middle
    • Posterior
  314. Describe the changes in the general location of mediastinal contents due to the effects of gravity when the individual is supine versus erect.
    When supine, viscera are higher relative to sub-divisions of the mediastinum than when erect.
  315. What are the planes of the superior mediastinum and what structures are in each plane?
    • Glandular plane: thymus
    • Venous plane: right & left brachiocephalic vein, superior vena cava, arch of azygos vein
    • Arterial-nervous plane: aortic arch and its branches, vagus nerve (R&L), phrenic nerve (R&L)
    • Visceral-nervous plane: trachea, esophagus, left recurrent laryngeal nerve
    • Lymphatic plane: thoracic duct
  316. With regard to the right and left sides of the inferior mediastinum, describe the "color" of each, why that color is assigned and the major blood vessels of each.
    • Right side ("blue side"): dominated by the arch of the azygos vein, superior vena cava, and right atrium
    • Left side ("red side"): dominated by the arch of aorta, left common carotid artery, and subclavian arteries
  317. State the contents of the anterior and middle mediastinum.
    • Anterior: connective tissue, fat, few blood vessels, few lymph nodes, sometimes lower end of thalamus
    • Middle: heart and its pericardium
  318. What are the structures that comprise the posterior mediastinum?
    • Thoracic aorta
    • Thoracic duct
    • Lymph nodes
    • Azygos and hemiazygos veins
    • Esophagus
    • Esophageal plexus
    • Thoracic sympathetic trunks
    • Thoracic splanchnic nerves
  319. What are the three flat muscles that are located in the anterolateral abdominal wall?
    • External oblique
    • Internal oblique
    • Transverse abdominal
  320. What are the two vertical muscles that are located in the anterior abdominal wall?
    • Rectus abdominis
    • Pyramidalis
  321. What structure contains the vertical muscles?How is this structure formed?
    • Rectus sheath
    • Fused/interlaced aponeuroses of the three flat muscles of the anterolateral abdominal wall.
  322. What are the layers of the abdominal wall in sequence from superficial to deep?
    • Skin
    • Superficial fatty tissue
    • External oblique
    • Internal oblique
    • Transverse abdominal muscle
    • Fascia
    • Endoabdominal fat
  323. What nerves innervate the anterolateral abdominal wall?
    • Thoracoabdominal
    • Iliohypogastric
    • Ilioinguinal
  324. Name the abdominal arteries in sequence as they either occur sequentially or branch from a previously-sequenced structure or artery.
    • Ascending aorta
    • Arch of aorta
    • Thoracic aorta
    • Celiac trunk
    • Superior mesenteric
    • Abdominal aorta
    • Inferior mesenteric
    • Common iliac artery
    • Internal iliac artery
    • External iliac artery
    • Femoral artery
  325. Arrange the following structures and arteries in sequence: arch of the aorta, ascending aorta, internal thoracic artery, subclavian artery, superior epigastric artery.
    • Ascending aorta
    • Arch of aorta
    • Subclavian artery
    • Internal thoracic artery
    • Superior epigastric artery
  326. Describe the inferior epigastric artery with regard to: origin, region of the body it supplies, vessel with which it anastamoses.
    • External iliac
    • Lower part of rectus abdominis
    • Anastamoses with the superior epigastric
  327. Name the paired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta.
    • Right and left middle suprarenal
    • Right and left renal arteries
    • Right and left gonadal arteries (testicular and ovarian arteries)
  328. Name the unpaired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta.
    • Celiac trunk
    • Superior mesenteric artery
    • Inferior mesenteric artery
  329. What 3 branches does the celiac trunk divide into?
    • Left gastric
    • Splenic
    • Common hepatic
  330. What organs does the left gastric artery supply?
    • Stomach
    • Esophagus
  331. What organs does the splenic artery supply?
    • Spleen
    • Pancreas
    • Greater omentum
    • Stomach
  332. What organs does the common hepatic artery supply?
    • Liver
    • Gallbladder
    • Stomach
    • Duodenum
    • Pancreas
    • Greater omentum
  333. What organs does the superior mesenteric artery supply?
    • Pancreas
    • Duodenum
    • Jejunum
    • Ileum
    • Ascending colon
    • Transverse colon
  334. What organs does the inferior mesenteric artery supply?
    • Transverse colon
    • Descending colon
    • Sigmoid colon
    • Rectum
  335. Arrange the following veins in sequence: common iliac vein, external iliac vein, inferior vena cava, internal iliac vein.
    • Inferior vena cava
    • Common iliac vein
    • Internal iliac vein
    • External iliac vein
Card Set:
A&P 5
2013-03-16 23:16:02
exam five

A&P exam 5
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