Biochem exam 2

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Biochem exam 2
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2013-03-14 01:58:21
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Rutgers gen biochem murphy study guide
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  1. Both glycogenesis and glycogenolysis are controlled primarily by the interplay between the two hormones insulin and ________.

    A) Glycogen synthetase
    B) Glucagon
    C) Fructose kinase
    D) Glucose hydrolyase
    E) Pentose kinase
    B
  2. Hexokinase D is found in the _______.

    A) Kidney
    B) Liver
    C) Heart
    D) Muscle
    E) Intestine
    B
  3. An enzyme family called the _________ catalyzes the phosphorylation of hexoses in the body.

    A) Hexolysases
    B) Phosphorolysases
    C) Hexokinases
    D) Glucokinases
    E) Phosphofructokinases
    C
  4. The conversion of glucose-1-phosphate to UDP-glucose has a ΔG0’ near zero. Which of the following reactions is coupled with the above reaction to drive it to completion?

    A) Hydrolysis of PPi
    B) Hydrolysis of ATP
    C) Hydrolysis of ADP
    D) Hydrolysis of UDP
    E) Hydrolysis of UTP
    A
  5. Which of the following is required for the conversion of UDP-glucose to glycogen?

    A) Glycogen synthase
    B) Branching enzyme
    C) Glucose phosphorlyase
    D) Debranching enzyme
    E) Both A and B are correct
    E
  6. A glycogen molecule that has been degraded to its branch points is called

    A) Dextrin
    B) Glucose
    C) Amylose
    D) Limit dextrin
    E) Both A and B are correct
    D
  7. Regulation of glycolysis involves all of the following except

    A) Insulin
    B) Glucagon
    C) SREBP1c
    D) AMPK
    E) None of the above
    E
  8. The binding of insulin to receptors on the surface of muscle cells stimulates which of the following processes

    A) Glycogenolysis
    B) Glycogenesis
    C) Release of ATP
    D) Formation of cyclic AMP
    E) Release of glucagon
    B
  9. Under stressful conditions epinephrine is released from the adrenal medulla. The release of epinephrine has which of the following effects on glucose metabolism?

    A) Glycogenolysis is stimulated
    B) Glycogenesis is inhibited
    C) Adenylate cyclase is activated
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  10. Phosphorylase kinase

    A) Converts inactive phosphorylase  to active phosphorylase 
    B) Converts active phosphorylase to inactive phosphorylase 
    C) Phosphorylates glycogen synthase
    D) Convets ADP to ATP
    E) Both B and C are correct
    A
  11. Cori’s disease is caused by

    A) Lack of insulin
    B) Lack of phospholylase b
    C) Lack of glucagons
    D) A deficiency of debranching enzyme
    E) Deficient chromium receptors on the cell surface
    D
  12. Which of the following activates phosphoprotein phosphatase?

    A) Insulin
    B) Epinephrine
    C) Glucagon
    D) ATP
    E) Both A and B are correct
    A
  13. Glucose-6-phosphate is a substrate in which of the following processes?

    A) Gluconeogenesis
    B) Glycolysis
    C) Photosynthesis
    D) Glycogenolysis
    E) Both A and B are correct
    E
  14. Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

    A) Is an indicator of high cellular glucose concentration
    B) Is formed by PFK-1
    C) Activates aldolase
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    A
  15. The Embden-Myerhof pathway is also referred to as

    A) Gluconeogenesis
    B) Glycogenolysis
    C) Glycolysis
    D) Glycogenesis
    E) Citric acid cycle
    C
  16. In glycolysis, net ________ moles of ATP are produced per mole of glucose consumed.

    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    E) 5
    B
  17. In glycolysis ________ moles of NADH are produced per mole of glucose consumed

    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    E) 5
    B
  18. The presence of which of the following molecules indicates that the cell has sufficient energy reserves?

    A) ATP
    B) Citrate
    C) ADP
    D) Fructose-1,6-biphosphate
    E) Both A and B are correct
    E
  19. Which of the following enzymes is an oxidoreductase?

    A) Aldolase
    B) Triose phosphate isomerase
    C) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehdyrogenase
    D) Phosphofructokinase
    E) Phosphoglucoisomerase
    C
  20. The first reaction in the oxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway is catalyzed by

    A)  Ribulose-5-phosphate dehydrogenase
    B) Transketolase
    C) Glucose-6-phosphatase
    D) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
    E) Hexokinase
    D
  21. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes an irreversible process?

    A) Pyruvate kinase
    B) Aldolase
    C) Enolase
    D) Phosphoglycerate mutase
    E) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase
    A
  22. In anaerobic organisms pyruvate is used to regenerate cellular ________.

    A) NADP+
    B) FADH
    C) FAD
    D) NAD+
    E) ADP
    D
  23. Allosteric regulation of which of the following enzymes is important in the regulation of glycolysis?

    A) Hexokinase
    B) PFK-1
    C) Pyruvate kinase
    D) Both A and C are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  24. Gluconeogenesis occurs primarily in the 

    A) Brain
    B) Muscle
    C) Liver
    D) Heart
    E) Pancreas
    C
  25. Which of the following molecules can be used to synthesize glucose via gluconeogenesis?

    A)  Lactate
    B) Pyruvate
    C) Glycerol
    D) Keto acids
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  26. Which of the following is the most important glucogenic amino acid?

    A) Aspartate
    B) Alanine
    C) Glycine
    D) Glutamate
    E) All are equally important
    B
  27. Gluconeogenesis is stimulated by high concentrations of which of the following compounds?

    A) Lactate
    B) Glycerol
    C) Amino acid
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  28. Which of the following is an oxidizing agent in fermentation?

    A) Lactate
    B) Glucose
    C) NADH
    D) Pyruvate
    E) ADP
    D
  29. In addition to glucose which of the following sugars are important in the human diet?

    A) Fructose
    B) Galactose
    C) Mannose
    D) Sucrose
    E) Both A and D are correct
    D
  30. Intermediates in the nonoxidative phase of the pentose phosphate pathway include all of the following except

    A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
    B) Sedoheptulose-7-phosphate
    C) Fructose-6-phosphate
    D) Xylulose-5-phosphate
    E) Erythrose-4-phosphate
    A
  31. The use of a highly exergonic reaction in the beginning of a catabolic pathway is referred to as  

    A) Bioactivation
    B) Turbo design
    C) Activation
    D) Glycolysis
    E) Both A and C are correct
    B
  32. Aldol cleavage of which of the following sugars will produce one mole each of dihydroxyacetone and glyceraldehyde?

    A) Fructose
    B) Glucose
    C) Ribose
    D) Maltose
    E) Trehalose
    A
  33. Which of the following is a second messenger in glycogenolysis?

    A) Glucagon
    B)  Insulin
    C)  Glucose
    D)  ATP
    E) cAMP
    E
  34. In animals excess glucose is converted into its storage form  ________


    Starch  
    Chitin
    Glycogen
    Amylose
    Amylopectin
    C
  35. The major carbohydrate fuel for most organisms is


    Glucose
    Fructose
    Ribose
    Sucrose
    All of the above
    A
  36. Which of the following enzymes is not required in gluconeogenesis?

    A) Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxekinase
    B)  Phosphofructokinase
    C)  Pyruvate kinase (also in glycolysis)
    D) Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase
    E)  Pyruvate carboxylase
    B+C
  37. The final product of glycolysis is 

    A) Dihydroxyacetone phosphate
    B) Pyruvate
    C) Ethanol
    D) Acetyl-CoA
    E) Acetaldehyde
    B
  38. The principal products of the pentose phosphate pathway include

    A) NADH
    B) NADPH
    C) ATP
    D) Ribose-5-phosphate
    E) Both B and D are correct
    E
  39. Flux of which of the following sugars into the glycolytic pathway is essentially unregulated.

    A) Glucose
    B) Fructose
    C) Glucose-1-phosphate
    D) Both A and C are correct
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  40. Conversion of fructose-6-phosphate to fructose-1,6-bisphosphate has two purposes. One is the commitment of the molecule to glycolysis, the second is 

    A) Raising the free energy of the system
    B)  Making possible the formation of a second mole of ATP
    C)  Preventing the cleavage products of the next step from diffusing out of the cell
    D)  Preventing the reverse reaction
    E)  Enolization of  the product
    C
  41. Which of the following enzymes will catalyze the first committed step in glycolysis



    Phosphofructoisomeras
    Aldolase
    Triose phosphate isomerase
    Phosphofructokinase  1
    Phosphoglucooisomerase
    D
  42. The Crabtree effect in yeast is



    A) Fermentation of glucose
    B) Repression of aerobic metabolism by glucose
    C) Repression of glycolysis by oxygen
    D) Repression of glucose metabolism by ethyl alcohol
    E) Fermentation of ethyl alcohol
    B
  43. The Pasteur Effect is


    A) Fermentation of glucose
    B)Repression of aerobic metabolism by glucose
    C)Repression of glycolysis by oxygen
    D)Repression of glucose metabolism by ethyl alcohol
    E)Fermentation of ethyl alcohol
    C
  44. A diauxic shift is


    A) A significant change in gene expression
    B) Shifting from aerobic to anerobic respiration
    C) Shifting from anerobic to aerobic respiration
    D) Change in composition of microbes in a sample
    E) Change in the amount of ATP used to ferment glucose
    A
  45. The phosphorolation of glucose  when it enters a cell accomplishes which of the following.



    A) Makes the glucose more water soluble
    B) Prevents back diffusion out of the cell
    C) Isomerize the glucose
    D) Activates the glucose for further reaction
    E) B and D
    E
  46. Which of the following compounds is an end product of anerobic respiration?



    A) Carbon dioxide   
    B) Ethanol
    C) Water
    D) Glycogen
    E) Acetaldehyde
    B
  47. Place the following reaction intermediates of the citric acid cycle in chronological order. i. malate,  ii fumarate, iii succinylCoA, iv citrate, v α-ketoglutarate.

    A), i, ii, iv, v, iii
    B) iv, v, iii, i, ii
    C) iv, i, v, iii, ii
    D) v, iii, i, ii, iv
    E) iv, v, iii, ii, i
    E
  48. Oxalosuccinate is a transient intermediate formed during which of the following reactions?

    A) Citrate  Isocitrate
    B) Isocitrate  α-ketoglutarate
    C) Pyruvate  Acetyl CoA
    D) Malate  Oxaloacetate
    E) Succinyl CoA Succinate
    B
  49. FADH2 is a product of which of the following reactions?

    A) Pyruvate  Acetyl CoA
    B) Malate  Oxaloacetate
    C) SuccinylCoA  Succinate
    D) Succinate  Fumarate
    E) Succinate   Malate
    D
  50. NADH is produced in which of the following reactions?

    A) Malate  Fumarate
    B) Succinate  Fumarate
    C) α-Ketoglutarate  SuccinylCoA
    D) SuccinylCoA  Fumarate
    E) Oxaloacetate  Citrate
    C
  51. In the glyoxylate cycle two-carbon molecules are converted to precursors of which of the following?

    A) Acetyl-CoA
    B) Glucose
    C) Pyruvate
    D) Succinate
    E) Carbon dioxide
    B
  52. Which of the following enzymes is unique to the glyoxylate cycle __________?

    A) Aconitase
    B) Malate dehydrogenase
    C) Fumarase
    D) Succinate dehydrogenase
    E) Isocitrate lyase
    E
  53. The regulated enzymes of the citric acid cycle include _________.

    A) Malate dehydrogenase
    B) Fumarase
    C) Citrate lyase
    D) α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
    E) Succinate thiokinase
    D
  54. The enzymes involved in citrate metabolism include all of the following except _______.

    A) Citrate synthase
    B) Citrate lyase
    C) Pyruvate carboxylase
    D) Malate synthase
    E) Malic enzyme
    D
  55. Redox potential is best defined as

    A) The tendency of one species to gain electrons
    B) The tendency of one species to lose electrons
    C) The tendency of a species to gain or lose electrons
    D) The entropy of a reaction expressed as a voltage difference
    E) None of the above is correct
    C
  56. In order to determine the standard voltage of a reaction

    A) The individual reaction reduction potentials must be added
    B) The standard cells must be written as they occur in the reaction and the voltages are added.
    C) All the reactions must be written as oxidations and the voltages are added.
    D) The voltages of the individual reactions at pH = 7 must be calculated and the resultant voltages are added.
    E) A standard voltage for a reaction must be determined experimentally.
    B
  57. Which of the following reactions is an oxidation reaction?

    A) NaOH +HCl  NaCl  + H2O
    B) CH3COOH   CH3COO- +H+
    C) CH3CHO   CH3CH2OH
    D) CH3CH2OH  CH3CHO
    E) CH2=CH2 + H2O  CH3CH2OH
    D
  58. Which of the following reactions has an oxidized product?

    A) Carboxylic acid  aldehyde
    B) R-SH + RSH   R-S-S-R
    C) Alcohol  Ketone   Wrong answer on the answer key here….this is oxidized.
    D) Glutamate  α-Ketoglutarate
    E) None of the above are correct
    E
  59. In any redox reaction, an electron donor is 

    A) The reducing agent
    B) The oxidizing agent
    C) Reduced as it accepts electrons
    D) All of the above are correct
    E) None of the above are correct
    A
  60. In a redox reaction, an electron acceptor is

    A) Oxidized as it accepts one or more electrons
    B) The reducing agent
    C) Converted to an electron donor with the gain of one or more electons
    D) All of the above are correct
    E) None of the above are correct
    C
  61. Each turn of the citric acid cycle produces how many moles of CO2 ?

    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    E) 5
    B
  62. Acetyl CoA that is consumed by the citric acid cycle is produced from which of the following biochemical pathways?

    A) Glycolysis
    B) Fatty acid oxidation
    C) Purine catabolism
    D) Urea cycle
    E) Both A and B are correct
    E
  63. Which of the following is the strongest reducing agent? (The standard reduction potential of each species is provided in parentheses.)

    A) FADH2 (+0.22V)
    B) H2 (+0.424V)
    C) Cytochrome a-Fe+2 (-0.29V)
    D) Lactate ( + 0.19 V)
    E) H2O (+0.82V)
    B
  64. Which of the following reacts with acetylCoA to form citrate?

    A) Succinate
    B) Oxaloacetate
    C) α-Ketoglutarate
    D) Fumarate
    E)  Malate
    B
  65. The redox reaction in which succinate is converted to fumarate uses FAD rather than NAD+ because

    A) FAD is a stronger oxidizing agent than NAD+
    B) NAD+ is a stronger oxidizing agent than FAD
    C) FAD is required for the oxidation of carboxylic acids
    D) Only FAD can penetrate into mitochondria
    E) NAD is not found in the cytoplasm.
    A
  66. Most of the energy released during the electron transport system is used to drive
    ______ synthesis.


    ATP
    ADP
    NADH
    NADPH
    Fatty acids
    A
  67. Which of the following reactions requires GDP
    A) Fumarate   Malate
    B) SuccinylCoA  Succinate
    C) Malate  Oxaloacetate
    D) Citrate  Isocitrate
    E) α-Ketoglutarate  Succinyl CoA
    B
  68. How many oxidations steps are there in the citric acid cycle?

    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 3
    D) 4
    E) 5
    D
  69. The product of the first reaction of the citric acid cycle is ________.


    Acetyl-CoA
    Oxaloacetate
    Pyruvate
    Lactate
    Citrate
    E
  70. Which of the following reactions involves a substrate level phosphorylation?

    A) Pyruvate   AcetylCoA
    B) Succinyl CoA   Succinate
    C) Citrate  Isocitrate
    D) Fumarate  Malate
    E) Malate  Oxaloacetate
    B
  71. The carbon skeletons of which of the following are direct precursors of amino acids? 

    A) Malate
    B) Succinate
    C) α-Ketoglutarate
    D) Oxaloacetate
    E) Both C and D are correct
    E
  72. Which of the following is not directly required for the activity of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

    A) CoASH
    B) Lipoic acid
    C) NAD+
    D) ATP
    E) None of the above are correct
    D
  73. Which of the following is a positive effector of isocitrate dehydrogenase?

    A) ADP
    B) FAD
    C) NADH
    D) Succinyl–CoA
    E) Both A and C are correct
    A
  74. Consider the following reaction:

    Pyruvate + NADH  + H+ -- Lactate + NAD+

    The half cell reaction ( with their standard reduction potentials ) are
    Pyruvate + 2H+ + 2e-  Lactate (-0.19V)
    NAD+  + H+  +2e-   NADH (-0.32V)
    What is the reduction potential for the overall reaction?

    A) + 0.00V
    B) + 0.03 V
    C) + 0.13 V
    D) +0.22 V
    E) +0.15 V
    C
  75. The overall reaction catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase is which of the following?

    A) CH3COCHO  + NAD+ + CoASH  CH3CHOSCoA + NADH
    B) CH3COCOO- + FAD +CoASH   CH3CHSCoA  + NADH
    C) CH3COCOO- + NAD+ + CoASH  CH3COSCoA + NADH
    D) CH3CH(OH)COO- + NADH + CoASH  CH3CH(OH)COSCoA + NAD+
    E) None of the above is correct
    C
  76. The citric acid cycle is a component of aerobic respiration. Molecular oxygen

    A) Is directly involved in the reactions of the cycle
    B) Is only indirectly involved in the reactions of the cycle
    C) Is an important  substrate for  the cycle
    D) Both A and C are true
    E) None of the above are true.
    B
  77. The main toxic effect of oxygen is due to which of the following?

    A) Sulfate formation
    B) ROS
    C) Heat production during oxidation
    D) Protons
    E) Hydroxide ion
    B
  78. The primordial reductive branch of the citric acid cycle was a means of producing which of the following?

    A) ATP
    B) NADP+
    C) NADPH
    D) NADH
    E) None of the above are correct
    E
  79. The primordial oxidation branch of the citric acid cycle used which of the following as the ultimate electron acceptor?

    A) Pyruvate
    B) Carbon dioxide
    C) Oxygen
    D) Sulfur
    E) NAD+
    D
  80. The enzyme which links the two branches of the citric acid cycle is which of the following

    A) α-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
    B) Lactate dehydrogenase
    C) Malate dehydrogenase
    D) Fumatate reductase
    E) Fumarase
    A
  81. The glyoxylate cycle is a mechanism whereby plants manufacture carbohydrate from ___________.

    A) Other carbohydrates
    B) Amino acids
    C) Fatty acids
    D) Carbon dioxide
    E) Phospholipids
    C
  82. In biological systems most energy generating redox reactions involve hydride ion transfer or hydrogen atom transfer using which of the following?

    A) NADH
    B) FADH2
    C) Pyruvate
    D) NADPH
    E) Both A and B are correct
    E
  83. Which of the following coenzymes function as an acetyl group carrier?

    A) Thiamine pyrophosphate
    B) Lipoic Acid
    C) NADH
    D) FADH2
    E) Coenzyme A
    E
  84. The first of two molecules of carbon dioxide is released from which of the following compounds in the citric acid cycle?

    A) Isocitrate
    B) Citrate
    C) α-Ketoglutarate
    D) Succinate
    E) Fumarate
    A
  85. The high energy molecule produced in the conversion of succinyl-CoA to succinate is which of the following

    A) ATP
    B) GTP
    C) AMP
    D) NADH
    E) Both A and B are correct
    E
  86. Which of the following conversions is an anaplerotic reaction of the citric acid cycle?

    A) Pyruvate to oxaloacetate
    B) Certain amino acids to succinyl CoA
    C) Glutamate to α-ketoglutarate
    D) Aspartate to oxaloacetate
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  87. Oxygen is useful for energy generation because 


    It is soluble in the cell membrane 
    It is abundant
    It is a powerful reducing agent
    It is a powerful oxidizing agent
    A, B and D
    E
  88. The most pivotal event in the history of life on earth was


    The development of DNA
    The development of RNA
    Emergence of the water splitting complex in Photosystem II
    Development of photosynthesis
    Adaptation to life on  land
    C
  89.  After the evolution of oxygenic photosynthesis the release of oxygen was not immediately followed by the accumulation of oxygen in the atmosphere. This was true because


    It was incorporated into organic molecules
    It remained dissolved in water
    It was consumed by oxidizable materials such as iron and ammonia
    A and C
    A, B and C
    c
  90. Obligate anaerobes are


    Organisms that possess antioxidant molecules that detoxify ROS
    Grow only in the absence of oxygen
    Can use oxygen when it is available
    Require oxygen to grow
    Release oxygen
    B
  91.  Facultative anaerobes


    Organisms that possess antioxidant molecules that detoxify ROS
    Grow only in the absence of oxygen
    Can use oxygen when it is available
    Require oxygen to grow
    Release oxygen
    C
  92. In eukaryotes citrate synthetase rate is controlled primarily by


    Availability of oxaloacetate
    Allosteric regulators
    Concentration of maleate
    The NADH/NAD+ ratio
    SuccinylCoA availability
    A
  93. Molecules involved in the conversion of oxidized proteins to their functional reduced suylfhydryl form include all of the following except

    Thioredoxin
    B) NADPH
    C) Catalase
    D) Thioredoxin reductase
    E) None of the above are correct
    C
  94. All of the following are components of the electron transport chain except ______.

    A) Coenzyme Q
    B) Succinate dehydrogenase
    C) Coenzyme A
    D) Cytochrome c
    E) NADH dehydrogenase
    C
  95. The ETC component that transfers electrons directly to oxygen is __________.

    A) Cyt c
    B) UQ
    C) Cyt bc1
    D) Cytochrome oxidase
    E) Succinate dehydrogenase
    D
  96. During the oxidation of NADH there are several steps in which ΔEo’ is sufficient for ATP synthesis. These occur within

    A) Complexes I, II and III
    B) Complexes I, III and IV
    C) Complexes II, III, and IV
    D) Complexes III, IV and V
    E) Complexes I, II and IV
    B
  97. Which of the following molecules inhibits Complex I of the electron transport chain?

    A) Azide
    B) Amytal
    C) Cyanide
    D) Arsenic
    E) Carbon monoxide
    B
  98. ATP synthesis and mitochondrial electron transport are coupled by

    A) Protonmotive force
    B) High energy intermediates
    C) Proton gradient
    D) Both A and C are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    D
  99. Evidence supporting the chemiosmotic theory inculdes all of the following except

    A) Inhibitors of ATP synthesis have been shown to dissipate the proton gradient
    B) Mitochondria with disrupted membranes cannot synthesize ATP
    C) ATP synthesis is depressed when mitochondrial swelling occurs as a result of osmotic changes
    D) The pH of a weakly buffered suspension of mitochondria rises when O2 added.
    E) Actively respiring mitrochondria expel protons
    D
  100. Examples of uncouplers include ________.

    A) DNP
    B) Antimycin
    C) Gramicidin
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and C are correct
    E
  101. In the ATP Synthase the Fo factor

    A) Has three types of subunits
    B) Possesses ATPase activity
    C) In a transmembrane proton channel
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and C are correct
    E
  102. The maximum P/O ration of FADH2 is

    A) 1.5
    B) 1.75
    C) 2.0
    D) 2.5
    E) 3.0
    A
  103. The control of aerobic respiration by _________ is referred to as respiratory control.

    A) HPO4-2
    B) NADH
    C) FADH2
    D) Citrate
    E) ADP
    E
  104. The first ROS formed during the reduction of oxygen is ________.

    A) Hydrogen peroxide
    B) Hydroxyl radical
    C) Singlet oxygen
    D) Superoxide radical
    E) None of the above are correct
    D
  105. The reaction of Fe+2 with H2O2 results in the production of 

    A) Hydroxyl radical
    B) Hydroxide ion
    C) Superoxide radical
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and C are correct
    D
  106. ROS are generated during
    A) Xenobiotic metabolism
    B) Respiratory burst
    C) Ionizing radiation
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  107. Glutathione peroxidase

    A) Converts organic peroxides into alcohols
    B) Generates GSH from GSSG
    C) Reduces H2O2 into H2O
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and C are correct
    E
  108. The NADPH required for the generation of GSH from GSSG in synthesized by the reactions of 

    A) The pentose phosphate pathway
    B) Glycolysis
    C) The citric acid cycle
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and C are correct
    A
  109. Glutathione peroxidase requires _____ for full activity

    A) Sulfur
    B) Copper
    C) Iron
    D) Selenium
    E) Magnesium
    D
  110. Examples of antioxidants include all of the following except _________
    A) Ascorbic acid
    B) β−Carotene
    C) α-Tocopherol
    D) Hydroquinone
    E) Gramicidin
    E
  111. One of the mechanisms by which vitamin C protects membrane is by

    A) Regenerating reduced α-tocopherol
    B) Reacting with proline
    C) Reacting with peroxyl radicals
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) Both A and  C are correct
    E
  112. The ultimate electron acceptor of the mitochondrial electron transport system is

    A) Coenzyme Q
    B) NADPH
    C) O2
    D) H2O
    E) Both C and D are correct
    C
  113. The major sources of NADH that reduce Complex I of the ETC include

    A) Fatty acid oxidation
    B) CoQ
    C) Pentose phosphate pathway
    D) The citric acid cycle
    E) Both A and D are correct
    E
  114. In Complex III, electrons are tranferred from UQH2 to 

    A) O2
    B) Coenzyme Q
    C) Cytochrome c
    D) FAD
    E) NADH
    C
  115. ___________ is a metal cofactor of the cytochromes.

    A) Fe
    B) S
    C) Co
    D) Zn
    E) Ca
    A
  116. Carbon monoxide inhibits which of the following?

    A) NADH dehydrogenase
    B) Ubiquinone
    C) Cytochrome oxidase
    D) Succinate dehydrogenase
    E) None of above are correct
    C
  117. Which of the following is the best reducing agent?

    A) H2O
    B) O2
    C) FADH2
    D) FMNH2
    E) NADH
    E
  118. The final product of oxidative phosphorylation is ________.

    A) Water
    B) ADP
    C) NADPH
    D) ATP
    E) FMNH2
    D
  119. _____________ are hydrophobic molecules that dissipate ionic gradients.

    A) Uncouplers
    B) Ionophores
    C) Xenobiotics
    D) Radicals
    E) None of the above are correct
    B
  120. The return of ______ into the mitochondrion is coupled to the formation of ______.

    A) Ca+2/cAMP
    B) Fe+2/CoQ
    C) ADP/NADH
    D) ADP/ CoASH
    E) H+/ATP
    E
  121. The energy that is captured by the electron transport system is in the form of 

    A) NADH
    B) FADH2
    C) ATP
    D) Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    D
  122. Reducing power generated in the cytoplasm can be transferred into the mitochondrion by which of the following processes?

    A) Glycerol phosphate shuttle
    B) Malate-aspartate shuttle
    C) The phosphate shuttle
    D) A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    D
  123. The cytochromes contain which type of prosthetic group?

    A) FADH
    B) Heme
    C) TPP
    D) Zinc++
    E) NAD +
    B
  124. The function of complex III is the transfer of electrons from

    A) Coenzyme Q to Cyt c
    B) NADH to CoQ
    C) Succinate to UQ
    D) CoQ to NADH
    E) UQ to succinate
    A
  125. Which of the following complexes contain copper?

    A) Complex I
    B) Complex II
    C) Complex III
    D) Complex IV
    E) Complex V
    D
  126. Which of the following acts as an allosteric inhibitor of complex IV?

    A) FMN
    B) NADH
    C) FADH2
    D) ATP
    E) ADP
    D
  127.  Which of the following is not a step in the ATP synthesizing process?

    A) ADP + Pi bind to the L site
    B) ATP is synthesized as the L conformation converts to the T conformation
    C) ATP is released as the T conformation converts to the O confirmation
    D) The O conformation binds ADP and Pi
    E) All of the above are correct
    D
  128. Nonshivering thermogenesis is regulated by which of the following?

    A) Norepinephrine
    B) Thermogenin
    C) UCP2
    D) ATP
    E) GTP
    A
  129. The primary function of catalase is to 

    A) Detoxify peroxides
    B) Reduce the disulfide group
    C) Convert hydrogen peroxide to water
    D) Generate ROS
    E) Oxidize heme
    C
  130. How many ATP are generated during the oxidation of one NADH?

    A) 1
    B) 2
    C) 2.5
    D) 3
    E) 3.5
    C
  131. Which of the following would not be classified as a ROS?

    A) Oxygen
    B) CH3O.
    C) H-O-O.
    D) Hydroxide ion
    E) All of the above are ROS
    D
  132. The principal sources of electrons for the electron transport system is (are) which of the following

    A) Glycolysis
    B) Citric acid cycle
    C) Fatty acid oxidation
    D)  Both A and B are correct
    E) All of the above are correct
    E
  133. The statement aerobic organisms use oxygen to generate energy required to maintain metabolic processes yet they risk damage caused by highly reactive oxygen molecules can be referred to as:

    Oxidation
    Reactive oxygen species
    Oxygen paradox
    Metabolic damage
    Thermodynamic inconsistency
    C
  134. The ultimate waste products of aerobic cellular metabolism of oxygen include

    Pyruvate
    Ethyl alcohol
    Carbon dioxide
    Carbon monoxide
    A or B
    C
  135. According to the solid state model of electron transport electron transfer is efficient because

    Electron transfer is the result of random collisions
    There are short diffusion distances between components for mobile electron carriers
     UQ is abundant
     Cytochrome c diffuses rapidly
    Electron carriers are mobile
    B
  136. How many protons are required to drive the phosphorylation of ADP by the mitochondrial ATP synthase?


    One
    Two
    Three
    Four
    Five
    C
  137. A respiratory burst is initiated when NADPH reacts with oxygen to produce which of the following?

    Superoxide anion
    Water
    Hydrogen peroxide
    Hydroxyl radical
    Peroxide radical
    A
  138. Antimycin A inhibits cyt b in complex III. If this inhibitor is added to a suspension of 
    mitochondria which of the following will increase in concentration?


    NADH
    Reduced cytochrome c1
    Reduced cytochrome c
    NAD+
    A and D
    A

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