Pharm Final

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jared.seehawer
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208514
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Pharm Final
Updated:
2013-03-20 14:15:50
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chem 360 pharmacology
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pharm final
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  1. Non-polar drugs are transported inn the blood bound to:
    serum albumin
  2. An enzyme family which adds OH groups to drugs:
    Cytochrome P-450
  3. Enzyme which adds sugar molecules to drugs:
    Glucoronic acid
  4. Glucoronic acid works on ________, a metabolite product of heme.
    bilirubin
  5. Heroin is a schedule ___ drug.
    I
  6. A molecule which increases the risk of birth defects is called a:
    teratogen
  7. NH2 group are called:
    Amine groups
  8. NH3+ groups are called:
    ammonium ions
  9. Amine groups can be converted into ammonium ion groups by the addition of:
    hydrogen ion
  10. Which drug form passes the blood brain barrier easier?
    Amine
  11. Which drug form is sometimes referred to as free base?
    amine
  12. Which drug form is present in morphine sulfate?
    ammonium ion
  13. Benzocaine has a pka=2.5. Which form will be present at physiological pH (7.4)?
    amine
  14. Type of receptor at sympathetic ganglion?
    nicotinic
  15. Neurotransmitter at the sympathetic ganglion:
    acetylcholine
  16. Action of acetylcholine is terminated by:
    acetylcholinesterase
  17. Sympathetic neurotransmitter released by adrenal gland:
    epinephrine
  18. Epinephrine is terminated by:
    monoamine oxidase
  19. The safety of a drug is measured by a number called the ____ _____ which is equal to ______.
    • therapeutic index
    • lethal dose/effective dose for half the population
  20. If a drug has a TI=3, is is relatively (safe/unsafe).
    Unsafe
  21. Drug used to decrease saliva and GI motility before an operation:
    atropine
  22. Atropine can cause (increased/decreased) heart rate.
    increased
  23. ______ is a drug for COPD that contains 2 drugs, _____ which acts as an adrenergic agonist and _______, an anticholinergic.
    • Albuterol
    • ipratropium bromide
  24. Drug of choice for tx anaphylactic shock:
    epinephrine
  25. Common adrenergic drug for rescuing an asthma attack:
    albuterol
  26. Albuterol works as an ____ of _____ receptors.
    • agonist
    • beta 2
  27. Common long-acting adrenergic asthma med, _______, is not useful for asthma attacks because ______.
    • Salmeterol
    • delayed onset
  28. Primary steroid for treating asthma:
    Flovent
  29. ______ contains Flovent combined with _____ and is most commonly administered with a _ _ _.
    • Advair
    • Salmeterol
    • dry powder inhaler
  30. Terbutaline is used to the treatment of ______.
    premature childbirth
  31. BPH is commonly treated with the drug:
    Flomax
  32. Montelukast (Singulair) is a drug used to inhibit the formation of inflammatory _______ molecules and is commonly used in the treatment of asthma.
    leukotrienes
  33. General name for adrenergic drugs which cannot be taken orally:
    catecholamine
  34. A schedule II drug other than methylphenidate (Ritalin) used to treat ADHD:
    amphetamine (Adderall)
  35. Two common antihypertensive drugs, ______ and ______ slow heart rate by acting as (agonist/antagonists) of the ___ receptors.
    • atenolol
    • metoprolol
    • antagonists
    • beta 1
  36. Parkinson's disease occurs when there is a relative lack of ______ in the ______ of the brain.
    • dopamine
    • striatum
  37. Parkinson's is commonly treated with a combination which contains _____ and _____, the latter of which inhibits the enzyme ________.
    • L-DOPA
    • carbidopa
    • DOPA decarboxylase
  38. Second common drug for treating Parkinson's is ______ which inhibits the enzyme ________.
    • selgeline
    • type B monamine oxidase
  39. Type of diet used to tx seizures:
    ketogenic
  40. Common anti seizure medication with numerous bad side-effects such as gingival hyperplasia, sedation, and blurred speech:
    dilantin
  41. If tonic-clinic seizures last longer than 20 min the condition is called ____ _____ and a drug of choice for treating this is _____.
    • status epilepticus
    • phenytoin
  42. Anti-seizure medication that commonly causes GI upset and nausea but has shown efficacy for all seizure types:
    Valproic acid
  43. Commonly prescribed anti-seizure drug that is more commonly prescribed for off label uses such as neuralgic pain:
    gabapentin
  44. New improved version of gabapentin which has official FDA approval for treating neuralgic pain is still under patent:
    Lyrica
  45. Inorganic drug for bipolar disorder:
    lithium carbonate
  46. Several drugs in _____ and ______ families have also been approved for bipolar disorder.
    • anti-seizure
    • atypical anti-psychotics
  47. Biochemically, schizophrenia may be due to ____ levels of _____ in the _____ region of the brain.
    • high
    • dopamine
    • mesolimbic
  48. Hallucinations are an example of _____ symptoms of schizophrenia.
    positive
  49. An older ant-psychotic still occasionally used as a sedative:
    Haloperidol
  50. Older anti-psychotic drugs often produce symptoms similar to Parkinson's called _____.
    extra-pyrimidal effects
  51. Two atypical antipsychotics ______ and ______, claim to be more effective than older antipsychotics in treating the ________ symptoms of psychosis.
    • rispiridone
    • Abilify
    • negative
  52. Common adverse effect of atypical antipsychotics:
    weight gain
  53. Two common older antiemetics other than Benadryl and THC:
    • Compazine
    • phenegan
  54. Newer antiemetic that is more effective at treating pain associated with chemotherapy:
    Zofran
  55. Depression may be due to (high/low) levels of the neurotransmitters:
    • norepinephrine
    • dopamine
    • seratonin
  56. One member of the TCA antidepressant family:
    amitriptyline
  57. TCA stands for ____ ____ ____
    tricyclic antidepressant
  58. Prozac is the original member of the family:
    SSRIs, selective seratonin reuptake inhibitors
  59. Two newer SSRIs:
    • Paxil
    • Zoloft
  60. SARI used for sedation and was used on Mr. Brown in ODA:
    trazadone
  61. SNRI that causes serious withdrawal problems:
    effexor
  62. SNRI that has FDA approval for treating neuralgic pain:
    Cymbalta
  63. NDRI antidepressant _____ is advertised as causing minimal sexual dysfunction. It also approved for treating _____.
    • bupropion
    • smoking cessation
  64. Major family of anxiolytic and hypnotic drugs:
    benzodiazepines
  65. Benzodiazepines potentiates the effect of the natural CNS depressant ____ _____ ____ which works by causing (increase/decrease) of ___ ions inside the nerve cell.
    • gamma aminobutyric acid
    • increase
    • Cl
  66. Most commonly prescribed benzo that cause American express card syndrome:
    Xanax
  67. Benzo for alcoholic withdrawals:
    lorazepam
  68. Benzo used to induce amnesia for sx procedures:
    midazolam
  69. Two common diuretics and part of nephron they act on:
    • furosemide, ascending loop of Henle
    • hydrochlorothiazide, early distal convoluted tubule
  70. Low blood level of ___ ion, called _____, is a common adverse effect of diuretics and a common symptom of this is _____
    • potassium
    • hypokalemia
    • m. cramps
  71. Two diuretics which prevent hypokalemia, _____ and _____, work on the _________ portion of the nephron.
    • spironolactone
    • triamterine
    • late distal convoluted tubule
  72. Two common specific ACE inhibitors:
    • lisinopril
    • quinapril
  73. ARB or ARA stads for:
    angiotensin II receptor antagonist
  74. One example of an ARB:
    losartan
  75. ARBs advantage over ACE inhibitors:
    no cough
  76. Calcium channel blocker that only works on blood vessels:
    Procardia
  77. CCB that also works on the heart:
    non-dihydropyridine
  78. Advertisements for CCB suggest they are more efficacious in _____ than other HTNs.
    african americans
  79. Anti HTN that has persistent dry cough as adverse effect:
    ACE inhibitors
  80. Anti HTN that has edema as a common adverse effect:
    CCB
  81. Anti HTN that is teratogenic:
    ACE inhibitors and ARBs
  82. ______ is commonly prescribed for angina and is put under the tongue of cheeked rather than swallowed because of the ____ ____ effect.
    • Nitroglycerin
    • first-pass
  83. Two drugs used for prevention of anginal attacks:
    • CCBs
    • Beta blockers
  84. Long term use of angina drugs has dropped in the last decade because of an increase in ___ procedures.
    stent
  85. Nitroglycerin and Viagra are both metabolized to produce the potent vasodilator:
    nitric oxide
  86. Family of drugs whose generic names frequently end in -pril:
    ACE inhibitor
  87. Family of drugs that frequently end in -sartan:
    ARBs
  88. -prazole:
    protein pump inhibitors
  89. -pam/lam:
    benzodiazepines
  90. -glitazone:
    diabetes
  91. -setron:
    antiemetics
  92. -triptan:
    migraines
  93. Common drug isolated from foxglove leave for tx of CHF:
    digoxin
  94. Digoxin causes (increased/decreased) heart rate and (increased/decreased) contraction intensity which is referred to as a positive _____ effect.
    • decreased
    • increased
    • inotropic
  95. Digoxin can cause heart block, especially when combined with the _____ family of drugs.
    Diuretic
  96. Anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K synthesis:
    Coumadin
  97. Anticoagulant originally used as rat poinson:
    Coumadin
  98. Anticoagulant whose effect is immediate:
    Heparin
  99. Anticoagulant with more reproducible activity than usual IV drug:
    lovenox
  100. Expensive platelet aggregation inhibitor:
    Plavix
  101. A patient on the anticoagulant ________ should have an INR measured on a regular basis. A pt with an INR = 1.2 is in danger of ______.
    • Coumadin
    • hemorrhage
  102. INR stand for:
    International normalized ratio
  103. Drug under patent commonly used to inhibit platelet aggregation:
    Plavix
  104. Full generic name for one thrombolytic drug _____ _____ ____ and is abbreviated as ___. The most critical factor determining the efficacy of this drug is the _____. The most common adverse effect is:
    • tissue plasminogen activator
    • t-PA
    • the time it is administered
    • hemorrhage
  105. The _____ family of drugs inhibits the first enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis.
    statin
  106. Name 2 common drugs in the statin family:
    • lovastatin
    • simvastatin
  107. Drug which inhibits absorption of dietary cholesterol _____, it's use is questioned because:
    • zetia
    • doesn't reduce heart attack (surrogate outcome)
  108. Vitamin which lowers serum cholesterol when given in megadoses:
    niacin
  109. NSAID stands for:
    non-steroidal antinflammatory drug
  110. OTC NSAID with 8 hr half life: naproxen
  111. Common adverse effect of all OTC NSAIDs _____ is due to the fact they inhibit both forms of the enzyme:
    • stomach ulcers
    • cyclooxygenase
  112. OTC NSAID associated w/ Reyes syndrome:
    aspririn
  113. OTC analgesic and antipyretic which not an anti-inflammatory:
    Tylenol
  114. RX NSAID whose use is limited to 5 days:
    Toradol
  115. NSAID often used to tx gout:
    Indocin
  116. Anti-inflammatory drug _____ is given by injection for RA and other autoimmune diseases.
    Enbrel
  117. Long term blood glucose control is best measured by a quantity _______ that is abbreviated ____. A normal value for non-diabetics is ____%.
    • glycated hemoglobin
    • HbA1c
    • 5.5
  118. Name brand for regular insulin:
    Humulin R
  119. Type of insulin that acts faster than regular:
    Humalog
  120. Common intermediate type of insulin:
    NPH
  121. Long acting once-a-day form of insulin:
    Lantus
  122. Diabetics should not give themselves insulin shots in the same location in order to avoid:
    lipohypertrophy
  123. The oldest family of oral diabetic drugs _______ act as a molecular level by increasing insulin secretion and can cause _____.
    • sulfonylureas
    • weight gain
  124. Specific sulfonylurea:
    glipizide or glyburide
  125. Oral diabetic drug _____ has recently been pulled off the market due to increased risk of _______. A second drug in the same family still deemed to be safe ______.
    • Avandia
    • heart attacks
    • pioglitazone
  126. A common oral diabetic drug regarded as a first line drug which is still regarded as safe:
    metformin
  127. Oral diabetics work on a molecular level by:
    increasing insulin receptor sensitivity
  128. Analgesic opioid with doubtful efficacy:
    Darvocet
  129. Potent synthetic opiate available as a patch:
    Fentanyl
  130. Most dangerous effect of opiate OD:
    respiratory depression
  131. Additional easily checked clinical sign of opiate OD:
    pinpoint pupils
  132. Opiate OD can be tx with:
    Narcan
  133. Codeine is virtually always rx combined with either _______ or _____.
    • acetaminophen
    • aspirin
  134. _____ is an opiate originally developed as an oral alternative to heroin addicts and is now commonly used to tx pain.
    methadone
  135. A device that allows a hospital patient to control their own IV dosage or morphine:
    Patient controlled analgesia
  136. Two opiates _____ and _____ are ineffective in 7% of the population because these people lack ______.
    • Codeine
    • hydrocodone
    • enzyme CYP 2D6
  137. Synthetic opiate used to control diarrhea:
    Imodium
  138. Common dental local anesthetic:
    lidocaine
  139. Topical local anesthetic that is also used in solarcaine:
    benzocaine
  140. Cocaine is a schedule ___ drug.
    II
  141. Cimetidine (Tagamet) was the first member of the ________ family of drugs treating ulcers but has largely been replaced by drugs in the same family such as _____ and ____.
    • H2 antagonist
    • Zantac
    • Pepcid
  142. Full medical name for heartburn:
    gastro-esophageal reflux disease
  143. Drug family that is even more effective in stopping gastric HCl secretion then the Tagamet family:
    Proton Pump Inhibitor
  144. _____ is the pure "right hand glove" form of the ulcer _____ which has recently gone OTC.
    • Nexium
    • Prilosec
  145. The bacteria responsible for causing many non-NSAID related ulcers is:
    helicobacter pylori
  146. Oral use of broad spectrum can produce superinfection from a resistant bacteria such as _____ ________ when can produce the fatal condition ______ ______.
    • clostridium difficile
    • pseudomembranous colitis
  147. Penicillin drugs work at a molecular level by inhibiting the enzyme _______ which synthesizes _____ molecules in the cell wall.
    • transpeptidase
    • gram positive
  148. Bacteria can become resistant to penicillins by acquiring the enzyme called _____ or _____ which destroys penicillin.
    • beta lactamase
    • penicillinase
  149. The most common penicillin drug ______ can be combined with _____ ______ which inhibits beta lactamase.
    • Amoxicillin
    • potassium clavulanate
  150. Common adverse effect of penicillin family:
    allergic reaction
  151. MRSA stands for:
    methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus
  152. Antibiotic family similar to penicillins that work on gram negative bacteria:
    cephalosporins
  153. Cephalosporin used for gonorrhea:
    rocephin
  154. IV drug used as last resort for bacteria resistant to most common antibiotics:
    Merrem
  155. Antibiotic which should not be given to children under 8:
    tetracycline
  156. Relative of erythromycin that only needs a 5 day regimen:
    azithromycin
  157. _____ is a common alternative drug to penicillin the drug of choice for Lyme's disease but can cause photosensitivity.
    tetracycline
  158. Newer tetracycline that has a longer half life:
    doxycycline
  159. Sulfamethoxazole is a member of the _______ antibiotic family and is usually given in combo with trimethoprim because ______ It inhibits the synthesis of _____ which bacteria need to make DNA.
    • sulfonamides
    • it decreases resistance
    • folic acid
  160. An oral broad spectrum drug which inhibits bacterial DNA replication DNA gyrase _____. It is a second choice drug for treatment of gonorrhea.
    Cipro

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