Envoy EMB Oral Questions

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Envoy EMB Oral Questions
2014-11-19 13:58:26
EMB 145 140 Oral Questions American Eagle

EMB 145/140 Oral Questions American Eagle (Envoy)
Show Answers:

  1. What is required for an ALT T/O-1 Take-off?
    • Not a contaminated runway
    • ATTCS must be operational
    • Performance must support it (data)
    • No moderate or greater windshear in departure quadrant
    • No X-wind with slippery runways
    • Certain Noise Abatement Procedures must be considered (KSNA)
    • *Ultimately the captain's decision
  2. Windshear Avoidance
    • 1. Avoidance (First Rule!)
    •      Avoid severe WS
    •      PIREPs >20 knot shears
    •      LLWAS/Doppler 15 knots or more
    •      Can delay t/o or landing!
    • 2. Prevention
    •      Even if not reported
    •      Adjust VR 
    •      Use max rated thrust, longest runway
    •      Divert if necessary, go around
    • 3. Recognition
    •      "Marginal Flight Path Control"
    • 4. Escape!
    •      <1000 ft. AFL + Marginal Control = ESCAPE
  3. What is Marginal Control?
    Uncontrolled changes from normal, steady state flight conditions in excess of:

    • -   15 knots IAS
    • -   500 fpm
    • -   5o pitch attitude / 10o heading variation
    • -   1 dot displacement from GS
    • -   Unusual thrust lever position for significant time
    • -   Display of red WINDSHEAR alert (decreasing perf)
    • -   Display of amber WINDSHEAR alert (increasing perf.)
  4. Aircraft control
    • 1. Fly the plane
    • 2. Regain and Maintain control
    • 3. Identify the problem
    • 4. Treat the problem
  5. When to select REF A-ICE ON?
    Icing conditions on the ground or for takeoff prior to reaching 1,500 ft. AGL

    (Don't take into account lapse rates)

    Use on the ground/in-flight icing criteria
  6. Minimum Pavement Width for 180o turn?
    • EMB 145 - 70'
    • EMB 140 - 66'
  7. When will the Elec. Gust Lock Light come on?
    • Unlocking cycle
    • Press to Test
    • System Failure
  8. In Normal Cruise flight, push buttons are in and black except for the:
    • APU
    • GPU
  9. What are the Emergency Lights?
    • 1 set of floor strip lighting
    • 4 overhead aisle lights
    • 4 exit identifiers
    • 5 area lights
    • 6 exterior lights
    • 7 large EXIT signs
    •      -  4 exits, 2 aisle ceiling, 1 wall partition
  10. How much time does the CVR record?
    • 2 hours
    • On when batteries are on (ESS Bus)
  11. How much time does the Flight Data Recorder record?
    • 25 hours
    • When beacon is turned ON
    • or Airborne
    • Never pull the circuit breaker!
  12. What is a clue of an electric fuel pump failure?
    "Clicking" from the relay box behind the seats (cycling pumps)
  13. How would you know if ELT was activated?
    Red light flashes
  14. Heading Hold Submodes
    • Wings Level - ROL TO / ROL GA / ROL WINDHSEAR
    • Turn Knob - ROL TKNB
    • Roll Hold - when TCS button is pressed (between 6-35o of bank will hold the bank angle)
  15. When is Low Bank mode engaged?
    • Climbing above 25,000' in HDG mode
    • Off when descending thru 24,750'
    • LNAV mode has it's own logic to shallow bank
    • Limits the buffet margin (G's)
    • Bank angle changes from 27o to 14o
  16. What is the max difference between altimeters?
    • 50' between ADC altimeters
    • 75' of a known elevation
    • 150' between ADC and standby altimeter
  17. What are you checking during engine start?
    • N2 rise
    • Ignition on at 10% N2 (ON) or 14% N2 (AUTO)
    • Fuel flow at 28.5% or 12 seconds after ignition is enabled
    • ITT rise within 10 seconds of fuel flow
    • Oil pressure at least 34 PSI at idle
    • Start control valve closed at 56.4%
    • Ignition OFF at 57%
    • Sequence should take 40-60 seconds

    (Start 15.2) (ENG 26)
  18. Minimum battery voltage for a ground air start with APU or GPU not available?
  19. If it's a cold day and there are dashes on the oil pressure indication, what may be the problem?
    The cold may cause the oil sensor to display dashes on the EICAS. It is permissible to start the engine with dashes due to cold temperatures. The dashes should be replaced with a numeric value 15 seconds after initiation of start.
  20. When must a static takeoff be performed?
    If the actual takeoff weight is within 300 lbs. of the takeoff Runway Weight Limit for the thrust mode to be used. Release brakes after engines have reached the target N1.
  21. What VSI targets should pilots use during climbs?
    • 500 - 1,500 fpm or less when within 1,000 feet of assigned altitudes
    • 1,000 fpm when within 2,000 feet of assigned altitude in RVSM
  22. What characterizes sever ice?
    • Unusually extensive ice accreted on the airframe in areas not normally observed to collect ice
    • Accumulation of ice on the upper surface of the wing aft of the protected area
  23. What altitudes does RVSM apply to?
    FL290 to FL370
  24. RVSM Required Equipment
    • 1 Autopilot with Altitude Hold Mode
    • 1 Altitude Alerting System
    • 1 Altitude Reporting Transponder
    • 2 Operationally independent Primary Altimeters
  25. Minimum flap retraction speed during Missed Approach or Go-Around?
    • V2 + 15
    • As a matter of policy, VAPP/CLB is the established flap retraction speed, and in most cases will be higher than V2 + 15 unless extremely light.
  26. What temperatures are acceptable for the air conditioning auto mode?
    18o to 29oC
  27. What does the AOM say about pilot skill and the use of automation?
    Pilots shall maintain proficiency in the use of all levels of automation as well as the skills required to shift between levels of automation
  28. How long can the APU start selector be held in the START position?
    If the APU encounters starting problems, the Start Selector may be held in the START position up to 55% rotation speed if necessary.
  29. When should the Ignition be ON for engine starts?
    • Below 5oC SAT when the engine has not run in the past 90 minutes
    • During start difficulties
  30. What does the TO Config button check?
    • Flaps
    • Parking Brake
    • Pitch trim in Green Range
    • Spoilers stowed
  31. In flight hydraulic pressure must be between...?
    2,700 and 3,100 psi
  32. What is full scale deflection in TERM and ENROUTE using the FMS?
    • TERM - 1 mile full scale deflection (w/in 30 miles)
    • ENROUTE - 5 miles full scale deflection
  33. When can you manually ARM the FMS approach?
    • Within 50 NM of the landing runway
    • Automatically within 30 miles
    • Then goes to TERM scaling
  34. What is full scale deflection on an FMS approach when the approach is activated?
    • 0.3 NM (Blue APP label on PFD)
    • Automatically activated when the approach is armed, aircraft less than 2 NM from FAF or sequenced onto the first leg after the approach label
  35. At what cabin altitude will the cabin O2 masks deploy automatically?
    • 14,000'
    • Passenger Oxygen selector set to AUTO
  36. When must the radar not be operated?
    • Refueling
    • Near fuel spills
    • Near people
  37. How do you activate the WX radar out of FSBY mode?
    Press the STAB button 4 time within 3 seconds
  38. Is the APA system different than the TPS?
    Yes, use AOM volume 1
  39. What color is Type I de-icing fluid?
  40. What color is Type IV fluid?
  41. When would you press the DUMP button?
    • When the checklist says to...
    • Ground evacuation
    • Ditching
    • Cracked or impaired windshield
  42. What needs to be OFF when starting the APU off of battery power?
    Avionics Masters 1 and 2 must be OFF
  43. When is the captain in command of the aircraft?
    From when he boards to de-boards
  44. When do you check in for a flight or deadhead?
    • 45 minutes prior to flight
    • 30 minutes prior to deadhead
  45. If the SIC has less than 100 hours, when must the PIC make all takeoffs and landings?
    • SARA Airports
    • Visibility in latest report at or below 3/4 mile
    • RVR for runway to be used is at or below 4,000'
    • Runway to be used has water, snow, slush or similar conditions which may adversely affect performance
    • Braking action reported less than "good"
    • Crosswind greater than 15 knots
    • Windshear reported in vicinity of the airport
    • Any other condition the PIC deems prudent
  46. When is sterile cockpit?
    • Ground operations when aircraft is moving under its own power
    • Takeoff and landing
    • Last 1,000 feet of climb or descent prior to level off
    • Holding (any altitude)
    • All operations under 10,000 MSL, except if final cruise
    • Any other phase of flight as deemed necessary by the Captain
  47. Can you land if an airport advisory has not been obtained?
    No, landing is not authorized if airport advisories cannot be obtained.

    Obtain at least 10 miles out when inbound or prior to taxi when outbound
  48. Can we ever takeoff over MTOW?
    Yes, if MTOW is limited by landing weight because of fuel. The excess fuel can be burned off in flight.

    May NOT exceed structural takeoff weight, performance weight, drift down limits, and the captain must contact dispatch for an amendment to the release pior to takeoff.
  49. Do you ever need more than 45 minutes of reserve fuel?
    Yes, supplemental (CUBA)
  50. Wake turbulence avoidance on takeoff?
    • 2 minutes or 5 miles behind a heavy
    • 3 minutes or 8 miles behind a super (A380)
  51. Does TOTAL fuel on the release include EXTRA or FERRY fuel?
  52. When must passengers be given the opportunity to deplane? (Delays)
    At the gate - inform passengers every 30 minutes

    Off the gate - they must be given the opportunity prior to the 3 hour limit

    Flight Planning Tab FM-1
  53. 4 Requirements for operations at airports without a Control Tower?
    • 1. Must be served by an IAP
    • 2. Current Weather must be available
    • 3. Airport Advisories (Company or FSS)
    • 4. Traffic Advisories (CTAF, UNICOM, FSS)
  54. Max Holding Speeds?
    • MHA - 6,000      : 200
    • 6,001 - 14,000   : 230
    • 14,001 - above   : 265
  55. When is an alternate required?
    • 1-2-3 Rule
    • Crosswind for planned runway greater than 25 knots
    • Braking action reported "Nil" for planned runway
    • When you need a TO Alternate
    • Airshow/VIP movement within 2 hours (SHOULD)
  56. What is the 1 Navaid/2 Navaid method of determining alternate weather minimums?
    • 1) Airport with at least 1 operational navigational facility providing a straight-in approach, or when applicable, a circling maneuver:
    •      Add 400 ft to MDA or DA
    •      Add 1 SM to the minimum

    • 2) Airport with at least 2 operational navigational facilities, each providing straight in approach to different suitable runways:
    •      Add 200 ft. to the higher MDA or DA
    •      Add 1/2 SM to the higher minimum

    *Any required alternate must have an approved IAP other than GPS
  57. When must the beacon be turned on?
    Prior to pushback or engine start
  58. Requirements for a Takeoff Alternate?
    Airport must not be more than 1 hour from the departure airport at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine inoperative.

    Must be within 270 NM (EMB)
  59. When do you need a second alternate?
    When destination weather and 1st alternate weather is considered to be marginal.
  60. When is the destination weather considered marginal?
    Forecast to be less than 1,000 ft. ceiling or less than 3 SM vis from 1 hr prior to 1 hr after ETA
  61. When is the first alternate weather considered marginal?
    Forecast to have less than 600 ft. ceiling or less than 2 SM vis at the ETA.
  62. When should the ignitions be turned to ON?
    • Moderate or greater turbulence
    • Heavy precipitation
    • Takeoff from a contaminated runway
  63. When should the ignitions be ON for starting?
    • X-Bleed Start
    • External Air Start
    • Cold Start (5o SAT or colder, engine not run in 90 minutes or more)
    • Starting difficulties
    • Per MEL
  64. What's the PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) for?
    • (Engine Control and Ignition systems)
    • Fadecs
    • Only source of power for the ignitors
    • Thrust rating mode buttons in electrical emergency
  65. What happens to the rudder above 135 knots?
    • Both systems power the rudder below 135 knots
    • Rudder system 1 automatically shuts off above 135 knots
    • RUDDER OVERBOOST Caution if automatic shutoff fails
    • If rudder system 2 fails, system 1 will automatically take over (RUDDER SYS 2 INOP Caution)
  66. How does the Rudder Hardover Protection work?
    • With both engines running above 56.4% N2 and
    • Rudder force >130 lbs to counteract
    • Rudder deflection >5o +/- 1o

    *Disabled during SE operations
  67. What will activate the "Landing Gear" Aural Warning? (when gear not down and locked)
    • 1)  Radio altitude below 1,200 ft.
    •      Flaps < 22o
    •      One TL < 59o , other TL < 45o (or inop)
    •      ^only one that can be cancelled^
    •      (example - no flap landing)
    • 2)  Radio altitude below 1,200 ft.
    •      Flaps at 22o
    •      One TL < 59o , other TL < 45o (or inop)
    • 3)  Flap selector at 45o
  68. When will the ground spoilers open?
    • Automatically on the ground when:
    • MLG speed > 25 knots and
    • Both TL < 30o or N2 < 56.4%
  69. When will the speed brakes deploy? (Outboard)
    • Speed brake lever set to OPEN
    • Both engine TL's < 50o
    • Flaps 0o or 9o (technically < 13o)
  70. How many proximity switches for the gear?
    • 2 on each main
    • 1 on the nose
    •    for backup signal to thrust reversers
    •    steering control

    When 3 agree = valid
  71. What happens if gear extension fails?
    Electrical override... if that fails: free fall
  72. What is the purpose of the fuel ejector pump?
    To prevent pump cavitation (keeps the collector box full)
  73. What is the max altitude that the FPMU can supply fuel without pump assistance?
    25,000 ft.